Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

Answers

Answer 1

Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness is the false statement

What is natural selection?

Natural selection is the variation in individual survival and procreation brought on by phenotypic variances. The evolution of a population's heritable features across generations is a fundamental mechanism of evolution. The term "natural selection" was popularized by Charles Darwin, who contrasted it with artificial selection, which, in his opinion, is intentional whereas natural selection is not.At the expense of less favorable variants, those genotypic variations (the full complex of genes inherited from both parents) that boost an organism's chances of survival and reproduction are conserved and multiplied from generation to generation. As a result of this process, evolution frequently takes place. Natural selection can result from variations in survival, fertility, growth rate, mate-success rates, or any other part of the life cycle. Natural selection is responsible for all of these variations to the extent that they influence how many offspring an organism produces.

Hence, option A is correct

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I understand that the question is Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

A. Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness.

B. Natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time.

C. Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.

D. Natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations).


Related Questions

nterpret the results of this dna sample and explain what you are seeing here. specifically, look at the number of alleles per marker. is the dna from under the victim's fingernails also on the gloves? explain.

Answers

The results of this DNA sample show that the victim’s DNA profile at the markers tested has two alleles per marker.

This means that the victim has two different copies of each genetic marker, and they are different from each other. This suggests that the DNA from under the victim's fingernails is not on the gloves, since the same alleles would be present on both the gloves and the victim’s fingernails.

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the code is nonoverlapping, meaning that, assuming standard translation, a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid.

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The genetic code is nonoverlapping, meaning that, assuming standard translation, a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid. The statement is true.

The term "genetic code" refers to the instructions given by a gene to a cell on how to produce a certain protein. When predicting the amino acid sequence of a protein from genetic material, the genetic code is helpful.

Given that the genetic code is the generator, it is possible that there be multiple Gordons. This is one of the questions. Here, we discuss whether a given assertion is true or false. More than one general can use the same minor acid, otherwise they couldn't. With the exception of the two and the majority of their minor sits, the minor assets such as as particles, acid glue, atomic accident, valine, el anin, and Matthew ning are all moving. Only the one genetic code that is hidden includes the two minor sets; the other minor sets are not included.

Therefore, the statement given in the question is true

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if gene 1 has exons 1a-1b-1c-1d and gene 2 has exons 2a-2b-2c-2d, what process could give rise to a gene with exons 1a-2a-1b-1c-1d?

Answers

If gene 1 contains exons 1A-1B-1C-1D and gene 2 has exons 2A-2B-2C-2-D, a gene sequence resulting from exon shuffling might exist.

What is chromosome?

Additionally, it specifies the size of the gene and its specific location on a chromosome. The precise distance between a gene and other genes on the same chromosome can be calculated for each gene using its molecular location. With biological time, gene length has been strongly correlated. Smaller proteins, which are frequently involved in the regulation of longer proteins, are produced faster by the smaller genes. Before cells differentiate into their final cell type, their irreversible determination is established. A few hundred DNA bases to more than 2 million bases make up the majority of human genes.

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1) The climate change envelope model assumes that an organism's realized niche approximates its fundamental niche.

- True

- False

Answers

The given statement "The climate change envelope model implies that an organism's realized niche roughly approximates its fundamental niche," is true.

What Is Climate Change?

Changes in the region's typical weather patterns are caused by climate change. This can point to a change in the region's average yearly rainfall. Another factor is changes in a location's average monthly or seasonal temperature.

A change in the climate of the planet is also referred to as climate change. This might be a temperature difference from the planet's average. It's also possible that the places on Earth where rain and snow usually fall have changed.

Niché: What is it?

An organism's functional place in an ecosystem is known as its niche.

The biotic elements, which include living components like animals, plants, and fungus, as well as abiotic factors, influence the niche, which is more precisely referred to as the "ecological niche". Abiotic variables are the non-living elements of the environment, including the availability of water, sunlight, and other resources like food and other nutrients.

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suppose a food chain consists of three trophic levels, beginning with primary producers. if the amount of energy fixed by the producers is denoted by x, approximately how much energy will be available to the third trophic level (secondary consumers)?

Answers

According to the question, if a plant fixes X amount of energy, the second trophic level will have access to 10% of X, or 0.1*X, and the third trophic level will have 10% of 0.1*X, or 0.01*X.

Approximately energy will be available to the third trophic level will be 0.01*X.

What phases of an ecosystem's energy flow are there?

The transmission of energy from one organism to another, starting with the autotrophs and rising up the food chain as animals are consumed by one another, is referred to as energy flow. Pyramids of food and energy are another approach to show this kind of chain or just to show the trophic levels.

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Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called

Answers

Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called diuretics.

What are diuretics?

Diuretics, often known as water tablets, assist your kidneys in excreting more water and salt through your urine. Diuretics work by removing surplus fluid from the body and lowering blood pressure. Diuretics are also beneficial if you have excess fluid accumulating as a result of heart failure or other medical conditions.

What is a diuretics used for?

Water pills, often known as diuretics, are frequently used to treat high blood pressure.

What are the most common diuretics?

chlorthalidone.

hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)

metolazone.

indapamide.

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Reading:
Jack and Diane had worked hard to make it through college at the University of Houston. Both had taken out student loans and worked full-time to make it through. The hard work paid off when Jack got his first electrical engineering job at a large computer company in Houston making $35,000 a year. Diane graduated with a degree in child development and started a little daycare center in their new suburban home outside Houston.
Things were going so well that they decided to make an addition to the family, and luckily enough, nine months later, a bouncing baby boy arrived. Danny seemed to be a perfectly healthy baby boy. When Danny started to walk, he fell a lot, as most children do. On one occasion Danny hit his head on the coffee table and cut himself above his right eye. As concerned parents, Jack and Diane took Danny to their local pediatrician to see if he needed stitches.
As they were driving to the doctor, Diane commented that the bleeding would not stop. When the pediatrician began sewing up the eye, he knew that there was more to the cut than just a simple laceration. The doctor asked the concerned parents if Danny was a hemophiliac. To this point, they had never had any reason to suspect that their little boy had any problems with blood clotting. The doctor took some blood and sent it to the lab to be analyzed. Their fears were confirmed--Danny was a hemophiliac.
Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders in which it takes a long time for the blood to clot. In severe cases, serious bleeding may occur without any cause and internal bleeding may occur anywhere.
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive characteristic that usually occurs in males. If a mother is a carrier of the recessive gene there is a 25% chance she will have a child who is a hemophiliac. If females are born with hemophilia they are certain to have problems during puberty. To treat this problem, victims are given transfusions of Factor VIII, which is one of the platelet chemicals that healthy people produce to clot blood. The cost of Factor VIII transfusions can run up to $80,000 a year per patient. Luckily for Jack and Diane, they had insurance through his company. The insurance paid 90% of the bills so that left $8,000 to be paid by Jack and Diane. This put a small stress on their marriage. However, they decided to have another child, even though they knew there was a 25% chance their next child could be a hemophiliac also.
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Questions:
Genetic counselors are health professionals with specialized graduate degrees and experience in the areas of medical genetics and counseling. As part of their job, they work as members of a healthcare team to provide information and support to families who may be at risk for a variety of genetic conditions.
Pretend you are a genetic counselor and you are meeting with Jack and Diane. What advice would you offer them about having another child? What support would you offer them knowing they already have one child with hemophilia? Use the space below to write a short paragraph.
-----------------------
Which of the following accurately describes the problem presented in the reading?

A) Jack and Diane are a married couple who are deciding where to obtain advanced educational degrees.
B)Jack and Diane, a hard-working married couple, have a son who hit his head and it won’t stop bleeding.
C)Jack and Diane, a hard-working married couple, have a son who hit his head and now must receive medical treatment at a local hospital

Answers

As a genetic counselor I would offer them the following advice about having another child:

I would offer Jack and Diane support and understanding in this difficult decision. I would discuss the risks involved with having a second child with hemophilia, as well as other potential genetic conditions they may face. I would also work with them to explore the various testing options available to them, if they choose to pursue it. Additionally, I would provide them with resources and guidance on how to provide the best medical care and support for their affected child. I would ensure they are aware of the various support systems available to them, both locally and nationally.

What do you mean by the term Hemophilia?

Hemophilia is a rare, inherited genetic disorder in which the blood does not clot properly due to a deficiency in clotting factors, which are proteins found in the blood. This can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, most commonly in the joints, muscles and internal organs.

Furthermore,

Jack and Diane, a hard-working married couple, have a son who hit his head and it won’t stop bleeding.

The above statement describes the problem presented in the reading.

Therefore, the correct option from the given statements is Option B.

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Part 1 The Power of Exponential Growth A scientist places one bacterium in a Petri dish at 9.00 am: The bacteria can reproduce at a rate that doubles its population every minute. At 9.00 there is one, at 9.01 there are two, at 9.03 there are four; etc. The scientist observes that the whole Petri dish is completely full at 10.00 am_ 9.00 am Bacteria 9.01 am 2 Bacteria 9.02 am 4 Bacteria 777 10.00 am Full Quarter Full Half Full When (at what time) was the dish half_ full? What time was it a quarter full? Type your answers here in RED. 2. If they keep growing; how many dishes full of bacteria would you have at 10.022

Answers

There is 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria at 10.22, If they keep growing.

Bacterial division, or binary fission, is the process by which a single bacterium divides into two daughter cells. This process occurs when the bacterium grows to a certain size and then replicates its DNA and divides into two separate cells. Binary fission can occur quite rapidly, allowing bacteria to multiply and spread quickly. Some bacteria are able to undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, while others may take several hours.

The dish was half full at 9:30 am and a quarter full at 9:15 am.

At 10:22, if the bacteria continue to grow at the same rate, you would have approximately 2^22 = 4,194,304 dishes full of bacteria.

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the author uses all of the following as evidence to support his argument about the impact of smallpox on native american populations except

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The English settlers made an effort to assist the smallpox-stricken Native Americans.

If smallpox was bad among white people, it was more worse for Native Americans. In the early centuries, smallpox ultimately claimed more Native American lives than any other illness or hostilities. It wasn't uncommon for a tribe to lose all of its members; on other occasions, the entire tribe perished.

Even though Bradford mentions that some English were sympathetic toward the Native Americans and wanted to assist them, this fact does not offer proof of how smallpox affected Native American populations. Bradford did not use this claim as proof to back up his claim. In the United States, smallpox last naturally broke out in 1949.

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The Ovarian Cycle (reproduction system)

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1) The name given to the day 1-13 of the Ovarian Cycle is the Proliferative or Follicular Phase. During this phase, the pituitary gland produces a hormone that encourages the growth of egg cells in the ovaries. One of these egg cells matures in a sac-like structure known as a follicle. It takes 13 days for an egg cell to mature.

2) On the 14th day of the cycle, the event that occurs is called "Ovulation". During this period, a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the pituitary gland, which triggers the release of the mature egg from the ovary.

3) The luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle follows. This phase always occurs between days 14 and 28 of the cycle. The secretory phase's major goal is to prepare our bodies for the implantation of a fertilized egg (or optimum endometrial receptivity).

What is the Ovarian Cycle?

The ovarian cycle is the set of events that occur in the ovary during which the follicle matures, the ovum is shed, and the corpus luteum develops.

It is regulated by hormones generated by the brain, pituitary gland, and ovaries, and it is essential for the menstrual cycle and fertility.

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in guinea pigs, having black fur is a dominant trait. a student has a pet guinea pig with white fur. what can be concluded about the guinea pig?

Answers

There are many different interpretations that can be found behind the name. Historically, the name "Guinea" referred to an area in West Africa. It's possible that some people thought that animals with dominating traits, such as pigs, originated in that region.

What sets guinea pigs different from other little animals?

Guinea pigs are excellent pocket pets because they are sociable, easy to tame, and long-lived. Because of their friendly demeanor, they make wonderful companion animals. They also have a very high level of intelligence. Guinea pigs who share their homes with other guinea pigs seem to have the best quality of life.

What brings a grin to the faces of guinea pigs?

Simple toys like as balls, tunnels, and tubes are all favorites among guinea pig owners. Tubes and tunnels are great locations for guinea pigs to sleep and hide while they are confined in their cages. Guinea pigs are known to like human touch on occasion, particularly when they are being petted.

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through the microscope you are observing a cell that has chromosomes that have just separated at their centromeres. identify the phase you are observing.

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The sister chromatids at the equatorial plane split apart at the centromere during anaphase. Each chromatid, or chromosome as it is now known, is quickly drawn toward the centrosome to which its microtubule was attached.

What is meiosis observed for?

Four daughter cells are created during meiosis II, an equational division. Meiosis stages can be seen in the pollen mother cells of flower bud anthers or in a cytological preparation of testis tubule cells.

What distinguishes meiosis and mitosis?

Two identical to the original nucleus nuclei are produced during mitosis. On the other hand, meiosis produces four nuclei with each having half as many chromosomes as the original cell.

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which type of dna library (genomic or cdna) would include introns and promoters?

Answers

The genomic library are created from a species' or an organism's entire nuclear DNA. Restrictions endonuclease is used to randomly cut DNA into fragments of closable size.

Genomic libraries contain complete genomic fragments such as exons and introns of genes, gene promoters, intragenic DNA, replication origins, etc.

Has the cDNA library a promoter?

In a lab setting, messenger RNA is used to create complementary DNA (cDNA). Because the genomic RNA transcript has been altered, cDNA is not the same as genomic DNA.

Do introns exist in genome-wide DNA?

The introns found in various gene structures in all eukaryotic genomes are to be removed by the spliceosome, a complex molecular machine made up of five snRNAs and more than 150 proteins [1,2].

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what is unique about the thermoregulatory cutaneous response to sympathetic stimulation in the trunk and limbs? it results in

Answers

Vasodilation is a distinctive feature of the thermoregulatory cutaneous response to sympathetic activation in the trunk and limbs.

What is thermoregulatory ?

A living thing's capacity for thermoregulation is its capacity to keep its core body temperature, which is 37° C (98°F), within a range that is appropriate for its physiological needs. The hypothalamus, a region of the brain that functions as a thermostat, is crucial in controlling body temperature. Another name for thermoregulation is "heat regulation."

A human being who can keep a steady body temperature in a climate with changing temperatures. The hair, feathers, and fatty skin layers on both animals and birds maintain a balance between heat gain and loss.

The terms cold-blooded and warm-blooded animals may have been used. Based on how the body regulates temperature and how it has evolved to balance off gains and losses in body heat

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of fungi, metazoa, and plantae, which two are thought to be more closely related to each other than they are to the third?

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Metazoan phylum of Fungi generally represents one of a category of creatures that have body structures consisting of specialized cell types in order to form distinct organ structures. Usually, they possess a gastrointestinal canal surrounded by particular cell types.

The chitin in fungi's cell walls distinguishes them from plants, bacteria, and some protists, which all belong to the same kingdom. Animals also absorb dissolved molecules, and fungi do the same thing by consuming them and releasing digestive enzymes into the environment. Not all fungi photosynthesize. Except for spores (some of which are flagellated), which may travel via the air or water, their mode of propulsion is growth. The main decomposers in ecological systems are fungi. Molecular phylogenetics largely supports this perspective, which divides fungi into a single clade of related species known as the Eumycota (real fungus or Eumycetes) that shared an ancestor (i.e., they form a monophyletic group).

The complete question is:

Of Fungi, Metazoa, and Plantae, which two are thought to be more closely related to each other than they are to the third?

a. Metazoa and Plantae

b. Fungi and Plantae

c. Fungi and Metazoa

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chromatin remodeling by the swi/snf complex requires hydrolysis of atp. what purpose does this serve?

Answers

It serves two main functions when DNA is wrapped around histones to form chromatin structure: first, it causes condensation of the long (many meters) DNA strand so that it can fit into the nucleus appropriately. Second, it prevents DNA from being transcribed continuously.

To begin gene expression, chromatin must first be unwrapped, a

process known as chromatin remodeling. It follows that chromatin remodeling is an essential step for regulating key physiological functions and preserving cellular homeostasis. Additionally, gene expression is inherently dependent on chromatin remodeling. The process, which requires ATP for energy, is nearly totally marked by the release of the TATA binding protein (TBP) from the somatic chromatin. An ISWI-containing remodeling factor is an essential component in this substantial chromatin remodeling in vitro. By relocating, assembling, mobilizing, and rearranging nucleosomes, ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complexes change the chromatin structure. Hence, The SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex performs crucial functions in DNA-based activities by facilitating chromatin access using the energy of ATP hydrolysis.

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which is not a posterior attachment of the buccinator?

Answers

Lateral pterygoid plate is not a posterior attachment of the buccinator.

What do you mean by posterior?

Posterior comes from the Latin word posterus, meaning "coming after". Posterior is often used as a technical term in biology and medicine to refer to the back side of things, and is the opposite of anterior, which refers to the front side.

Is anterior placenta boy or girl?

But since an ultrasound isn't 100 percent reliable, and not everyone opts for early screening tests, you might use the position of your placenta to predict what you're having. According to some, having an anterior placenta means you're having a girl, whereas a posterior placenta means you're having a boy.

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what event occurred during this cycle of meiosis

Answers

Recombinant gamete creation. The daughter cells then enter meiosis II, the third and last stage of meiosis.

During in the meiotic process, a single cell divides twice, producing four cells with just half of the original genetic information. These are our sex cells—eggs in women and sperm in males. Half the original set of chromosomes, or 23 chromosomes, will be present in each daughter cell. There are two sister chromatids on each chromosome. The daughter cells then enter meiosis II, the third and last stage of meiosis. a stage of cell division where the chromosome number drops to half of what it was initially. Four sex cells are produced as a result of the nucleus's two divisions (gametes).

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what is the clinical significance of bronchopulmonary segments? what is the clinical significance of bronchopulmonary segments? bronchopulmonary segments separate the lungs into the two lobes of the left lung and the three lobes of the right lung. the bronchopulmonary segments allow persons with severe copd to breathe using only the undamaged segments. bronchopulmonary segments divide the thoracic cavity into three separate segments, the central mediastinum and two lateral compartments, which limits the spread of infection. bronchopulmonary segments limit the spread of some diseases within the lungs, because infections do not readily cross the connective tissue partitions between them.

Answers

The trachea is divided into two principal bronchi with the aid of bronchopulmonary segments, which have clinical relevance.

Why are bronchopulmonary segments important?

Since each segment has an own pulmonary arterial branch, the bronchopulmonary segment is a section of the lung that receives blood from a separate bronchus and artery. Each segment is physically and functionally distinct, enabling a single segment to be surgically removed without having an impact on its surrounding segments.

What function do bronchopulmonary segments serve in medicine?

Because infections do not easily traverse the connective tissue barriers between them, bronchopulmonary segments restrict the transmission of several diseases within the lungs.

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Why is nucleic acid important to the body?

Answers

Large macromolecules called nucleic acids are necessary for all organisms and viruses to function. The preservation and expression of genetic data is a key role of nucleic acids.

The information cells require to make proteins is encoded in deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA. Ribonucleic acid (RNA), a related type of nucleic acid that may take on several molecular structures and function in a variety of biological processes including protein synthesis.

You wouldn't believe how many songs there are about nucleic acids. They have an aesthetic influence. I won't sing any of them, however in chemistry class, I did first learn about nucleic acids through a song. Bases that contain nitrogen, phosphate groups, and sugar molecules make up nucleic acids. Each kind of nucleic acid has a unique structure and functions in our cells in a different way. When scientists first looked at the chemicals that make up a cell's nucleus, they discovered a strange substance that was neither a protein nor a lipid nor a carbohydrate. It was fresh. The eventual discovery of DNA was sparked by the discovery of this molecule, nuclein, which later evolved into nucleic acid.

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the maximum population density of a given species that a defined geographical area can sustain over time is known as the:

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The maximum population density of a specific species that a defined geographic area can support over time is known as the Carrying capacity.

Population density is the concentration of individuals within a species at a given geographic location. Population density data can be used to provide demographic information and to assess relationships with ecosystems, human health and infrastructure. Biological carrying capacity is defined as the total population of a species that can exist indefinitely in a habitat without threatening other species per habitat. The range of a species is the geographic area within which that species can be found. In this environment, the general structure of the species of the population is dispersed, while the dispersion is the variation of the population density.

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True/False. The cell bodies of sensory neurons are found in an enlarged area of the dorsal root called the gray commissure.

Answers

Reaction: False

The spinal (dorsal root) ganglion is where the cell bodies of sensory neurons are located. Their axons enter the gray matter of the cord through the dorsal root.

Where are the sensory neurons' cell bodies located? quizlet

Dorsal root ganglia are where sense neurons' cell bodies are found. The ventral region of the spinal cord's gray matter is where motor neurons' cell bodies are located.

Where can one find the big cell bodies of neurons?

If found in the central nervous system, a group of neurons is referred to as a nucleus; if found in the peripheral nervous system, it is referred to as a ganglion (PNS). The structures that stand in between the central and peripheral nerve systems are known as ganglia.

Question:True/False. The cell bodies of sensory neurons are found in an enlarged area of the dorsal root called the gray commissure.

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the presence of an epiphyseal line indicates

Answers

An epiphyseal lines on an x-ray shows that the bones has reached the end of its growth cycle.

An ossified epiphyseal plate is referred to as an epiphyseal line. Epiphyseal closure refers to the process through which it develops from an epiphyseal plateIt designates the junction where the epiphysis and metaphysis fuse in adults.An epiphyseal plate is an indication that an individual is still developing. Long bones grow in the growth plate, sometimes referred to as the epiphyseal plate, which is a thin cartilage layer located between the epiphyses & metaphyses. With the insertion of bone tissue at the epiphyseal plate, long bones grow longer and wider through a process known as appositional growth.

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match each of the following scientist with their discoveries avery
Fred Griffith
Rosalind Franklin
Avey, MacLeod, and McCarty
Erwin Chargaff
Hershey and Martha Chase
Watson and Crick
1) used models to show the full double helical structure of DNA
2) found that "the transforming principle" is destroyed by enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
3) used radioactivity to label heavy and light forms of DNA in bacteria that were then separated by density centrifugation
4) used X-ray diffraction to show that the structure of DNA is helical
5) found that the phosphorus-containing components (DNA) are the genetic material of phages
6) discovered "the transforming principle that could genetically alter bacteria
7) studied proteins and determined that they naturally form alpha helical structures
8) Although the ratio of A/T and G/C is the constant, the relative amount of any particular base varies between species

Answers

Frederick Griffith Formed transforming principle and formed basis of DNA but didn't know it was DNA. Rosalind Franklin Produced clear x-ray crystallography pictures of DNA structure (specifically photo 51) that showed double helix. James Watson and Francis Crick credited with identifying structure of DNA (used modeling technique and Franklin's work).Erwin Chargaff discovered DNA bases A=T and C=G.

Who is the world's top scientist?

One of the most well-known physicists in the world is Albert Einstein.He was once an unusual man and may have been the first scientist in the entire globe to achieve such widespread fame.His ideas of relativity and gravitation, as well as his comprehension of molecules, have defined new scientific paradigms.

Who will be the world's top scientist in 2022?

The most important discoveries from the top scientists in the globe With an h-index of 389, Harvard University's Walter C. Willett is the greatest scientist in the world.

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Matthew claims that people should invest in alternative sources of energy rather than burning fossil fuels

Answers

Answer:

Ok. What is his reasoning?

Explanation: Because if he belives it is true he is aloud to have a belief but I would like to understand his reasoning

a bomb calorimeter can provide a close approximation for the amount of energy that will be produced by the body through the process of metabolism. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False

Answers

The quantity of energy that the body will create during the course of metabolism may be roughly estimated using a bomb calorimeter. It is accurate to say this.

Is a fast metabolism healthy?

A high metabolism provides advantages since it causes a person to burn calories more quickly than someone with a thyroid imbalance. However, a quick metabolism might make it difficult to put on weight or keep up a balanced diet.

Why does the metabolism move slowly?

A slow metabolism is caused by a variety of factors, including decreased activity, muscle loss, and internal organ aging. Fortunately, there are several strategies available to prevent aging from affecting your metabolism.

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you are doing a biochemical analysis of molecules from cells from patients with a certain disease compared to cells from control patients who do not have the disease. you find that patients with the disease have unusually high levels of cytosine molecules with ch3 groups attached to their cells. which modification has taken place in the cells from the disease patients?

Answers

Epigenetic patterns may be altered by a number of lifestyle factors, including diet, obesity, physical activity, alcohol consumption, smoking, exposure to environmental toxins, stress, and working night shifts.

Epigenetics is the study of how changes to your environment and behavior can have an impact on how your genes function. Contrary to genetic changes, epigenetic changes are reversible and do not alter your DNA sequence, but they can alter how your body interprets a DNA sequence.

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although some genes are repressed, most genes in eukaryotic cells are activated through the action of regulatory sequences called

Answers

True. Because if recessive is shown, you know genotype (aa is the only possibility).

False if it shows dominant, don't know genotype because it could be Aa or AA.

.The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a precept declaring that the genetic version in a population will remain regular from one era to the following inside the absence of demanding elements. when mating is random in a huge populace without a disruptive occasions, the law predicts that both genotype and allele frequencies will continue to be constant due to the fact they're in equilibrium.


The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be disturbed by means of some of forces, such as mutations, natural choice, nonrandom mating, genetic drift, and gene flow. as an example, mutations disrupt the equilibrium of allele frequencies with the aid of introducing new alleles right into a population. similarly, natural choice and nonrandom mating disrupt the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium due to the fact they bring about adjustments in gene frequencies. This takes place because positive alleles assist or damage the reproductive achievement of the organisms that convey them. any other factor which could upset this equilibrium is genetic glide, which happens whilst allele frequencies develop better or lower by way of hazard and normally takes region in small populations. Gene flow, which takes place whilst breeding between two populations transfers new alleles right into a populace, can also adjust the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.


because all of those disruptive forces generally arise in nature, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium not often applies in reality. therefore, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes an idealized state, and genetic versions in nature can be measured as modifications from this equilibrium state.

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describes a diploid organism or cell that has the same allele for both a maternal and paternal gene.

Answers

When two paired chromosomes harbor the same or identical alleles for a given characteristic at nearby loci, this condition is referred to as homologous (i.e. homologous chromosomes)a diploid organism or cell that has the same allele for both a maternal and paternal gene.

The term "homozygous" refers to the presence of the same or identical alleles for a given trait at related loci on paired chromosomes (i.e. homologous chromosomes). An entity with two sets of chromosomes is said to be diploid. Both sets are inherited; one set is from the mother and the other from the father. Based on their locations, each maternal chromosome can be matched with a corresponding paternal chromosome. Homozygous occurs when the same alleles are present at the loci in the corresponding chromosomes. It indicates that the same trait is coded for by both alleles.

A "homozygous" organism is one that carries two copies of either a pair of dominant alleles (such as AA) or a pair of recessive alleles for a given trait. genuinely reproducing organisms

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which of the following statements about nuclear transport is true?
a) mRNAs and proteins transit the nucleus through different types of nuclear pores.

b) "Nuclear import receptors bind to proteins in the cytosol and bring the proteins to the nuclear pores, where the proteins are released from the nucleus."

c) "Nuclear pores have water-filled pass through in a nonselective fashion."

d) Nuclear pores are made up of many copies of a single protein.

Answers

(c)Tiny, water-soluble molecules can nonselectively move through water-filled passageways in nuclear pores.

Does metoprolol function as a nonselective beta blocker?

Abstract.Background:Compared to carvedilol, which is a non-selective beta-blocker with additional alpha(1)-adrenoceptor blockades, metoprolol is a beta(1)-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist.

What type of drug is propranolol?

Since propranolol, timolol, or nadolol have virtually little cardioselectivity, they have a higher risk for bronchoprovocation.

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