The statement(s) about the digestive system is (are) correct are a, c and d are correct.
Regarding the digestive system, the following is accurate:
Vitamin K is produced by microorganisms in the large intestine and aids in blood clotting. The liver's ability to produce clotting factors depends on vitamin K.
The muscularis external's smooth muscle contracts to cause peristalsis and segmentation. Food is moved along the digestive tract by smooth muscles coordinately contracting and relaxing. Lacteals are capable of absorbing chylomicrons.
Large lipid droplets called chylomicrons are produced in the small intestine when dietary fats are absorbed. Since these chylomicrons are too big to pass through blood capillaries directly, they are instead absorbed into lacteal-shaped lymphatic channels.
Learn more about Digestive system
https://brainly.com/question/32531
#SPJ11
Complete question
Which of the following statement(s) about the digestive system is (are) correct? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:
a. Vitamin K promotes blood clotting, and it is synthesized by bacteria in the large intestine.
b. Lactose intolerance means that a person is allergic to lactose.
c. Peristalsis and segmentation result from contractions of the smooth muscle of the muscularis externa.
d. Chylomicrons are absorbed by lacteals.
Table of Functions Structure Function/Purpose/Interesting Detail Mucosa- epithelium __________
Mucosa - lamina propria __________
Muscularis mucosae ___________
Muscularis externa _______________
Serosa/adventitia (visceral peritoneum) _________
A brief explanation of each structure and its function/purpose is given below.
Mucosa - epithelium:
Forms the innermost layer of the mucosa. It serves as a protective barrier. Can have specialized functions such as absorption or secretion depending on the specific location in the body.Mucosa - lamina propria
The layer of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosal epithelium. It contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and immune cells. It provides support and nourishment to the overlying epithelium.Muscularis mucosae
A thin layer of smooth muscle is located beneath the lamina propria. It helps with the movement and folding of the mucosa, increasing its surface area.Muscularis externa
A thick layer of smooth muscle is responsible for the motility and movement of the organ. It contracts and relaxes to propel and mix contents within the organ.Serosa/adventitia (visceral peritoneum)
The outermost layer of the organ wall. It is composed of connective tissue and can be either a serosa (when the organ is covered by the visceral peritoneum) or an adventitia (when the organ is not covered by the peritoneum). It provides support and protection to the underlying structures.Therefore, the following points are the function/ purpose of each of them.
To know more about Mucosa- epithelium, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/31937560
#SPJ4
The edema associated with kidney failure is due to: a ) An osmotic gradient created by electrolytes remaining in the blood b ) Sodium leaking into the urine Ammonia passing into the glomerulus d) Potassium leaking into the collecting ducts
The edema associated with kidney failure is due to: An osmotic gradient created by electrolytes remaining in the blood
Edema refers to a medical condition where the body swells due to fluid accumulation in tissues, cavities, and spaces between the body's cells. This condition may result from inflammation, injury, or a disease such as kidney failure.
In the context of kidney failure, the edema associated with it is due to an osmotic gradient created by electrolytes remaining in the blood. Kidney failure can lead to an accumulation of fluids in the body, which can cause edema. This is because the kidneys can no longer effectively remove excess fluids and waste from the body. Hence, a build-up of fluids can occur in the tissues, causing edema.The kidneys are responsible for removing excess fluids, electrolytes, and waste products from the body. Kidney failure disrupts this normal function, leading to fluid accumulation in the tissues, which results in edema.Learn more about edema:
https://brainly.com/question/849845
#SPJ11
Part A
What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?
a. water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine
b. lipid-soluble hormones, such as thyroid hormones and cortisol
Part B
Which intracellular substance degrades CAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?
a. adenylate cyclase
b. phosphodiesterase
c. protein kinase C
d. phospholipase C
Part A:
a. Water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine, bind to receptors located on the cell membrane.
Part B:
b. Phosphodiesterase is the intracellular substance that degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone.
Part A:
Water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine, are the type of hormones that bind to receptors located on the cell membrane. These hormones are composed of hydrophilic molecules that are unable to cross the cell membrane. Instead, they bind to specific receptors on the outer surface of the cell membrane, triggering a cascade of intracellular signaling events.
Part B:
Phosphodiesterase is the intracellular substance that degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone. cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) is a secondary messenger involved in many cellular processes, including hormone signaling. When a hormone binds to its receptor on the cell membrane, it activates the production of cAMP inside the cell. cAMP then activates various protein kinases, leading to specific cellular responses.
However, to prevent the continuous activation of these responses, the levels of cAMP need to be tightly regulated. Phosphodiesterase is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of cAMP into inactive adenosine monophosphate (AMP). By degrading cAMP, phosphodiesterase helps terminate the signaling cascade initiated by the hormone, effectively turning off the response.
In summary, water-soluble hormones bind to receptors on the cell membrane, triggering intracellular signaling pathways. cAMP serves as a secondary messenger in these pathways, and phosphodiesterase plays a crucial role in degrading cAMP, thereby regulating the cellular response to the hormone.
To know more about Hormones bind here: https://brainly.com/question/15241630
#SPJ11
Emissary veins connect the intracranial venous sinuses to Select one: a. veins draining the scalp. b. the pterygoid venous plexus. c. All of the above areas d. veins draining the eye.
Emissary veins connect the intracranial venous sinuses to veins draining the scalp and the pterygoid venous plexus. Hence, the correct answer is: c. All of the above areas.
Emissary veins are venous channels that transfer blood from the extracranial to the intracranial compartments via the skull. These veins are formed in bone channels and connect the extracranial veins with intracranial venous sinuses.Emissary veins are essential to relieve the build-up of intracranial pressure due to decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reabsorption in the brain.
The emissary veins are found in the diploe of the cranial bones (the spongy layer of bone between the inner and outer compact layers) and skull sutures.Therefore, emissary veins connect the intracranial venous sinuses to veins draining the scalp and the pterygoid venous plexus.Hence, the correct answer is: c. All of the above areas.
Learn more about pterygoid Visit : brainly.com/question/12977402
#SPJ11
Which of the following statements best describes Refractory Periods in Neurons? O The RELATIVE Refractory Period, is the period when the cell membrane is depolarized O The ABSOLUTE Refractory Period, is the period when the cell membrane is hyperpolarized O The ABSOLUTE Refractory Period, is the period when Voltage-gated Na+ channels are either open or inactive O The RELATIVE Refractory Period, is the period when Voltage-gated Na+ channels are are either open or inactive
The correct option is B, that the absolute refractory period is the period when voltage-gated Na⁺ channels are either open or inactive
The refractory period in neurons is a brief period in which the nerve cell is unable to generate another action potential. There are two types of refractory periods: the absolute refractory period and the relative refractory period.
The absolute refractory period occurs immediately after an action potential, during which another action potential cannot be generated regardless of the strength of the stimulus.
This period is characterized by the state of the voltage-gated sodium ion (Na⁺) channels, which are either open or inactive. Even a stronger than normal stimulus is unable to initiate another action potential during this period.
On the other hand, the relative refractory period is a time when a neuron can be fired with a stronger than usual stimulus.
The voltage-gated sodium channels are still either open or inactive during this period. However, a stronger stimulus is required to generate an action potential compared to the resting state.
During this time, the neuron is unresponsive to additional stimuli, ensuring the proper propagation and timing of action potentials in neuronal signaling.
know more about Refractory Period here: brainly.com/question/29280031
#SPJ11
For the situation in #1B, what happens in each of the following parameters? (This question is NOT a MC question, but parts a-d. For example, in part a, will cardioinhibitory center or cardioacceleratory center be stimulated? Highlight the correct answer in color. Same for b through d.)
a.Cardioinhibitory center OR cardioaccelatory center is stimulated
b.Increase OR decrease in cardiac output
c.Increase OR decrease respiratory rate
d.More OR less oxygen getting to tissues
For the situation in #1B, Cardioacceleratory Center is stimulated, and the cardiac output increases. The answer is (C).
There will also be an increase in the respiratory rate, resulting in more oxygen getting to the tissues. A cardioacceleratory center stimulates the heart to beat more quickly, resulting in an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. On the other hand, a cardioinhibitory center slows the heart rate by inhibiting the cardiovascular center, decreasing heart rate and cardiac output.
The Cardioacceleratory center will be stimulated in situation #1B. Therefore, the answer for part a is cardioacceleratory center is stimulated. There will be an increase in the cardiac output, so the answer for part b is an Increase. The answer for part c is Increase because the respiratory rate increases. There will be more oxygen getting to tissues in this case, so the answer for part d is more oxygen getting to tissues.
To learn more about Cardioacceleratory here
https://brainly.com/question/31722408
#SPJ11
explain the structure of skeletal muscle, linking the structure to
their function as you do this.
Skeletal muscles are complex structures composed of specialized cells called muscle fibers. The structure of skeletal muscle is intricately designed to support its primary function of generating force and facilitating movement.
At the macroscopic level, skeletal muscles are organized into bundles called muscle fascicles. Each fascicle consists of numerous muscle fibers running parallel to each other. The arrangement of these fibers contributes to the muscle's strength and direction of force generation.
Within the muscle fibers, there are smaller functional units called myofibrils. Myofibrils are composed of repeating units called sarcomeres, which are responsible for muscle contraction. Sarcomeres contain thick filaments made of myosin protein and thin filaments composed of actin protein. The interaction between myosin and actin allows for the sliding of filaments, resulting in muscle contraction.
Surrounding the muscle fibers is a connective tissue layer called the endomysium, which provides support and protection to individual muscle fibers. Several muscle fibers are bundled together by another connective tissue layer called the perimysium, forming a fascicle. The entire muscle is further enveloped by the epimysium, a dense connective tissue layer that helps transmit forces generated by the muscle.
Muscles also have tendons, which are dense fibrous connective tissues that connect muscles to bones. Tendons play a crucial role in transmitting the force generated by the muscle to produce movement around joints.
The structural organization of skeletal muscles aligns with their function of generating force and facilitating movement. The parallel arrangement of muscle fibers within fascicles and the overall muscle allows for coordinated and efficient force production. The presence of myofibrils and sarcomeres within muscle fibers enables contraction and the generation of muscle tension. Connective tissues such as endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium provide structural integrity and transmit forces generated during muscle contraction. Tendons efficiently transmit these forces to produce movement at the skeletal joints.
In summary, the structure of skeletal muscles, from the organization of muscle fibers to the presence of myofibrils, sarcomeres, and connective tissues, is intricately linked to their function of generating force and enabling movement.
Learn more about Myofibrils
https://brainly.com/question/29589375
#SPJ11
3. What's the beef with vegan diets? Forty-two migraine sufferers participated in a randomized trial comparing two treatments: Dietary restrictions: low-fat vegan diet for 4 weeks followed by elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods for 12 weeks . Placebo supplement for 16 weeks (with no dietary changes) The participants were randomly assigned to treatments such that there were 21 participants per group. Participants kept a diary of headache pain on a 10-point scale during the 16-week study, which was used to compute the average amount of headache pain per participant. a. Draw a diagram for this experiment. Label the subjects, treatments, group sizes, and response variable. [3 marks] b. Were the subjects blind? Briefly explain. [1 mark] c. Participants were told that the placebo supplement contained omega-3 oils and vitamin E, which are known to be anti-inflammatory. However, the participants did not know that the concentrations were too low to have any clinical impact. Was this a good choice of placebo for this experiment? Explain why or why not. [2 marks] d. Suppose the dietary restriction group had significantly less headache pain than the placebo group. Explain why the two types of dietary restrictions applied ("vegan diet" and "elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods") are confounded in this experiment. [2 marks]
The placebo supplement was a poor choice for this experiment since the participants were given incorrect information about its contents. The two types of dietary restrictions, vegan diet and elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods, are confounded in this experiment because the group that followed the vegan diet also followed the elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods.
a. Diagram for the given experiment:
Subjects, treatments, group sizes, and response variable are as follows:
The subjects are the 42 migraine sufferers.The treatments are a low-fat vegan diet for 4 weeks, followed by the elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods for 12 weeks, and a placebo supplement for 16 weeks (with no dietary changes).There are 21 participants per group.The response variable is the average amount of headache pain per participant.
b. The subjects were not blind because one group was following a vegan diet, while the other group was taking a placebo supplement. This made the experiment an open-label randomized trial. Since there was no blinding, the results are more likely to be affected by placebo effects and/or the subjects' expectations of improvement.
c. The placebo supplement was a poor choice for this experiment since the participants were given incorrect information about its contents. Even if the placebo had the expected clinical impact, the results of the experiment would be biased because the participants were misinformed.
d. The two types of dietary restrictions, vegan diet and elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods, are confounded in this experiment because the group that followed the vegan diet also followed the elimination and reintroduction of trigger foods. As a result, it is impossible to determine which dietary restriction contributed more to the observed reduction in headache pain.
Learn more about randomized trial at https://brainly.com/question/14209363
#SPJ11
There are 3 different types of stimuli that cause the release of insulin. What are they?
There are three types of stimuli that cause the release of insulin: hormonal, neural, and metabolic.
Insulin is a hormone that regulates glucose (sugar) in the blood.
Hormonal stimuli: Hormonal stimuli, also known as humoral stimuli, cause the release of insulin.
The release of hormones such as glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide (GIP) stimulates the beta cells in the pancreas to release insulin.Neural stimuli: Neural stimuli can also cause the release of insulin.
The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for stimulating the pancreas to release insulin in response to food intake. The sympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, inhibits insulin release during stress or fight-or-flight response.
Metabolic stimuli: Metabolic stimuli such as glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids in the blood can also cause the release of insulin. These nutrients signal the beta cells in the pancreas to release insulin so that glucose can be taken up by the cells and used for energy
To know more about stimuli visit the link
https://brainly.in/question/17967558
#SPJ11
Chapter 5 1. What the 4 general tissue types and their general functions. 2. The classifications of epithelia and what they are based on. 3. The various cells that are found in epithelial tissue and their functions. 4. Cell junctions 5. The 3 types of glandular secretions. 6. The subcategories of C.T., Muscle, and the cell types in Nervous tissue. 7. The various cell types found in C.T. (areolar tissue). 8. Which tissue types, specifically, are vascular and which are avascular, and how this difference affects their healing rates. 9. Who makes C.T. matrix, and what it can consist of. 10. The 4 membranes that are found in your body, and where they are located. 11. Changes to tissues and cells (including cell death) 12. Stem cells
Chapter 5: Tissue Types and Their Functions: Summary of all parts: The four general tissue types are epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous.
All Parts classifications and general functions: Epithelial tissue lines the surfaces of organs and glands, protecting them from external damage and aiding in the exchange of materials. Connective tissue supports and connects other tissues and organs, providing stability and structure. Muscular tissue is responsible for movement, while nervous tissue transmits signals throughout the body.Epithelial tissue is classified based on the shape and arrangement of its cells, including simple epithelium, stratified epithelium, and transitional epithelium. Simple epithelium consists of a single layer of cells, while stratified epithelium has multiple layers. Transitional epithelium is a type of simple epithelium that can change its shape in response to hormonal signals.The cells found in epithelial tissue include squamous cells, cuboidal cells, and columnar cells. Squamous cells are flat and thin, while cuboidal cells are cube-shaped and have a round cross-section. Columnar cells are tall and column-shaped, with a narrower base than top.Cell junctions are specialized structures that allow cells to interact with each other and form tissues. There are several types of cell junctions, including tight junctions, gap junctions, and zonula occludens. Tight junctions form a seal between adjacent cells, while gap junctions allow the direct exchange of ions and small molecules. Zonula occludens junctions help to regulate the size of the intercellular space.The three types of glandular secretions are serous, mucous, and glandular. Serous secretions are thin and watery, produced by glands such as the lacrimal gland and the salivary gland. Mucous secretions are thick and sticky, produced by glands such as the cervix and the respiratory tract. Glandular secretions are rich in proteins and other nutrients, produced by glands such as the pancreas and the ovaries.The subcategories of connective tissue include areolar tissue, adipose tissue, and fibrous tissue. Areolar tissue is a connective tissue that consists of fat cells and blood vessels, and is found in areas such as the breast and the subcutaneous layer of skin. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue that stores energy in the form of fat, and is found in areas such as the abdomen and thighs. Fibrous tissue is a connective tissue that provides support and structure, and is found in areas such as tendons and ligaments.The cells found in areolar tissue include fibroblasts, which produce collagen and other fibers, and adipocytes, which store fat.Epithelial tissue is avascular, meaning it does not have a blood supply. Conversely, nervous tissue is highly vascular, with a dense network of blood vessels that provide oxygen and nutrients. This difference in vascularity affects the healing rates of these tissues. Epithelial tissue can usually heal quickly, as it has a direct blood supply from the underlying connective tissue. Nervous tissue, on the other hand, can take longer to heal, as it requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients.The cells that make cartilage matrix are chondrocytes, which are specialized cells that produce and maintain the matrix. Cartilage matrix is a complex mixture of proteins, collagen fibers, and other substances that give cartilage its strength and flexibility.The four membranes in the body are the outer membrane of the cell, the cell membrane, the endothelial membrane, and the basement membrane. The outer membrane of the cell is the outermost layer of the cell, and is composed of lipids and proteins. The cell membrane is a thin layer of lipids and proteins that surrounds the cell and controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. The endothelial membrane is a thin layer of cells that lines the interior of blood vessels, and regulates the exchange of substances between the bloodstream and the surrounding tissue. The basement membrane is a thin layer of cells that separates the basal lamina from the underlying connective tissue, and provides support and protection for cells.Learn more about epithelial visit: brainly.com/question/27960196
#SPJ11
1. What is the MET level for a 100-kg person walking on a treadmill at 3.2 mph and at a 6% grade? 2. A 68-kg woman is running on a treadmill at 9 mph and a 1% grade. What is her estimated energy expenditure in kilocalories during 40 minutes? 3. Your 50-kg client has a VO2max of 2.4 Limin ?. You want him to exercise at 75% of VO, reserve. If the treadmill is set at a 12% grade, what should the walking speed be set at (in mph)? 4. You want your client to exercise at 45 mL•kg'min' by running on a treadmill. She is comfortable running at 7 mph. What grade should the treadmill be set at to achieve the correct intensity? 5. A 50-kg patient is arm cranking on a Monark arm ergometer (Rehab Trainer) at 50 rpm with a resistance of 0.5 kg. What is the VO, in ml•kg*'min? 6. Bill weighs 176 pounds. His exercise session consisted of a 5-minute warm- up at 2.5 METs, walking on the treadmill at 4.5 METs for 20 minutes, cycling for 15 minutes at 4 METs, and a 5minute cool-down at 2 METs. Calculate the total kcal expenditure. 7. A 140-pound female has the following exercise program: treadmill for 10 minutes at 3.2 mph/0% grade; treadmill for 10 minutes at 3.4 mph/2% grade; treadmill for 10 minutes at 3 mph/5% grade. Calculate the total kcal used. If she exercises 3 times per week, how long will it take her to lose 15 pounds through exercise alone? 8. What is the MET level for a person with a Vo, of 55 mL kg'-min?? 9. If a 60-kg woman exercise at a VO2 of 2400 mL•min', at what MET level is she exercising? 10. Determine the correct MET level for each of the following activities performed by a 70-kg person: a) stepping at 18 steps min', 25 cm-step'; b) 750 kg.m-min 'on a Monark leg ergometer; c) arm cranking at 350 kg m-min on a Monark ergometer 11. Which person is exercising at a higher MET level – Fred (72 kg) running at 6 mph and on a 10% grade or Pete (55 kg) cycling on a Monark ergometer with a resistance of 2.5 kg and a pedal rate of 60 rpm? 12. If a patient must exercise at an 8-MET level. What treadmill grade is required if the treadmill speed is 3 mph? 13. What is MET and VO2 (L•min' and mL•kgmin') values of a 70-kg male treadmill walking at 3.0 mph, 12% grade? 14. What is the MET level for a man running at 7 mph with a 5% grade? 15. John's Vo, on the cycle ergometer is 1745 mL.min'. Determine his kcal utilization over 20 minutes of exercise.
The MET level for a 100-kg person walking on a treadmill at 3.2 mph and at a 6% grade is the VO2 in ml• kg*'min for the 50-kg patient arm cranking on a Monark arm ergometer (Rehab Trainer) at 50 rpm with a resistance of 0.5 kg is 8.4.6. Bill's total kcal expenditure can be calculated by adding the product of the MET value and weight of each activity in kg and the duration of each activity in hours, which results in 220 kcal.7. The total kcal used by the 140-pound female can be calculated by adding the product of the MET value, weight, and duration of each activity in hours, which results in 95 kcal. To lose 15 pounds through exercise alone, she will need to exercise for approximately 9.5 months.8.
The MET level for a person with a Vo, of 55 mL kg'-min is 1.6.9. The woman exercising at a VO2 of 2400 mL•min' is exercising at a MET level of 10.10. The correct MET level for the activities performed by the 70-kg person are: a) 6.0 METs, b) 5.0 METs, and c) 3.5 METs.11. Fred is exercising at a higher MET level than Pete. Fred's MET level is 14.6, whereas Pete's MET level is 3.8.12. If a patient must exercise at an 8-MET level and the treadmill speed is 3 mph, the treadmill grade required is 8%.13. The MET and VO2 values for the 70-kg male treadmill walking at 3.0 mph, 12% grade are 10.3 and 2.3 L•min' and 32.6 mL•kgmin', respectively.14. The MET level for a man running at 7 mph with a 5% grade is 13.5.15. John's kcal utilization over 20 minutes of exercise is 7.1 kcal.
Learn more about treadmill
https://brainly.com/question/22032532
#SPJ11
_______ results from common nerve pathways where sensory impulses and synapses of the skin intertwine and follow the same path. A) proprioception B) referred pain C) sympathetic response D) this type of pain is not possible
Referred pain results from common nerve pathways where sensory impulses and synapses of the skin intertwine and follow the same path. The correct option is B) referred pain.
Referred pain is a form of pain that is felt at a location other than the location of the painful stimulus. This occurs because sensory nerves from several regions converge and enter the spinal cord at the same point. As a result, the spinal cord can mistake incoming sensory impulses for originating from a neighboring part of the body, resulting in referred pain.
The most common type of referred pain is felt in the chest, arm, or jaw during a heart attack. The patient feels pain in the left arm, chest, or jaw, which are all locations where pain has been referred.
To learn more about sensory impulses here
https://brainly.com/question/30564621
#SPJ11
When during the cardiac cycle is the aortic valve OPEN? a. When it is stimulated by epinephrine from sympathetic postganglionic neurons: b. When it is stimulated by acetylcholine from parasympathetic postganglionic neurons. c. When the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than the pressure in the aorta. d. When the pressure in the aorta is greater than the pressure in the left ventricle
C) During the cardiac cycle, the aortic valve is open when the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than the pressure in the aorta.
During the cardiac cycle, the opening and closing of the aortic valve are crucial for the efficient functioning of the heart. The main purpose of the aortic valve is to prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle. It opens when the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the aorta.
When the heart contracts during systole, the left ventricle contracts forcefully, generating high pressure. As a result, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than the pressure in the aorta. This pressure difference causes the aortic valve to open, allowing the oxygenated blood to be ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta and subsequently distributed to the rest of the body.
Once the ventricular contraction ends, and the pressure in the aorta exceeds the pressure in the left ventricle during diastole, the aortic valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood into the heart. This closure ensures that blood continues to flow in one direction, maintaining proper circulation throughout the cardiovascular system.
learn more about cardiac cycle here:
https://brainly.com/question/27524618
#SPJ11
What are thr components of bone's extracellular matrix?
1. Inorganic
2. Organic
The components of the bone's extracellular matrix are organic and inorganic materials. Both options are correct.
The extracellular matrix of bone is composed of both inorganic and organic components, which play essential roles in maintaining the structure and function of bone tissue.
1. Inorganic Component: The inorganic component consists primarily of hydroxyapatite crystals, which are formed by calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate. These mineralized crystals give bone its hardness and provide rigidity and strength to withstand mechanical stress. The inorganic component also contributes to the mineralization of bone and helps regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the body.
2. Organic Component: The organic component is primarily composed of collagen fibers, specifically type I collagen. Collagen provides flexibility and tensile strength to bone, allowing it to resist stretching and withstand forces. Other organic components include various proteins, such as osteocalcin and osteonectin, which play roles in bone mineralization, cell signaling, and the regulation of bone growth and remodeling processes.
The combination of the inorganic and organic components in bone's extracellular matrix creates a dynamic and resilient structure. The inorganic component provides hardness and mineralization, while the organic component provides flexibility and strength. Together, they contribute to the overall integrity and functionality of bone, allowing it to support and protect the body's tissues and organs.
To know more about Bone's extracellular matrix here: https://brainly.com/question/12864312
#SPJ11
4. Diagram estrogen concentrations across each stage of the female reproductive cycle.
Describe the role of negative and positive feedback.
The menstrual cycle of a woman is governed by a sequence of hormonal activities. Estrogen, a primary female hormone, plays a significant role in these processes.
The estrogen concentrations differ throughout the various stages of the female reproductive cycle and the importance of negative and positive feedback in the menstrual cycle:Diagram of estrogen concentrations across each stage of the female reproductive cycle:Positive feedback cycle:The follicular stage begins on the first day of menstruation and ends when ovulation occurs. The hypothalamus gland stimulates the pituitary gland to release Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) in the early follicular phase. FSH then stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles, which contain immature eggs. The developing follicles produce estrogen. This increase in estrogen levels triggers the hypothalamus gland to release gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
This hormone stimulates the pituitary gland to release Luteinizing Hormone (LH). In the middle of the follicular stage, LH levels surge, which leads to ovulation. The surge of LH is the result of a positive feedback mechanism that is triggered by increasing estrogen levels.Negative feedback cycle:The luteal stage follows ovulation. The ruptured follicle becomes a corpus luteum that secretes both estrogen and progesterone. These hormones inhibit FSH and LH release through negative feedback mechanisms.
If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates. The decrease in estrogen and progesterone levels results in shedding of the uterine lining or menstruation. If pregnancy occurs, the developing embryo secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which maintains the corpus luteum and supports its hormone secretion until the placenta is formed.In conclusion, the menstrual cycle is a complex process that is regulated by the interplay of several hormones, including estrogen. The cycle includes both positive and negative feedback loops that work together to ensure proper ovulation and menstruation.
Learn more about progesterone
https://brainly.com/question/32346404
#SPJ11
Type your responses to the following questions. Question 2 / 2 Filtration membrane is formed by three components of the glomerulus: small pores in the capillary endothelium called ___ a ___ between the endothelium and the podocytes; and narrow spaces called ___ between pedicles.
The filtration membrane is formed by three components of the glomerulus: small pores in the capillary endothelium called fenestrations, a basement membrane between the endothelium and the podocytes; and narrow spaces called filtration slits between pedicles.
The fenestrations in the capillary endothelium allow for the passage of small molecules and ions, while the basement membrane acts as a physical barrier, preventing the passage of larger molecules such as proteins.
The filtration slits between the pedicles of the podocytes further restrict the passage of macromolecules, contributing to the selective filtration of substances in the kidney. Together, these components form a highly specialized filtration membrane in the glomerulus, allowing for the formation of the initial filtrate during the process of renal filtration.
To learn more about filtration membranes here
https://brainly.com/question/3524166
#SPJ11
Which of the following factors will result in increased drag? Select one: a. lower humidity b. lower barometric pressure c. warmer air temperature d. higher elevation
Among the following factors, lower barometric pressure is the factor that will result in increased drag.
Drag is a force that opposes the motion of an object through a fluid. It is also known as air resistance, fluid friction, or simply resistance. This force is created due to the interaction between the solid object and the fluid it is passing through. The amount of drag depends on several factors, such as the size and shape of the object, the velocity of the object, and the properties of the fluid. The drag force acts in the opposite direction to the motion of the object, slowing it down. An increase in drag will result in a decrease in velocity.
There are several factors that affect the amount of drag, including the following factors:Air temperatureAir densityHumidityAltitudeBarometric pressureVelocitySurface roughnessShape of the objectOut of the given options, lower barometric pressure is the factor that will result in increased drag. As barometric pressure decreases, the air density also decreases, which means there will be less air molecules to exert a force on the object. This results in a decrease in lift and an increase in drag. So, option B is the correct answer.
Learn more about barometric pressure here:https://brainly.com/question/3083348
#SPJ11
Biochemistry of vision, focusing on
i) what part of the brain controls the eyes and how does it do that
ii) what are the three types of cones in our eyes and what is each one’s specific function
i) The visual system is controlled by the occipital lobe of the brain, specifically the primary visual cortex, which receives and processes visual information.
ii) The three types of cones in our eyes are known as red cones, green cones, and blue cones. Each cone type is sensitive to a specific range of wavelengths of light, allowing us to perceive colors. Red cones are most sensitive to longer wavelengths, green cones are most sensitive to medium wavelengths, and blue cones are most sensitive to shorter wavelengths.
i) The occipital lobe, located at the back of the brain, is responsible for processing visual information received from the eyes. Within the occipital lobe, the primary visual cortex plays a crucial role in initial visual processing. It receives signals from the eyes and interprets them to form a visual perception. The primary visual cortex communicates with other visual areas in the brain to create a comprehensive understanding of the visual world.
ii) Cones are photoreceptor cells in the retina that enable color vision. There are three types of cones: red cones, green cones, and blue cones.
Each cone type contains a specific photopigment that allows it to absorb light of particular wavelengths. Red cones are most sensitive to longer wavelengths of light, enabling us to perceive the color red. Green cones are most sensitive to medium wavelengths, allowing us to perceive the color green. Blue cones are most sensitive to shorter wavelengths, enabling us to perceive the color blue. Together, these three cone types work in combination to provide us with our full color vision.
You can learn more about visual system at
https://brainly.com/question/19796591
#SPJ11
Which of the following structures initiates the cardiac cycle? Select one: O a. atrioventricular node O b. fossa ovalis O c. ductus arteriosis d. sinoatrial node (SA) O e. right bundle branch Of. datingdat doesit Og. bundle of HIS Oh purkinje fibers Clear my choice Granulocgtyes and Agranulocytes are classified as types of these cells... Select one: O a platelets O b. erythroblast Oc erythrocytes O d. megakaryocyte e. leukocytes Clear my choice Which of the following represents ventricular depolarization Select one: a. SA node b. QRS complex OC. ST depression Od. Pwave Oe. Twave Clear my choice Which of the following comes from a larger cell known as a Megakaryocyte? Select one: a platelet O b. Oc leukocyte O d. erythrocyte e. Of. erythroblast Og. lymphocyte Clear my choice Which of the following blood types is known as the universal recipient? Select one: O a type o O b. tyep A Oc type B Od. type could-B-normal • e. type AB Clear my choice
The structure that initiates the cardiac cycle is the sinoatrial node (SA node).
The sinoatrial node (SA node) is a specialized group of cells located in the right atrium of the heart. It is often referred to as the "natural pacemaker" of the heart because it generates electrical impulses that initiate the cardiac cycle. These electrical impulses spread through the atria, causing them to contract and pump blood into the ventricles.
Once the electrical impulses reach the atrioventricular node (AV node), located near the center of the heart, they are delayed slightly to allow the atria to fully contract and pump blood into the ventricles. From the AV node, the impulses travel down the bundle of His and its branches, including the right bundle branch, to reach the Purkinje fibers. The Purkinje fibers distribute the electrical signals throughout the ventricles, causing them to contract and pump blood out of the heart.
In summary, the SA node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle by generating electrical impulses that coordinate the contraction of the heart's chambers. It sets the rhythm and timing of the heartbeats, ensuring efficient blood circulation throughout the body.
Learn more about : Sinoatrial node
brainly.com/question/6138360
#SPJ11
Discuss the different causes and severities of burns. How are
burns treated? What are the
options if skin grafts are needed?
Burns can be caused by various factors, including thermal sources (such as fire, hot liquids, or steam), chemical exposure, electrical accidents, or radiation. The severity of burns is categorized into different degrees:
1. First-Degree Burns: These are superficial burns that only affect the outer layer of the skin (epidermis). They typically cause redness, pain, and mild swelling. Healing usually occurs within a week without scarring.
2. Second-Degree Burns: These burns involve the epidermis and part of the underlying layer of skin (dermis). They result in redness, blistering, intense pain, and swelling. Depending on the depth of the burn, second-degree burns can take several weeks to heal and may leave scars.
3. Third-Degree Burns: These burns extend through all layers of the skin and can affect deeper tissues. The burned area may appear white, charred, or leathery. Third-degree burns often require medical intervention and can lead to significant scarring. They may require surgical treatments, such as skin grafting.
Burns are treated based on their severity. For mild burns, first-aid measures like cool running water, sterile dressings, and pain relief medications may be sufficient. More severe burns may require specialized medical care, including wound cleaning, application of topical medications, and dressings to prevent infection.
In cases where skin grafts are needed, there are several options available:
1. Autografts: This involves taking healthy skin from another area of the patient's body (donor site) and transplanting it to the burned area. Autografts have the highest success rate but can result in additional wounds at the donor site.
2. Allografts: These are skin grafts taken from another person, typically a deceased donor. Allografts provide temporary coverage and help promote healing. However, they are eventually rejected by the recipient's body and need to be replaced with autografts.
3. Xenografts: Xenografts involve using skin grafts taken from animals, usually pigs. These grafts serve as temporary coverings and provide protection until the patient's own skin can be used.
4. Synthetic or Artificial Skin: Some advanced dressings and grafts made from synthetic materials can be used to promote wound healing and provide temporary coverage.
The choice of treatment depends on factors such as the size and depth of the burn, the availability of donor sites, and the overall condition of the patient. It is crucial for burns to be assessed and treated by medical professionals to minimize complications and promote optimal healing.
learn more about "radiation":- https://brainly.com/question/893656
#SPJ11
How does ddNTP differ from dNTP? A. ddNTP has 5 Carbons whilst dNTP has 6 Carbons B. ddNTP has H on Carbon #3 whereas dNTP has an OH on Carbon #3 C. ddNTP has OH on C# 3 whereas dNTP has only H on C#2 D. There is no difference between the 2 molecules
B. ddNTP has H on Carbon #3 whereas dNTP has an OH on Carbon #3.
The main difference between ddNTP (dideoxynucleotide triphosphate) and dNTP (deoxynucleotide triphosphate) lies in the presence of hydroxyl groups (-OH) on their sugar moieties. ddNTPs lack the hydroxyl group on Carbon #3, resulting in a hydrogen atom (H) instead. This modification prevents further DNA chain elongation since the hydroxyl group on Carbon #3 is necessary for the formation of a phosphodiester bond with the next incoming nucleotide during DNA synthesis.
In contrast, dNTPs possess the hydroxyl group on Carbon #3, allowing the DNA polymerase enzyme to add additional nucleotides and extend the DNA chain. This distinction is crucial in DNA sequencing techniques that use ddNTPs as chain terminators, leading to the generation of fragments of different lengths that can be analyzed to determine the DNA sequence.
learn more about "Carbon ":- https://brainly.com/question/26150306
#SPJ11
Having testis which failed to descend is a risk factor of
testicular cancer. Explain why? When to the testis normally descend
during development? What is (are) treatment for undescended
testis?
Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, are a risk factor for testicular cancer.
Undescended testes are a risk factor for testicular cancer because they increase the risk of testicular cancer by three to ten times. It is not fully understood why the risk of cancer is increased. During the process of testicular descent, cells in the testes may undergo changes that increase the likelihood of developing cancer.Testes normally descend during development in the early weeks of gestation, specifically between the 28th week and 36th week of gestation, while still in the mother's womb.
Treatment options for undescended testes include observation, hormone therapy, or surgery. Observation is recommended for infants who are premature or who have a low birth weight. Hormone therapy may be used to encourage testicular descent in some boys who have undescended testes. If hormone therapy is not successful, surgery may be required to bring the testes down to the scrotum. In order to decrease the risk of testicular cancer, an undescended testis should be removed before puberty.
Learn more about testicular cancer here:https://brainly.com/question/21911717
#SPJ11
9. Define the reflexogenic zones of the aortic arch and carotid sinus and specify their function. 10. The mechanisms of cardiovascular functional adjustment during physical activity. 11. Classification and possibilities of methods for examining of vascu- lar tone. 12. Lymphatic system. Describe the structure of lymphatic capillaries. 13. Describe the lymph is drained from the thoracic and right lym- phatic ducts. 14. What the lymph is. Explain its composition and properties 15. Name the locations of the lymph nodes and their functions. Describe how the tissue fluid and lymph are produced.
Reflexogenic zones are sensitive to mechanical stimulation which activates reflex mechanisms that lead to the regulation of the cardiovascular system.
Two reflexogenic zones, aortic arch and carotid sinus, play a crucial role in the regulation of blood pressure in response to changes in arterial pressure or other stimuli. Function of Reflexogenic ZonesAortic arch: The aortic arch contains baroreceptors that detect changes in arterial blood pressure. The vagus nerve sends signals to the brainstem in response to these changes, leading to changes in heart rate and contractility and vascular resistance. Carotid sinus: The carotid sinus is a widening of the carotid artery located at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. It is filled with baroreceptors which respond to changes in arterial blood pressure, leading to reflex responses that regulate blood pressure.
Mechanisms of cardiovascular functional adjustment during physical activityThe cardiovascular system adjusts its function during physical activity by the following mechanisms:Increased cardiac outputIncrease in stroke volume Vasoconstriction of non-exercising muscleReduced total peripheral resistance11. Classification and possibilities of methods for examining vascular toneVascular tone can be examined using both invasive and non-invasive techniques. Non-invasive techniques include:Measurement of blood pressureBlood flow velocity using Doppler ultrasound Arterial tonometry with pulse wave analysisInvasive techniques include:Measurement of arterial pressure using a catheter.
Learn more about mechanical stimulation:
https://brainly.com/question/32106556
#SPJ11
Neonatal kittens can be reared in environments devoid of all visual stimuli except for pre- selected features to investigate the influence of environmental deprivation on specific areas of the developing brain, an approach which leads to the selective loss of neural connections, an approach termed __________:
a) environmental surgery.
b) genetic surgery.
c) monocular modification.
d) post-natal neuronal pruning procedures.
d) Post-natal neuronal pruning procedures: Manipulating the environment after birth to selectively remove specific neural connections, investigating the effects of sensory deprivation on brain development and plasticity.
Post-natal neuronal pruning procedures. This refers to the deliberate manipulation of the environment during the postnatal period to selectively remove or reduce specific neural connections in the developing brain. Neuronal pruning is a normal developmental process in which excessive or unused neural connections are eliminated to refine and optimize the neural circuitry. By rearing neonatal kittens in environments devoid of visual stimuli except for pre-selected features, researchers can investigate the impact of environmental deprivation on specific areas of the developing brain. This approach selectively restricts sensory inputs and results in the loss of certain neural connections related to the deprived stimuli. The term "post-natal" indicates that the manipulation occurs after birth, during the early stages of development. This approach allows researchers to study the effects of sensory deprivation on neural plasticity, brain development, and the functional consequences of altered sensory experiences.
learn more about brain development here:
https://brainly.com/question/28584337
#SPJ11
Scenario D . June is a young female aged 22. Since adolescence, she has kept fit, with an exclusive aerobic training program at her local indoor gym. She is currently studying at University and is planning on being a life long learner. She follows a low protein diet as her grandma insists this diet is the key to a long life. She plans on living this lifestyle for the rest of her life. I. Describe how June's lifestyle has helped her maximize her physiological and cognitive functions and may provide physiological/cognitive benefits during aging. II. Considering her current lifestyle, what modifications could June make for the rest of her life to ensure she ages successfully?
June should ensure that she gets sufficient sleep each night to help her maintain her health and prevent illnesses. Maintaining sleep hygiene, such as limiting technology use in the bedroom, can help promote restful sleep.
June's lifestyle has helped her maximize her physiological and cognitive functions and may provide physiological/cognitive benefits during aging in the following ways:
Maximizing Physiological Benefits of June's Lifestyle:June's lifestyle can maximize the following
physiological benefits:Boosts Cardiovascular Functioning: Her aerobic training program promotes a healthy cardiovascular system by helping her to maintain a healthy weight and improve her cholesterol levels. Promotes Muscular Strength and Endurance: Her workout program can help her to develop her muscular strength and endurance.
Helps in Regulating Hormonal Balance: The physical activity of her lifestyle can stimulate hormonal secretions to keep them in balance. Enhances Respiratory Function: June's exercise regimen can help improve her lung capacity and function to keep her active.
Maximizing Cognitive Benefits of June's Lifestyle: June's lifestyle can help maximize the following cognitive benefits: Improves Mental Functioning: Aerobic exercise can help keep the brain healthy and active, enhancing cognitive skills such as memory, attention, and reasoning.
Decreases Stress Levels: The physical activity of her lifestyle can help her cope with anxiety and depression symptoms while improving her mental health and mood .Boosts Learning and Academic Performance: Exercise has been shown to enhance learning and academic performance.
II. Considering June's current lifestyle, the following modifications could ensure that she ages successfully:Ensure Proper Protein Intake: June could eat an appropriate amount of protein to ensure that her body has sufficient protein for essential bodily functions and the maintenance of muscle mass. Increase Resistance Training: Incorporating resistance training into her exercise program would help her maintain her muscular strength and endurance, and it could be beneficial in maintaining bone health.
Maintain Cognitive Activity: June should remain intellectually engaged and mentally stimulated to help maintain cognitive function as she ages. It can be achieved by being engaged in intellectual pursuits like reading, learning, and trying new things.
To learn more about health, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32613602
#SPJ11
What would a positive hip scouring test indicate?
Select one:
a.Labrum tear
c.Tight rectus femoris
d.Femoral acetabular impingement
Which muscle is the primary hip flexor with the knee extended?
Select one:
a.Biceps femoris
b.Iliopsoas
c.Sartorius
When going from medial to lateral, which is the most medial tendon of the pes anserine?
Select one:
a.Gracilis
b.Sartorius
d.Semimembraneous
A positive hip scouring test indicates a labrum tear.
The primary hip flexor with the knee extended is the iliopsoas muscle.
The most medial tendon of the pes anserine, when going from medial to lateral, is the sartorius tendon.
A positive hip scouring test indicates a labrum tear. The hip scouring test is used to assess the integrity of the hip joint and labrum. If pain or clicking is elicited during the test, it suggests a labral tear, which is a common injury affecting the ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of the hip joint.
The primary hip flexor with the knee extended is the iliopsoas muscle. The iliopsoas muscle is a combination of the iliacus and psoas major muscles. It originates from the lumbar spine and inserts into the femur. It functions to flex the hip joint, bringing the thigh toward the abdomen.
The most medial tendon of the pes anserine, when going from medial to lateral, is the sartorius tendon. The pes anserine is a tendinous insertion located on the medial aspect of the tibia, just below the knee joint. It consists of the tendons of three muscles: the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus.
When moving from the medial side to the lateral side of the pes anserine, the most medial tendon encountered is the sartorius tendon.
Learn more about scouring from the given link:
https://brainly.com/question/11243714
#SPJ11
18. Name an organ that is located inferior to the abdominal cavity, medial to the inguinal region, and anterior to the kidneys
The organ that is located inferior to the abdominal cavity, medial to the inguinal region, and anterior to the kidneys is the urinary bladder.
This organ is located in the pelvic cavity of the human body. It is an organ of the urinary system and stores urine before it is excreted from the body. When it is empty, the bladder is in a pyramidal shape. It is located in front of the rectum in men and in front of the vagina and cervix in women. It is held in place by the pelvic bones and surrounding ligaments and muscles.
Learn more about abdominal cavity and organs here:https://brainly.com/question/82676
#SPJ11
For each of the major body cavities below, list an organ or two located in that cavity: o Cranial: o Spinal: o Thoracic: o Abdominal: o Pelvic: • For each of the membranes listed below, list what major cavity(les) it is located in and which organ(s) it encloses: o Fibrous Meninges: o Serous Pleura: o Serous Pericardium: ; o Serous Peritoneum: Learn and use the directional and relational terminology to describe the relationships below: to the abdomen. o The cranium is o The abdomen is The digits are The carpal region is The ears are o o to the cranium. to the carpal region. to the digits. to the nose. o o The nose is o The liver is to the skin. o The skin is to the liver. Study and review the body region terminology provided in the lab manual and in our lecture. to the ears.
The human body consists of five major cavities: the cranial cavity, spinal cavity, thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity, and pelvic cavity.
These cavities house various organs and structures.
For example, the cranial cavity contains the brain and pituitary gland, the spinal cavity encloses the spinal cord and nerve roots, the thoracic cavity holds the lungs, heart, and other organs, the abdominal cavity contains the stomach, liver, and intestines, and the pelvic cavity houses the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
In addition to the cavities, there are four membranes that play important roles in protecting and supporting the organs.
These membranes include the fibrous meninges, which enclose the brain within the cranial cavity, the serous pleura, which surrounds the lungs in the thoracic cavity, the serous pericardium, which envelops the heart in the thoracic cavity, and the serous peritoneum, which covers most of the digestive organs in the abdominal cavity.
When describing the directionality or relational terminology between different body parts, we can use various comparisons.
For example, we can say that the cranium is located proximal to the carpal region, the abdomen is distal to the ears, the digits are anterior to the nose, the carpal region is superior to the nose, the ears are posterior to the cranium, the nose is inferior to the liver, the liver is deep to the skin, and the skin is superficial to the liver.
Read more about Major body cavities
https://brainly.com/question/32548558
#SPJ11
11. Single Choice Points) Daytime symptoms of patients with severe OSAHS do not include A) Lethargy B) fatigue C) Anorexia, D) morning after headache, E) pharynx dry or foreign body sensation 12. Single Choice (2Points) Which is NOT the risk factors of nasal and sinus tumors A. Gender difference B. Age C. Smoking D. Rhinitis E Occupational
11. The correct answer is Anorexia. Daytime symptoms of patients with severe Obstructive Sleep Apnea Hypopnea Syndrome (OSAHS) include Lethargy, fatigue, morning-after headache, and pharynx dry or foreign body sensation.
2. The correct answer is Occupational. Occupational is not a risk factor for nasal and sinus tumors. Gender difference, age, smoking, and rhinitis are the risk factors for nasal and sinus tumors. Nasal and sinus tumors are an abnormal growth in the nasal and sinus region. The tumor can be either cancerous or noncancerous. The symptoms of nasal and sinus tumors include nasal congestion, nasal discharge, decreased sense of smell, pain in the ear, etc.
Some of the risk factors for nasal and sinus tumors are Gender difference: Men are more prone to developing nasal and sinus tumors.
Age: The risk of developing nasal and sinus tumors increases with age.
Smoking: Individuals who smoke have a higher risk of developing nasal and sinus tumors.
Rhinitis: Rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation of the nose and affects the nasal cavity. Chronic rhinitis can increase the risk of developing nasal and sinus tumors.
To learn more about the pharynx here
https://brainly.com/question/3350759
#SPJ11
Diagram a homeostatic reflex arc that regulates pulmonary ventilation rate using peripheral chemoreceptors. Provide only one stimulus (a decrease in dissolved PO2) and one response in your diagram. In your answer, a) identify the parts of the reflex arc using the general terms for components of feedback loops and b) identify the specific parts of the body that correspond to each part of the reflex arc.
A reflex arc is a neural pathway that mediates a reflex. A homeostatic reflex arc that regulates pulmonary ventilation rate using peripheral chemoreceptors in response to a decrease in dissolved PO2 is as follows:
a) The general parts of the feedback loop are as follows: Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector, and response. The stimulus is a decrease in dissolved PO2, the receptor is peripheral chemoreceptors, the afferent pathway is a sensory neuron, the integrating center is the medulla oblongata, the efferent pathway is a motor neuron, the effector is the diaphragm, and the response is an increase in pulmonary ventilation rate.
b) The specific body parts corresponding to each part of the reflex arc are as follows: Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the carotid and aortic bodies, a sensory neuron conducts impulses from the receptor to the integrating center, the medulla oblongata is the integrating center, a motor neuron conducts impulses from the integrating center to the effector, the diaphragm is the effector, and the increase in pulmonary ventilation rate occurs in the lungs.
Learn more about reflex arc visit: brainly.com/question/894334
#SPJ11
