after weeding her garden, marie experiences a severe allergic reaction to poison ivy. she presents to her physician with a rash on her face, arms, and legs. the physician prescribes a corticosteroid. how will this category of medication be most beneficial to marie?
As an anti-inflammatory this category of medication be most beneficial to marie.
How do corticosteroids reduce inflammation?Corticosteroids affect numerous signal transduction pathways in order to have their anti-inflammatory effects. By inhibiting HAT and attracting HDAC2 activities to the inflammatory genes transcription complex, they most effectively turn off a number of active inflammatory genes.
What kinds of substances are corticosteroids?FDA-approved corticosteroids like dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone, and prednisone are used to treat a variety of illnesses, including some types of cancer. The majority of people may receive corticosteroid injections without any problems, but if you have a severe infection or a blood coagulation disease, you should avoid them or take them with caution.
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the nurse enters the room of molly, who has pneumonia. molly has a low oxygen level and is working hard to breathe. the nurse raises the head of the bed and has molly tilt her head back. what is the next appropriate action by the nurse?
Provide oxygen therapy to Molly is the next appropriate action by the nurse.
What causes a person to get pneumonia?Pneumonia can be brought on by airway and lung viruses. The two most frequent causes of bacterial pneumonia in adults are the influenza (influenza virus) as well as the common cold (rhinovirus). In young children, respiratory syncytial (RSV) is the most frequent cause of viral pneumonia.
How serious is a pneumonia?The majority of pneumonia patients react favorably to therapy, although the condition can be highly hazardous and even fatal. But if you're an older adult, a small child, have a compromised immune system, or suffer from a chronic illness like diabetes or cirrhosis, you are more likely to experience difficulties.
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the nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who was experiencing anxiety after the loss of a job. the client is now verbalizing concerns regarding the ability to meet role expectations and financial obligations. what is the priority nursing problem for this client?
Using the duties of nursing, we got that Lack of ability to cope effectively is the priority which nurse should tell to a person who is experiencing anxiety after the loss of a job and verbalizing concerns regarding the ability to meet role expectations and financial obligations.
Nursing is the profession within the health care sector focused on the care of individuals, families, and the communities so they may attain, maintain, or recover optimal health and the quality of life.
They also take on vital roles of the education, assessing situations, as support.
Hence, for a client who was experiencing anxiety after the loss of a job, and verbalizing concerns regarding the ability to meet role expectations and financial obligations, nurse should tell him that Lack of ability to cope effectively is the priority.
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a client is taking 50 mg of oral spironolactone twice a day to assist with blood pressure control. while the nurse is performing the morning assessment, the client reports nausea, general muscle cramps, and weakness. the ecg strip shows a peaked, narrow t-wave, which is a change. what electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect?
A client is taking 50 mg of oral spironolactone two times a day to assist with blood pressure control. whilst the nurse is appearing for the morning evaluations Hyperkalemia
If hyperkalemia comes on suddenly and you've got very excessive ranges of potassium, we can sense heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, or vomiting. sudden or intense hyperkalemia is a life-threatening situation. It calls for immediate hospital therapy.
Hyperkalemia is the medical term that describes a potassium degree in our blood that is higher than every day. Potassium is a chemical this is important to the function of nerve and muscle cells, including those in our hearts.
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an iv seondary infusion of 0.9% normal saline 100 ml with inamrinone (inocor) 0.1 grams/100 ml is prescribed for client with heart failure. the medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute. the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (enter numeric value only. if rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
An IV secondary infusion is prescribed for client with heart failure and if medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute than the infusion pump will deliver at 24 ml/hour.
IV secondary infusion is typically an intermittent infusion that infuses at regular intervals (e.g., each eight hours). This kind of IV medical aid typically contains medications that are provided in an exceedingly smaller infusion bag and mixed with a agent fluid like saline (e.g., IV antibiotics).
Heart failure happens when the heart muscle does not pump blood yet because it ought to. Blood typically backs up and causes fluid to make up within the lungs (congest) and within the legs. The fluid buildup will cause shortness of breath and swelling of the legs and feet. Poor blood flow might cause the skin to seem blue (cyanotic).
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How many mg of a medication are needed to make 1,500 mL of a 1:4000 w/v solution
Answer:
375 mg
Explanation:
conversions
the nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who was admitted to the oncology unit due to dehydration and anorexia after chemotherapy treatment. what information should the nurse provide to the client to promote improve the client's nutritional intake at home?
The nurse should instruct the patient to take pain medicine before a meals.
Anorexia is an eating disorder characterized by an exceptionally low body weight, a severe anxiety of putting on weight, and an incorrect perception of weight. Anorexics typically make extreme attempts that drastically disrupt their lives in an effort to preserve their weight and looks.
Those who suffer from anorexia frequently severely limit their food intake in an effort to prevent gaining weight or to continue losing weight. They can lower their calorie intake by forcing themselves to vomit just after eating, or by misusing laxatives, diet pills, diuretics, or enemas. They could try to lose weight by exerting themselves excessively. The person's fear of gaining weight persists no matter how much weight is lost.
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a client states that the client's recent fall was caused by his scheduled antihypertensive medications being mistakenly administered by two different nurses, an event that is disputed by both of the nurses identified by the client. which measure should the nurses prioritize when anticipating that legal action may follow?
The nurse should document the client's claim and the events surrounding the incident.
The mistaken administration of the drug to the patient is an offensive one. Thus, the nurse should definitely document the client's claim and need to verify whether the allegation is correct or not, and then actions will be taken against the nurses who had mistakenly administrated the wrong medicine for the patient/client who is having hypertension.
The three most common dispensing errors were mixing the wrong drug, strength, or dosage form; miscalculation of dosage; and no drug interactions or contraindications have been identified. Medication errors can be caused by a healthcare provider or by a patient.
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extrapyramidal symptoms, serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that occur in some patients with schizophrenia, are similar to the symptoms of
Extrapyramidal symptoms and serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that occur in some patients with schizophrenia are same as the symptoms of: Parkinson's disease
What are the side effects of antipsychotic medications?Brain disorder that causes uncontrollable movements such as shaking, stiffness, and difficulty in balancing and coordination is Parkinson's disease.
Side effects of antipsychotics are : uncontrollable movements of the jaw, lips and tongue which is known as tardive dyskinesia, uncomfortable restlessness which is known as akathisia, sedation, weight gain, higher risk of getting diabetes, constipation an dry mouth.
The adverse side effects of antipsychotic medications range from relatively minor issues to very unpleasant and life threatening.
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what are characteristics of a healthy body weight? multiple select question. absence of medical conditions that suggest a need for weight loss body composition with an acceptable amount of fat muscular system that can lift three times the body's weight fat distribution that is not a risk factor for illness acceptable body mass index
The characteristics of a healthy body weight Option D. fat distribution that is not a risk factor for illness acceptable body mass index.
BMI is a body weight measurement and is not supposed to diagnose sickness or contamination. For extra data, go to about grownup BMI. keeping a weight inside the healthy BMI range is one way to support overall fitness as you age.
Older adults have a tendency to lose muscle and bone, so greater of their body weight is in all likelihood to come back from fats. more youthful humans and athletes may additionally weigh extra because of strong muscle tissues and denser bones. those realities can skew your BMI wide variety and make it much less correct for predicting genuine body fat degrees.
Muscle mass is greater dense than fat tissue. in order you gain extra muscle and lose fat, you convert your usual frame composition, which can result in better weight, however a smaller figure, and better health.
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a nurse from the postanesthesia care unit (pacu) transports a client in the elevator with a nurse from the intensive care unit (icu). there are staff members and visitors in the elevator as well. which response from the icu nurse is appropriate when the pacu nurse begins the report?
The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the post-anesthesia care unit nurse begins the report is, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."
The Post-Anesthesia Care Unit, or PACU, as it is more commonly known, is a facility where patients are temporarily admitted after undergoing any surgical procedures. In any hospital or medical facility, it is one of the most crucial sections or amenities. The post-anesthesia care unit is a crucial and critical care area where the patient and all of his or her vital signs are continuously monitored. It is also where pain management starts and where fluids are administered as needed. The nursing staff is adept at identifying and treating issues that arise in patients following anesthesia. The PACU is supervised by the Department of Anesthesiology in a hospital or other medical facility. In the PACU, perioperative and postanesthetic management of the patient takes place, which includes periodic assessment and monitoring of respiratory and cardiovascular function, neuromuscular function, mental status, temperature, pain, nausea, vomiting, drainage and bleeding, and urine output. The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the postanesthesia care unit nurse begins the report with, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."
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an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia after curtailing fluid intake to prevent urinary incontinence. given these findings, the nurse recognizes that this client is likely in what phase of acute kidney injury?
A phase of acute kidney injury from an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia is pararenal, because the cause is not from within the kidney.
There are 3 phases of acute kidney injury:
Prerenal is a factor that causes the worsening of kidney function before kidney organs. One of the most common causes of prerenal is hypovolemic shock, which is a condition of lack of fluids that reduces blood flow to the kidneys, for example, due to severe bleeding or diarrhea.Intrinsic means kidney failure occurs due to damage that occurs in the kidneys. Some disorders that can cause kidney damage directly are toxins, methanol, and infections. Severe infectious conditions (sepsis), scleroderma, multiple myeloma malignancies, and various kidney diseases are also included in the renal factor.Post-renal is a condition in which the kidneys can form urine well, but its flow in the urinary tract is obstructed. It can be found in tumors of the abdominal area (eg prostate, cervix, or bladder) that cause urine to block and cause kidney damage. Kidney stones can also obstruct the flow of urine.Learn more about acute kidney injury https://brainly.com/question/28304561
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he practitioner knows the client has sickle cell disease associated with hemoglobin s (hbs). the practitioner explains to the client that which major consequences can occur with this disorder? select all that apply. polycythemia vera chronic hemolytic anemia acute blood loss anemia blood vessel occlusion aplastic anemia
The major consequences that can occur with this disorder are chronic hemolytic and blood loss.
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal passive clutter that can be communicated as it were within the homozygous latent condition. This condition might emerge due to the base point transformation in which valine is substituted for glutamic acid.
The shape of the hemoglobin changes and the person has unusual protein in their body. The person has swelling in their hand and feet, endures from tiredness, and weariness, and can too influence the kidney, lungs, and other parts of the body.
An acquired blood clutter where ruddy blood cells (RBCs) get to be sickle/crescent molded. It causes visit diseases, swelling within the hands and legs, torment, extreme tiredness, and postponed development or puberty.
Sickle cells break separated effortlessly and kick the bucket. Ruddy blood cells as a rule live for around 120 days some time recently, they got to be supplanted.
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a) before planning individualized patient care, the patient's oral health literacy must be assessed. b) patients with disabilities or physical limitations will require modification to ensure adequate daily oral biofilm removal. group of answer choices statement a is false and statement b is true. statement a is true and statement b is false. both statements are false. both statements are true.
both statements are true a) before planning individualized patient care, the patient's oral health literacy must be assessed. b) patients with disabilities or physical limitations will require modification to ensure adequate daily oral biofilm removal.
Oral health refers to the health of the teeth, gums, and therefore the entire oral-facial system that permits us to smile, speak, and chew. a number of the foremost common diseases that impact our oral health embrace cavities (tooth decay), gum (periodontal) unwellness, and carcinoma.
To remove biofilm from these hard-to-reach areas, dentists suggest cleanup between your teeth once per day with floss, flossers, interdental brushes, water flossers, or alternative interdental cleaners. Some folks have problem victimization floss, however everybody must clean between their teeth.
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an active 20-year-old man (recommended daily intake of 3,000 calories) and a sedentary 20-year-old woman (recommended daily intake of 2,000 calories) each consume 30 grams of free sugar in one day. did each meet the 2015 who guidelines on free sugar intake? (hint: 1 gram of sugar
According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 10% of daily calories should come from added sugars. For a 2,000 calorie diet, that amounts to about 12 teaspoons or 200 calories.
An energy unit is a calorie. Due to historical factors, the terms "calorie" and "energy" are used interchangeably. The original definition of the large calorie, meal calorie, or kilogramme calorie was the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one kilogramme of water by one degree Celsius. Calories are the amount of energy your body expels after digesting and absorbing meals. A food's ability to give your body energy depends on how many calories it contains. If you consume more calories than you need, your body stores them as body fat. A food can have a lot of calories even if it is fat-free. The original definition of a calorie stated that it was the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gramme of water by one degree Celsius at a pressure of one standard atmosphere.
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Mr. Lucas is a man with Alzheimer's disease who no longer communicates verbally. His feet have dry skin and you need to apply lotion to them and change his socks. How should you proceed?
For Mr. Lucas who has Alzheimer's disease and can no longer communicate verbally, to apply lotion to his feet to prevent dry skin the best way to proceed is by communicating with body language and facial expressions.
How should a person with Late-stage Alzheimer's disease be cared for?Alzheimer's disease patients can be supported with concentration planning and orientation through:
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Which of the following is defined as all chemical reactions and physical processes of the body?
A. balance
B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. anabolism
Answer: c
Explanation: Metabolism refers to the whole sum of reactions that occur throughout the body within each cell and that provide the body with energy. This energy gets used for vital processes and the synthesis of new organic material
a client is admitted from the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain and an elevated white blood cell count. the physician diagnoses appendicitis. the nurse knows the client is at greatest risk for:
The client is diagnosed with appendicitis. The nurse knows that the client is at the greatest risk for rupture of the appendix.
In the question, it is stated that the client is suffering from severe abdominal pain and has an elevated white blood cell count, and is diagnosed with appendicitis. The nurse assesses the client and concludes that the client is at the greatest risk for rupture of the appendix.
Appendicitis is a situation in which the appendix becomes inflamed and is filled with pus that leads to cause pain in the abdominal area. It can also lead up to an elevated White Blood Cells count.
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for which reasons is it important to encourage the practice of spirituality when caring for patients, regardless of whether the patient follows an organized religious community?
It is important to encourage the practice of spirituality when caring for patients, regardless of whether the patient follows an organized religious community because it can lead to physical healing, reduction of pain, and personal growth of the patient.
Why is religious spirituality important in healthcare?Religious spirituality is important in healthcare because it can impact patients' experiences and influence their decisions regarding treatment. Individuals may go about addressing medical issues in completely different ways depending on their religion's teachings and traditions.
According to the context of this question, spirituality has its own power of healing physical as well as mental consequences, regardless of what medicine has been prescribed to the patients and what are its medical issues.
Therefore, for reasons like physical healing, reduction of pain, and personal growth of the patient, it is important to encourage the practice of spirituality when caring for patients.
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your patient is prescribed aspirin 325 mg po every day. you are preparing to educate them on preparation for a surgical procedure planned in two weeks. what teaching to you expect to provide regarding their prescribed aspirin?
To avoid excessive bleeding, aspirin should be stopped 7-10 days before surgery, and thienopyridines should be stopped 2 weeks before surgery.
What are the three different types of surgery?There are various types of surgery, and they can be classified based on surgical urgency. The National Confidential Enquiry in to other Patient Outcome but also Death used the terms Emergency, Urgent, Scheduled, and Elective to classify the types of surgery.
Is it painful to have surgery?Many medical procedures are unpleasant and, in the some cases, painful. However, certain procedures are more painful than some others. Some may make you feel uneasy right away. Others cause discomfort for a few weeks or longer even though you recover.
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A condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain.
Hydrocephalus is an abnormal buildup of fluid in the ventricles (cavities) deep within the brain. This excess fluid causes the ventricles to widen, putting pressure on the brain's tissues. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the clear, colorless fluid that protects and cushions the brain and spine.
the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (lasix) and morphine for the treatment ofacute decompensated heart failure (adhf) with severe orthopnea. which clinical finding is the best indicatorthat the treatment has been effective
Clinical finding through an echocardiogram examines the heart rhythm using electrodes and ultrasound technology to see how blood flows through the heart.
How should you treat decompensated heart failure?
Identification of acute decompensation inducers, and also noninvasive characterization of cardiac filling pressures and output, is critical to management. To relieve symptoms, diuretics, vasodilators, positive airway pressure, and inotropes can be used.
An echocardiogram treatment by the nurse is the best indicator for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (hf) with severe orthopnea.
Therefore, an echocardiogram can aid the nurse in the diagnosis of heart conditions such as heart failure (adhf).
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a client is admitted to the acute psychiatric care unit after 2 weeks of increasingly erratic behavior. the client is unkempt, has lost approximately 9 lb (4 kg), has been sleeping poorly, and exhibits hyperactivity. the client loudly denies the need for hospitalization. what priority intervention will the nurse apply?
The nurse prioritizes reducing ambient stimulation for the patient who has dropped around 9 lb (4 kg), has been having trouble sleeping and shows signs of hyperactivity.
Environmental stimuli were outlined as ambient, architecture, or interior design elements that only serve to stimulate and have the potential to have an impact on patients when psychological processes mediate their effects.
Environmental stimuli are events that take place in the environment that cause a person to respond or react. For instance, some people would put on a coat and sweater in response to a dip in temperature. A startled leap might be brought on by a deafening boom.
Groups of sensory neurons make up receptors. They notice a shift in the stimuli from the surroundings. As a result, the nervous system responds to the stimuli by producing an electrical impulse. Groups of receptors in sense organs react to particular stimuli.
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Answer:
decreasing environmental stimulation
Explanation:
when reviewing patient electronic medical records on the night shift, which patient would the intensive care unit (icu) charge nurse anticipate transferring to the progressive care unit (pcu) in the morning?
The patient who has a controlled blood pressure and is taking a steady dose of the a vasoactive medication will thus be admitted to the PCU, according to the nurse.
What does ICU means?A hospital's or healthcare facility's intensive care unit (ICU), often referred to as an intense therapy unit (ITU), intensive treatment unit (ITU), or critical care unit (CCU), would be a unique division that offers intensive care medicine. The illnesses and injuries that intensive care unit patients are dealing with are severe or life-threatening, need round-the-clock care, careful observation by life support equipment, and medication to maintain a constant bodily function. Highly skilled medical professionals, nurses, or respiratory therapists who specialise in care for critically ill patients work in these facilities.
What Quality of care is given to ICU patient?The information at hand points to a link between ICU volume as well as the standard of care provided to patients who require mechanical ventilation. Higher ICU staff was substantially associated with reduced ICU and hospital death rates after controlling for illness severity, demographic factors, and ICU characteristics (such as the presence of intensivists on staff). International standards advise using a proven clinical tool to check every patient of delirium every day (typically twice or as often as necessary). An Intensive Care Delirium Screening Checklist and the Confusion Assessment Method for ICU (CAM-ICU) are the two that are most frequently used (ICDSC). These tools have been translated into more than 20 languages, and many ICUs throughout the world use them.
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how does the approximate average cardiac output compare for trained and untrained individuals? (hint: total cardiac output, not the individual changes in hr and sv with training)
The average cardiac output compare for trained and untrained individuals are not significantly different. But maximal cardiac output when exercise is higher.
Physiology of Trained vs Untrained HeartIn trained individuals, there are changes in the structure of the heart, namely:
HypertrophyDilatationBut these changes are not like in people with heart disease. These changes do not interfere with heart function, instead they increase stroke volume.
Stroke volume in trained individuals will increase. When in the resting phase, oxygen requirements are normal and the required cardiac output is about 5 liters. This is not significantly different between trained and untrained individuals. However, in trained individuals, there is an increase in stroke volume.
Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate
When the cardiac output requirements are both 5 liters, even though the stroke volume is different, there is a difference in heart rate in trained and untrained individuals. In trained individuals, because there is an increase in stroke volume, the compensation is a decrease in heart rate. Therefore, people who are trained tend to have a low heart rate.
However, during exercise, the maximum cardiac output in trained people is much higher than in untrained people. Cardiac output can be maximized up to the maximum heart rate. Whereas in untrained individuals, cardiac output will stagnate from a heart rate of around 120 bpm.
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the nurse is concerned that women over the age of 50 coming to the clinic may not be getting enough calcium in their diet. the nurse recognizes that the rda for calcium in women over 50 years is (enter the correct number only):
Answer:589-649 mg per day
Explanation:
a nursing graduate is attending an agency orientation regarding the nursing model of practice implemented in the health care facility. the nurse is told that the nursing model is a team nursing approach. the nurse determines that which scenario is characteristic of the team-based model of nursing practice?
The team-based approach of nursing practice involves an RN supervising 3 UAPs, 2 Qualified Registered Nurses, & 2 LPNs to provide treatment for a group of 12 clients.
In team nursing, a nurse practitioner leader oversees the nursing staff while they provide care to a number of patients. Functional nursing is indicated in Option 1. Option 2 names a case management component. Primary nursing is indicated in Option 3.
A collaborative model of care encourages all healthcare professionals to work to the best of their ability in accordance with their training, licensure, and experience while actively including patients as active partners in their treatment.
The pillars of a clinical medicine model that presents real chances to change the healthcare paradigm are the four Ps: predictive, preventative, personalized, and participatory.
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The team-based approach of nursing practice involves an RN supervising 3 UAPs, 2 Qualified Registered Nurses, & 2 LPNs to provide treatment for a group of 12 clients.
In team nursing, a nurse practitioner leader oversees the nursing staff while they provide care to a number of patients. Functional nursing is indicated in Option 1. Option 2 names a case management component. Primary nursing is indicated in Option 3.
A collaborative model of care encourages all healthcare professionals to work to the best of their ability in accordance with their training, licensure, and experience while actively including patients as active partners in their treatment.
The pillars of a clinical medicine model that presents real chances to change the healthcare paradigm are the four Ps: predictive, preventative, personalized, and participatory.
does a provider who is only performing waived tests need a clia number? a. no, waived testing does not require the provider to have a clia number. b. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a clia number is required. c. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, only medicare providers need a clia number. d. no, medicare does not pay for waived testing.
The correct statement about waived tests needing a CLIA number is: (b) yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a CLIA number is required.
Waived tests are the ones that are considered to be so simple that there are very very less chances of error. This has been approved by CDC or FDA. The examples of waived tests include: pregnancy tests, fecal occult blood tests, some urine tests, etc.
CLIA has the full form Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments. It states that all the facilities that perform testing for which materials from human body are extracted need to requirements decided by the CLIA. CLIA number is a type of certification provided by CLIA, essential for all testing facilities.
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milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin a to help prevent graft rejection. this medication is one in a class of drugs known as drugs. a) anticoagulant b) antibiotic c) analgesic d) retroviral e) immunosuppressive
[E] Immunosuppressive medication is one in a class of drugs known to help prevent graft rejection.
What are immunosuppressive drugs?
The immune system's capacity is suppressed or diminished by a class of medications known as immunosuppressants. Some of these medications are used to reduce the likelihood that the body may reject a transplanted organ, like a liver, heart, or kidney. Antirejection medications are those substances.
Cyclosporine works by reducing immunological response in order to stop white blood cells from attempting to destroy the transplanted organ. An extremely potent medication is cyclosporine.
Therefore, Cyclosporin A is being taken by Milly, who recently received a kidney transplant, to help prevent graft rejection.
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an aids patient has developed thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth caused by the opportunistic pathogen candida albicans, a normal inhabitant of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and urogenital tract. the infection developed because .
Candida albicans infection in AIDS patients has developed thrush, due to frequent use of antibiotics.
Candida fungus is also the main cause of esophagitis in people with AIDS. People with weakened body immunity develop diseases of a systemic nature caused by candida. The infection is spread through the blood vessels, entering from wounds on the skin.
AIDS sufferers will more often experience Candida yeast infection due to weak immunity. However, if candidiasis has occurred in the esophagus (the channel that connects the oral cavity with the stomach), as well as the lower respiratory tract (bronchi, trachea, and lungs), then the infection is already classified as an opportunistic infection.
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