Classes of medications used for panic disorder that is considered the safest because of low incidence of side effects and lack of physiologic dependence is : selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
What is panic disorder?Anxiety disorder where there is sudden attacks of panic or fear regularly is called panic disorder. The main treatment options available for panic disorders are psychotherapy and medications
Factors that increase the risk of developing panic attacks or panic disorder are: family history of panic attacks or panic disorder, major life stress such as the death or serious illness of a loved one and traumatic event such as sexual assault or a serious accident.
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a data item to include on a qualitative review checklist of newborn inpatient health records that need not be included on adult records would be
One data that should be included in the qualitative review checklist of infant and pediatric inpatient health records that should not be included in adult records is growth and developmental records.
What do you mean by health records?A health record is a confidential compilation of relevant facts about an individual's medical history, including all past and present medical conditions, illnesses, and treatments, with emphasis on the specific event affecting the patient at the current stage of care.
What is the main purpose of health records?A Personal Health Record (PHR) helps patients better manage their care. By keeping critical health information such as immunization records, test results and screening dates in electronic form, patients can easily update and share their records.
How do you distinguish medical records and health records?The term "medical record" refers to clinical records for diagnosis and treatment, while the term "health record" more generally refers to those relating to the general condition of the body.
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an allergic reaction typically triggers symptoms in the , , , , , stomach, intestines, or on the skin. (choose five.)
An allergic reaction typically triggers symptoms in the ears, nose, throat, lungs, sinuses, intestines, stomach, or on the skin.
What is an allergic reaction?Allergies are responses caused by allergens that come into contact with the skin, ears, nose, eyes, respiratory tract, and digestive tract. They can be inhaled, ingested, or injected into the body. Airborne allergens such as pollen, animal dander, dust mites, and mold. Certain foods, including soy, tree nuts, peanuts, fish, wheat, eggs, shellfish, and milk. Stings from insects are also classified as allergens, such as those from bees or wasps. An allergic cascade occurs in three stages in the human body:
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A 5-year-old child presents to the emergency department after being hit by a car. She complains of left upper quadrant pain and the focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam shows fluid around her spleen. Which of the following findings would be an early indication of ongoing blood loss?
Widening pulse pressure Narrowing pulse pressure and increasing heart rate are early indications of ongoing blood loss.
The finding that would be an early indication of ongoing blood loss for the 5-year-old child after being hit by a car is the narrowing pulse pressure and increased heart rate.
FAST exam, short for Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma, is an ultrasound protocol used to look for the presence of fluid in the body. It's usually done for patients that are experienced trauma, such as after being hit by a car like the case above.
When the patient is experiencing blood loss, the pulse pressure starts to narrow and the heart rate increases to compensate for it. It can be an early indication of ongoing blood loss inside the patient's body.
Widening pulse pressure is definitely not correct. Decreasing diastolic blood pressure and weak peripheral pulses would be a late sign for the patient.
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the american heat association the us preventative services task force and the national academy of sciences blnak vitamin e supplemtns for the prevention of cardiovascular disease
There is not enough evidence to recommend for or against the use of vitamin E supplements for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
What is vitamin E?
Eight fat-soluble substances that make up vitamin E include four tocopherols as well as four tocotrienols. Nerve issues can result from vitamin E deficiency, which really is uncommon and usually brought on by an underlying issue with digesting dietary fat or from a diet low in vitamin E. A fat-soluble antioxidant called vitamin E may be able to shield cell membranes from oxygen species. Government agencies from all over the world advise adults to take 3 to 15 mg daily. According to a global summary of more than 100 studies from 2016 that showed a median dietary intake of 6.2 mg of alpha-tocopherol per day, consumption was below recommendations. Alpha-tocopherol has been studied as a dietary supplement in doses as high as 2,000 mg daily, with varying degrees of success.
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the nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease. which nursing action is most effective in reducing the potential for sepsis in this client?
Nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease, then the nursing action which is most effective in reducing the potential for sepsis in client is : frequent and thorough handwashing.
How can the effect of sepsis be reduced for client with sickle cell disease?Prevention and early detection strategies are useful in protecting the client in sickle cell disease from infection. Frequent and thorough handwashing is of the utmost priority.
Drug therapy is very helpful against infections that develop in the client with sickle cell disease. Assessing the client for infection, monitoring daily complete blood count with differential white blood cell count and taking vital signs every 4 hours is early detection but not prevention.
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which hematologic diseases may have symptoms of weight loss, fever, drenching night sweats, and painless lymph node enlargement?
The enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, armpits, or groin are typical signs of lymphoma. This is frequently painless, but not always, and is frequently accompanied by fevers, unexplained weight loss, drenching night sweats, occasionally chills, and chronic exhaustion.
What is lymphoma?The exact etiology of lymphoma is unknown. But it starts when a genetic mutation occurs in a lymphocyte, a kind of white blood cell that fights infection. The mutation instructs the cell to divide quickly, producing plenty of sick lymphocytes that keep reproducing. A kind of cancer that affects the lymphatic system is lymphoma. Although lymphoma is a severe illness, there are effective treatment options. The lymphatic system is a network of lymph veins and lymph nodes located all over your body. Anywhere in the body where lymph tissue is present, lymphomas can begin. The lymph tissue's principal locations are: the lymph nodes Lymph nodes, which can be seen inside the chest, abdomen, and pelvis, are bean-sized clusters of lymphocytes and other immune system cells.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. studies have found that, if one identical twin develops schizophrenia, there is a ___percent chance that the other twin will also develop schizophrenia. 38 48 52 58
If one identical twin has schizophrenia, there is a 48% of chance that the other twin would have it too.
What is schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia is quite a serious mental disorder. In this, a person’s perception of reality is abnormal. It results in many things like hallucinations, delusions, impairs daily functioning, extreme disordered thinking and schizophrenia can be pretty disabling.
Schizophrenic people require treatment for a lifetime. Providing early treatment gives a chance to get symptoms under control before it becomes serious and may also improve outlook in the long term.
Symptoms may usually vary but include:
DelusionsDisorganized speechImpaired ability to functionHallucinations so, Abnormal motor behaviorSchizophrenia is in no way completely genetic. Anyone can get it as it depends on a combination of environmental factors, brain chemistry and genetics.
Therefore, if one identical twin has schizophrenia, there is a 48% of chance that the other twin would have it too.
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the nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (multaq) for which adverse effect?
The most frequent adverse effects of taking MULTAQ include fatigue and a sensation of weakness, as well as gastrointestinal issues like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, pain in the stomach area, and indigestion.
With dronedarone, what are you watching?Dronedarone patients should have their heart rhythm checked at least once every three months.
What is the purpose of the drug dronedarone?Patients with a history of paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation are treated with dronedarone to reduce their risk of being admitted to the hospital for serious heart rhythm issues. Dronedarone is a member of the class of drugs known as antiarrhythmics.
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the nurse si teaching a community health class about the risk factors for cancer of the larynx. which factor has the least influence in predisposing an individual to this type of cancer
Genetic predisposition has the least influence in predisposing an individual to cancer of the larynx.
What is Genetic predisposition?
Genetic predisposition, also known as genetic susceptibility, refers to a person's likelihood of developing a particular disease, disorder, or condition due to their genetic make-up. This can be caused by a variety of factors such as a person's age, lifestyle, and family history.
Genetic predisposition can increase the risk of certain diseases, but it does not guarantee that a person will develop the conditions. There are a number of genetic tests available that can help individuals identify their genetic predispositions to particular diseases.
Explain about Cancer of the larynx.
Cancer of the larynx, also known as laryngeal cancer, is a type of head and neck cancer that affects the voice box, or larynx. This type of cancer is most commonly caused by smoking and long-term exposure to secondhand smoke. In rare cases, it can be caused by other environmental or genetic factors. Laryngeal cancer is often associated with other head and neck cancers, such as those of the throat, mouth, or nose.
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What is the most common complication of retinal detachment?.
Answer:
Cataract formation (loss of clarity of the lens of the eye).Glaucoma (raised pressure in the eye).Infection.UR WELCOME
what assessment finding would suggest to the nurse that the client with posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) is experiencing dissociation?
The assessment finding which a well trained would advise a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (pt-sd), experiencing dissociation is emo- tional fee- lings based on their past traumatic experience
What is meant by post-trau- matic stress disorderAs the name implies " post-traumatic " i.e, after the traumatic event. This simply refers to those disorder or health conditions which occurs in individual's life after a trau- ma or shock. In order words, post-traumatic stress disorder simply refers to those serious health condition which follows a shock.
That being said, some of these disorders could lead to anxiety dis- order, men-tal reta-rded behavior or even night- mares simply because of the trau- ma. A client who is suffering from traumatic activities from the past needs close monitoring and attention to improve their wellness.
In conclusion, we can now confirm and deduce from the explanation above that post-traumatic disor- der affect the well being of an individual.
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since the eldery are not a homogenous group, a variety of long-term care services are necessary. they have more chronic ailments than acute episodes. a variety of long-term care services are necessary. the ltc system must be integrated with the rest of the health care delivery system.
Since the eldery are not a homogenous group hence a variety of long-term care services are necessary.
A homogenous group is a mixture of people or alternative components that are almost like each other in an exceedingly variety of serious respects. In an exceedingly social context, as an example, a consistent cluster would possibly embody members who are a similar age or have a similar socioeconomic background, values, work expertise, education, and so on.
Long-term care services include medical and non-medical care provided to folks that area unit unable to perform basic activities of daily living like dressing or bathing. long-run supports and services may be provided reception, within the community, in aided living or in nursing homes.
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if kay had also mentioned during this visit that she has been experiencing neck pain, which medical term could be used to describe this complaint? (use the appropriate suffix for pain)
Cervicalgia would have been the medical word used to explain the pain in the neck.
Anywhere in the neck, from the back of your head to the top of your shoulders, can experience cervicalgia, also known as neck discomfort. Your ability to move your head and neck may be restricted, and it may also spread to your upper back or arms. A sports injury or car collision is the most evident reason for neck pain. After a few weeks, cervicalgia will normally go away. People should schedule an appointment with a doctor for a further assessment if the pain lasts for an extended period of time. In serious conditions, neurosurgeons may advise surgery to ease discomfort.
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in a patient with a pneumothorax, what findings would you expect with auscultation of the thorax on the affected side?
Answer:
decreased or absent breath sounds
Explanation:
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FILL IN THE BLANK. john fogelman was diagnosed with having a/an ___ . this is a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissues, including hard, soft, and liquid tissues.
John Fogelman was given the news that he had a sarcoma or two. This is a cancerous tumor that grows in connective tissues, which can be hard, soft, or liquid.
What kinds of radioactive substances are injected into the tissues that will be treated?The most common cancers treated with high-dose (HDR) brachytherapy are prostate, cervical, and head and neck cancers. The radioactive substance, like iridium, is temporarily injected into the tumor and then removed during the procedure. Small plastic catheters carry the radioactive material to the intended location.
Is muscle tissue the component of a benign tumor?Leiomyomas, also known as smooth or involuntary muscle tumors, are benign.Because they begin in tissues that are as widespread as the intestine or blood vessels, leiomyomas can develop almost anywhere in a person's body, whether they are male or female.
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a nurse is providing dietary instructions for a client diagnosed with liver disease. which food should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
Since the nurse is providing dietary instructions for a client diagnosed with liver disease. The food that the nurse should instruct the client to increase in their diet is:
Fish.Foods that are high in phosphates are:Fish, eggs, milk products, vegetables, whole grains, and carbonated beverages.What do the dietary recommendations mean?The Dietary Guidelines for Americans offer suggestions on what to eat and drink to satisfy nutrient requirements, advance health, and fend off disease. It was created and written with a professional audience in mind, including federal nutrition program managers, healthcare professionals, policymakers, and educators.
Therefore, based on the above case, Consume a lot of carbohydrate-containing foods. The main source of calories in this diet should be carbohydrates. Consume a moderate amount of fat as directed by the supplier. Increased fat and carbohydrates help stop the liver from destroying proteins.
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excessive use of mobile devices is linked to and may affect all of the following in children? a. a child's physical activity b. all of the above c. musculoskeletal pain d. poorer sleep e. a child's weight
The excessive use of mobile devices is linked to and may affect the sleeping pattern in children. Poorer sleep is a result of excessive use of mobile phones. Thus, the correct option is D.
What are the results of excessive use of mobile devices?
It has been shown that people who are addicted to mobile phones often are linked to many conditions like depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders. It is also a waste of time i.e., the average person checks his phone once every 12 minutes in a day, leading to about 80 times a day. Most of the time people just check their phones for no good reason.
The excessive use of technology can lead to various physical and mental health issues, such as obesity, sleeplessness or poorer sleep, anxiety, and attention problems.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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using jmp, examine the relationship between pulmonary function and height. based on this information, choose the best description of the results:
The relationship between pulmonary function and height can be analyzed using JMP. Based on this information, the best description of the results is: that the slope is highly significant and 57% of the variation in FEV is explained by age.
What does the relationship between height and pulmonary function?Height has a highly significant relationship with someone’s pulmonary function. That is why we can use the measurement for calculating reference values for pulmonary function tests. Normally, a tall individual has higher static lung volumes and capacities. However, they would be likely to experience a greater decrease in lung volumes as they get older.
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a woman at 30 weeks gestation is in active labor with still-intact membranes. which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered in an attempt to slow her labor?
Drugs like Tocolytics, Nifedipine can be given by the nurse to slow labor.
How can we slow labor ?Similar to the advantages of walking, active birth positions assist your baby in assuming the best position possible for delivery. Consider shifting positions frequently, like every 40 to 60 minutes. Being still and in one place can cause contractions to go more slowly and hurt more.
Many women with preterm labor symptoms can receive medications known as tocolytics, which are pronounced toh-coh-LIT-iks. These medicines can lessen or stop uterine contractions, which may delay labor for two to seven days.
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the nurse is performing a physical assessment of the gastrointestinal tract. in which area does the nurse place the hands for palpation of the liver?
It is best to use a two-handed method, positioning the left and right hands with the fingers pointing in the direction of the umbilicus at the bottom edges of the left and right costal margins, respectively.
Whether the abdomen feels hollow, check to see if the liver is enlarged?Put your right hand on the right lower region of the patient's abdomen. Gently raise your right upper quadrant in the direction of the rectus muscle. Ask the patient to take a deep breath while gently pushing in and upward. If the liver is enlarged, it will be noticeable and come down to your fingertips.
Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation are the four main parts of the abdominal examination. Starting with the general inspection is crucial.
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which measurement correlates strongly with body fat content but fails to identify the location of body fat?
Body mass index is a measurement that correlates strongly with body fat content but does not identify the location of body fat.
Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. A high BMI can indicate excessive body fat. BMI screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not diagnose an individual's body fatness or health. BMI considers natural variations in body shape to determine a healthy weight range for a given height.
In addition to measuring your BMI, healthcare professionals may consider other factors when determining if you are a healthy weight.
Because muscle is denser than fat, very muscular people, such as heavyweight boxers, weight trainers, and athletes, may be a healthy weight despite having an obese BMI.
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a diabetic client is to eat 60 g carbohydrate at lunch. he can do this with: group of answer choices 1 c 2% milk, 1 c cooked broccoli, 1/2 bagel 1 c mashed potatoes, 1 c cranberry juice cocktail 2 slices bread, 1/2 c corn, 1/2 kiwi 1 hamburger bun, 1/3 c baked beans, 12 cherries
The diabetic client can eat 1 c 2% milk, 1 c cooked broccoli, and 1/2 a bagel.
What is diabetes?
A group of illnesses known as diabetes mellitus affect how the body utilises blood sugar (glucose). The cells that comprise the muscles as well as tissues rely heavily on glucose as a source of energy. It serves as the primary fuel for the brain. Each type of diabetes has a different primary cause. However, diabetes can result in an excess of sugar in the blood regardless of the type you have. Serious health issues can result from an excess of sugar in the blood. Type 2 diabetes . type 2 diabetes are chronic diabetes conditions. Diabetes conditions like gestational diabetes and prediabetes may be reversible. When blood sugar levels seem to be higher than usual, prediabetes develops. However, the blood sugar levels really aren't elevated enough to be classified as diabetes. Additionally, if no preventative measures are taken, prediabetes can progress to diabetes.
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when preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the postpartum period, the nurse should include which information?
A pregnant patient who has a rubella titer of less than 1:8 should receive the vaccine after giving birth.
Which evaluation finding on the postpartum client would indicate hemorrhage, according to the nurse?The lochia should be evaluated for its color, size, and smell. Knowing how much lochia to check for is crucial since too much lochia can signify bleeding. Additionally, bad-smelling lochia could be a sign of an infection. After birth, Lochia is typically bright crimson and has tiny clots.
When organizing the care of a client who has rubella, what should be considered?Extreme itching is a symptom of measles; nursing interventions include keeping the patient's nails short, promoting long sleeves and pants to prevent scratching, keeping skin moisturized with lotions recommended by the healthcare provider, and avoiding sunlight and heat.
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During a class iii or iv restoration, the dentist may use a _____ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
Answer:
mylar matrix system
Explanation:
When are vision changes an emergency?.
Answer:
Sudden blurred vision in one or both eyesExplanation:
a client who is postoperative bariatric surgery is diagnosed with bile reflux. which conditions are associated with bile reflux? select all that apply.
A client who is postoperative bariatric surgery is diagnosed with bile reflux and the conditions which are associated with bile reflux are Gastritis and Esophagitis.
Bile reflux happens once gall — a biological process liquid made in your liver — backs up (refluxes) into your abdomen and, in some cases, into the tube that connects your mouth and abdomen (esophagus). Bile reflux could accompany the reflux of abdomen acid (gastric acid) into your passage.
Gastritis could be a general term for a gaggle of conditions with one issue in common: Inflammation of the liner of the abdomen. The inflammation of redness is most frequently the results of infection with constant microorganism that causes most abdomen ulcers or the regular use of bound pain relievers.
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a pregnant woman presents with a rash two days before giving birth to a full term neonate. the rash is determined to be caused by the varicella-zoster virus. which complications will the newborn most likely experience?
A pregnant woman presents with a rash two days before giving birth to a full term neonate. the rash is determined to be caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Pneumonia like complications will the newborn most likely experience.
Infection that causes swelling and fluid buildup in the air sacs in one or both lungs.
The air sacs may swell with fluid or pus when someone has pneumonia. Anyone can be at risk of dying from the virus, but newborns, young children, and adults over 65 are more at risk.
The signs include a phlegmy or pus-filled cough, fever, chills, and breathing difficulties.
Many types of pneumonia are treatable with antibiotics. Vaccines are a good way to avoid some types of pneumonia.
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the most common cause of iron-deficiency anemia in premenopausal women includes which of the following?
Excessive menstruation is the most common cause of iron-deficiency anemia in premenopausal women.
Iron deficiency is a common reason behind too few healthy red blood cells within the body (anemia). during a pregnant lady, iron deficiency puts the baby in danger of organic process delays. Fatigue is that the commonest symptom. Treatment includes iron supplements and attention on any underlying causes.
Menstruation, or period, is traditional epithelial duct hemorrhage that happens as a part of a woman's monthly cycle. each month, your body prepares for physiological condition. If no physiological condition happens, the uterus, or womb, sheds its lining. The blood is part blood and part tissue from within the womb.
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Place the following actions in the correct sequence of occurrence, from first to last, in the process by which the Supreme Court accepts and reviews a case. Note that this list represents only a few of the overall sequence of steps in this process.
The correct sequence of occurrence in the process by which the Supreme Court accepts and reviews a case is:
A petition for a writ of certiorari is filed.The case goes to a conference.Court grants a writ of certiorari.Oral arguments commence.In the United States, the Supreme Court is the highest court of federal jurisdiction. It has a variety of tasks, such as interpreting a law's meaning, determining whether a law is relevant to certain facts, and determining how a law should be applied. Yet, the Supreme Court's primary function is to ensure the people the promise of equal justice under the law.
In accepting and reviewing a case, the Supreme Court has several steps:
The first step for most cases is filing a petition for a writ of certiorari.After the petition is filed, the case goes to a conference. In this conference, law clerks evaluate the petition. Once the case passes the evaluation, the court issues a writ of certiorari.The step that will follow is oral (verbal) arguments. Usually, each case is given an hour.Learn more about Supreme Court at https://brainly.com/question/25903338
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Why do athletes use supplements?.
Answer:
To gain a competitive edge
Explanation:
Sports supplements promote muscle growth.It helps in enhancing and increasing endurance.Helps in reducing fatigue.Works towards reducing soreness in muscles.Increases the antioxidant defenses of an individual.