The genetic disease that is an X-linked trait that primarily affects men and can cause acute hemolytic anemia is G6PD deficiency.
What is G6PD deficiency?G6PD deficiency is a genetic blood disorder that occurs when the body does not produce enough of an enzyme known as glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD). G6PD is a vital enzyme that aids in the protection of red blood cells against oxidative damage, allowing them to function effectively in transporting oxygen throughout the body. This disorder affects males more frequently than females since the gene that controls it is located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes.
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What section of the kidney is visualized in the image 6?
What parts of the coronal section of the kidney in the image is magnified? What part of the kidney A and B indicating in the image 6 and 7?
What is the structure C?
Name the structure D
What type of nephron is E and G?
In the image 6, the renal pelvis is the section of the kidney that is visualized.
The magnified parts of the coronal section of the kidney in the image are the Glomerulus and the Bowman's capsule. The part of the kidney A and B indicating in the image 6 and 7 is the Renal Cortex.
The structure C is the Renal medulla.The structure D is the Renal papilla.The type of nephron is E and G is Juxtamedullary nephron.
What is a nephron?The nephron is the functional unit of the kidneys. It processes the blood and removes waste products and excess water, producing urine.
The nephron is made up of two primary components: a renal corpuscle, which is composed of a glomerulus and a Bowman's capsule, and a renal tubule, which is divided into several distinct regions.
The juxtamedullary nephron is a type of nephron that is located near the medulla.
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In compensating for respiratory alkalosis, the body excretes: A. Ammonium ions. B. Bicarbonate ions. C. Carbonic acid. D. Phosphate ions. 16 3 points Which of the following statements is true? A. Normal extracellular pH is 7.35 to 7.45. B. Normal intracellular pH is 7.35 to 7.45. C.C. Normal blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45 D. A and C are correct. E. B and Care correct. 17 3 points The functional unit of the kidney is: A renal corpuscle B. renal tubules. C. Nephron D. Bowman's capsule. E. Glomerulus.
Option B is correct.
Option C is correct.
Option C is correct.
In compensating for respiratory alkalosis, the body excretes: Bicarbonate ions. The kidney is a complex organ that performs numerous vital functions in our body. The normal blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45. So, the correct answers are: In compensating for respiratory alkalosis, the body excretes Bicarbonate ions. The functional unit of the kidney is Nephron. Option B is correct.
The normal blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The term ‘compensated respiratory alkalosis’ refers to an imbalance in the acid-base balance of the body. In respiratory alkalosis, pH increases due to low carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood. The kidneys help regulate the pH level in the body by excreting bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and reabsorbing hydrogen ions (H+). Option C is correct.
The functional unit of the kidney is a nephron. The nephron is responsible for removing waste and excess water from the bloodstream and regulating blood pH, electrolyte balance, and blood pressure. Normal blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45, and any changes to this range can cause serious health problems. Option C is correct.
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Select the statements below that are true description of the events that occur during meiosis I. (select all that apply) A single diploid (2n) nucleus has become two haploid (n) nuclei. A. The parent cell finally gives rise to 4 haploid cells B. The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. C. Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. D. The sister chromatids are separated from each other.
The correct options are (B) and (C). The following statements are the true descriptions of the events that occur during meiosis I are as follows:
The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. (B)Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. (C)Meiosis I refer to the first round of meiotic cell division which divides homologous chromosomes into two haploid cells. The statements given below are the true descriptions of the events that occur during meiosis I:1.
The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.2. Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. These two statements are true description of the events that occur during meiosis I. Hence, the correct options are (B) and (C).
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Which of the following is a CORRECT statement? (Check all that apply) (A) At the arteriole end of the capillary, there is net filtration because the sum of forces that push fluid out of the capillary is lower than the sum of forces that retain fluid in the capiliary. (B) A decrease in plasma protein concentration may impede the net absorption at the venular end of the capillary. (C) Atrial stretch receptors response to increased blood volume by inducing sympathetic vasoconstriction in the kidney arterioles. (D) Hypothalamic osmoreceptors respond to increased blood osmolality by causing ADH-induced water reabsorption in the kidneys. (E) Increased plasma osmolality will cause the sensation of thirst via an ADH-dependent pathway. (F) Atrial stretch receptors also stimulate the release of atrial natriuretic peptide, is antagonized by ADH. (G) In the control of blood volume, aldosterone functions as an antagonist of the atrial natriuretic peptide. (H) Adding electrolyte in sports drinks is unnecessary, since only water is lost due to exercise induced sweating. (I) Because of differences in resistance to blood flow between organs, the cardiac output is unequally distributed to different organs. (J) The pressure difference between the left ventricle and the right atrium is one of the most important factor that determine blood flow through the systemic circulation.
The correct statement are:
A) At the arteriole end of the capillary, there is net filtration because the sum of forces that push fluid out of the capillary is lower than the sum of forces that retain fluid in the capillary.
B) A decrease in plasma protein concentration may impede the net absorption at the venular end of the capillary.
D) Hypothalamic osmoreceptors respond to increased blood osmolality by causing ADH-induced water reabsorption in the kidneys.
E) Increased plasma osmolality will cause the sensation of thirst via an ADH-dependent pathway.
F) Atrial stretch receptors also stimulate the release of atrial natriuretic peptide, which is antagonized by ADH.
I) Because of differences in resistance to blood flow between organs, the cardiac output is unequally distributed to different organs.
At the arteriole end of a capillary, there is net filtration due to higher hydrostatic pressure than colloid osmotic pressure. Decreased plasma protein concentration can impede net absorption at the venular end. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors respond to increased blood osmolality by causing ADH-induced water reabsorption. Increased plasma osmolality triggers thirst via an ADH-dependent pathway. Atrial stretch receptors stimulate release of atrial natriuretic peptide, antagonized by ADH. Unequal resistance to blood flow leads to unequal distribution of cardiac output to different organs.
Therefore, the answer is: A, B, D, E, F, I.
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How does digitalis decrease heart rate? Explain full
process/mechanism.
Digitalis decreases heart rate through its action on the autonomic nervous system and the heart muscle cells.
Digitalis works by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, which leads to an increase in intracellular sodium concentration. This increase in intracellular sodium then inhibits the sodium-calcium exchanger, causing an increase in intracellular calcium concentration. The increased calcium concentration enhances the contractility of the heart muscle cells, leading to increased force of contraction. Simultaneously, digitalis also activates the vagus nerve, which releases acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that decreases heart rate by slowing down the firing rate of the sinoatrial (SA) node, the natural pacemaker of the heart. This combined effect of increased contractility and decreased heart rate results in an overall decrease in heart rate.
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word or phrase bank medial temporal lobes. caudal Head pons lateral eye movement sciatic nerve taste sensation Midbrain 31 pairs inner ears PNS 12 pairs medullar oblongata fibular nerve superior oblique hip joints Medially simultaneously Ischial gluteal upper limbs CNS dorsal root and ventral roots extrinsic eye sensory and motor signals anterior thigh occipital lobes neck taste sensations skeletal muscles crossed extensor rami intrinsic and extrinsic thoracic and abdominopelvic quadricep visceral signals Hearing anterolateral somatosensory cortex encapsulated nerve sense organ motor neuron larynx and pharynx effectors biceps and skin lumbosacral maxillary nerve spinal cord thermoreceptors and nociceptor lateral rectus medial arm the pons and the medullar oblongata nerve plexus mastication in the mouth. sternocleidomastoid abdominal wall and iliopsoas stretch reflex odorant stimuli side opposite 3 types internal and internal Heart optic chiasma nociceptors Foot swallowing somatic motor signals Golgi tendon interceptors interneuron photoreceptors deltoid teres minor exteroceptors thermoreceptors Electromagnetic Afferent triceps brachii anterior forearm develop command abductor anterior special sense vision, and taste two criterial neurological and sensory chemoreceptors multiple synapses Mechanoreceptors tibia monosynaptic stretch thermoreceptors synapses Afferent Eye withdrawer organs
1. The peripheral nervous system connects the body and environment to the…………………………. The PNS detects sensory stimuli and transmit it to the ……………………... The ……………………………. in turn process the sensory information, develop command, and send it via the ……………………….to the PNS effector like muscles and glands.
2. Cranial nerves are attached to structures in the………………. and …………………… regions of the body. These are sensory nerves, the motor nerves and the mixed motor and sensory nerves. There are ………………of cranial nerves named with Roman figures for nerve one to nerve twelve.
3. The trochlear nerve that moves the eye ………………………and inferiorly, originates from the inferior portion of the…………………………, and terminate on the …………………………. muscles of the eye. The oculomotor motor nerve that also move the eye originates from the superior and lateral portions of the ……………………. and terminate on the …………………………………. muscles and smooth muscles of the eye. The vestibulocochlear verve that controls ………………………….and equilibrium, originates from the vestibular and cochlear nerves of the………………., and terminates on nuclei of the cerebellum and……………………………….
4. The optic nerve that carries visual information, originates from the posterior of the………………………., and form an X-shaped structure called……………………., and terminates on the nuclei of the ……………………….and midbrain before it gets to the visual cortex of the…………………………... The olfactory nerve that carries……………………, originates form the olfactory epithelia and terminates on nuclei of the …………………………….
5. The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve that is responsible for the contraction of muscles surrounding the………………………………, originates from the …………………….and sensory receptors from the pharynx, larynx, skin, ears, certain blood vessels of the neck, innervate throat, anterior neck, visceral organs of …………………………… cavities. The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed nerves responsible for ………………………. movement, originates from the……………………., and sensory receptor of the tongue, pharynx, and round the ears.
6. The facial nerve, which is responsible for facial expressions and other facial muscles, originates from the …………………… and the medullar oblongata and terminates on the facial muscles the provide ……………………. and somatic sensation from the external eye and nasal cavities. The trigeminal nerve has 3 branches, the ophthalmic nerve, the…………………., and the mandibular nerve. Their origin is from between …………………………………………. and innervates the primary ………………………………for facial sensations. The mandibula nerve innervates the muscles for ……………………………
1. The peripheral nervous system connects the body and environment to the CNS. The PNS detects sensory stimuli and transmit it to the CNS. The CNS, in turn, processes the sensory information, develop command, and send it via the motor neuron to the PNS effector like muscles and glands.
2. Cranial nerves are attached to structures in the head and neck regions of the body. These are sensory nerves, the motor nerves, and the mixed motor and sensory nerves. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves named with Roman figures for nerve one to nerve twelve.
3. The trochlear nerve that moves the eye laterally and inferiorly originates from the inferior portion of the midbrain, and terminate on the superior oblique muscles of the eye. The oculomotor motor nerve that also moves the eye originates from the superior and lateral portions of the midbrain and terminate on the extrinsic eye muscles and smooth muscles of the eye. The vestibulocochlear verve that controls hearing and equilibrium originates from the vestibular and cochlear nerves of the inner ears, and terminates on nuclei of the cerebellum and midbrain.
4. The optic nerve that carries visual information originates from the posterior of the eye and form an X-shaped structure called optic chiasma, and terminates on the nuclei of the thalamus and midbrain before it gets to the visual cortex of the occipital lobes. The olfactory nerve that carries odorant stimuli originates from the olfactory epithelia and terminates on nuclei of the temporal lobes.
5. The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve that is responsible for the contraction of muscles surrounding the larynx and pharynx, originates from the medulla oblongata, and sensory receptors from the pharynx, larynx, skin, ears, certain blood vessels of the neck, innervate throat, anterior neck, visceral organs of thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed nerves responsible for swallowing movement, originates from the medulla oblongata, and sensory receptor of the tongue, pharynx, and round the ears.
6. The facial nerve, which is responsible for facial expressions and other facial muscles, originates from the pons and the medulla oblongata and terminates on the facial muscles that provide somatic motor signals and sensory signals from the external eye and nasal cavities. The trigeminal nerve has 3 branches, the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve, and the mandibular nerve. Their origin is from between the pons and the medulla oblongata and innervates the primary sensory and intrinsic and extrinsic muscles for facial sensations. The mandibula nerve innervates the muscles for mastication in the mouth.
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Which amino acid is not correctly classified according to its side chain properties?
The amino acid that is not correctly classified according to its side chain properties is Histidine: nonpolar, uncharged. The correct answer is D.
Histidine is incorrectly classified according to its side chain properties because it is a polar, uncharged amino acid. The side chain of histidine contains a ring structure that can be ionized, which makes it basic. So, histidine is a polar, basic amino acid.
In contrast, the answer choice D) states that histidine is nonpolar, uncharged, which is incorrect. The other answer choices are correctly classified according to their side chain properties:
A) Serine: polar, uncharged
B) Glutamate: polar, acidic
C) Arginine: polar, basic
E) Phenylalanine: nonpolar, uncharged
In conclusion, the correct answer is D) Histidine: nonpolar, uncharged.
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Complete question is:
Which amino acid is not correctly classified according to its side chain properties?
A) Serine: polar, uncharged D) Histidine: nonpolar, uncharged C) Arginine: polar, basic B) Glutamate: polar, acidic E) Phenylalanine: nonpolar, uncharged
#27 In a paragraph (7+ complete sentences) please explain the
physiology and steps associates with swallowing of food stuff as
the food travels from the mouth to the stomach.
The process of swallowing, or deglutition, is a complex physiological event that allows food to pass from the mouth to the stomach. It involves a coordinated series of steps to ensure proper transport and protection of the airway.
The process of swallowing can be divided into three main phases: the oral phase, the pharyngeal phase, and the esophageal phase.
Oral Phase: It starts with the voluntary initiation of food intake. The tongue helps to push the food bolus to the back of the mouth, triggering a reflexive response. The soft palate elevates to close off the nasal passage, and the epiglottis remains upright to direct the food toward the esophagus, preventing it from entering the trachea.
Pharyngeal Phase: Once the food bolus reaches the back of the mouth, the pharyngeal phase begins. The muscles of the pharynx contract to propel the food bolus downward. The epiglottis now flips downward to cover the opening of the larynx, ensuring that the food enters the esophagus and not the airway. The upper esophageal sphincter relaxes, allowing the food to pass into the esophagus.
Esophageal Phase: In this phase, the food bolus moves through the esophagus towards the stomach. Peristaltic waves, coordinated contractions of the esophageal muscles, push the food bolus forward. The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow the food to enter the stomach, and then it closes to prevent gastric reflux.
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3. There are two runners on the distance: the sprinter has been finished the hundred-meter distance; the long-distance runner has been running 10 kilometer. Point out the difference in the processes which supply muscles with energy in these runners. Draw the metabolic pathway schemes which are energy source for work in sprinter and stayer.
The difference in the processes that supply muscles with energy in a sprinter and long-distance runner can be attributed to the type of metabolic pathway used by the muscles of the runners to produce ATP. The sprinter, who has just completed a 100-meter race, uses the anaerobic metabolic pathway to supply energy to their muscles.
This pathway is also known as the glycolytic pathway. It is a rapid energy pathway that involves the breakdown of glucose to produce ATP. This pathway does not require oxygen and is responsible for the production of lactic acid in the muscle tissues. On the other hand, the long-distance runner who has run a 10-kilometer race uses the aerobic metabolic pathway to supply energy to their muscles.
In conclusion, the main difference between the two metabolic pathways used by the sprinter and the long-distance runner is that the sprinter uses the anaerobic metabolic pathway to produce energy, while the long-distance runner uses the aerobic metabolic pathway.
Here are the metabolic pathway schemes for the sprinter and long-distance runner:Sprinter:Glucose (glycolysis) --> Pyruvate (glycolysis) --> ATP (glycolysis)Lactic acid (glycolysis) --> Liver (cori cycle) --> Glucose (cori cycle)Long-distance runner:Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins (oxidative phosphorylation) --> ATP (oxidative phosphorylation)
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Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach is required for
A. absorption of vitamin B12.
B. stimulation of mixing waves.
C. activation of pepsin.
D. complete gastric emptying.
E. buffering of HCl.
Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach is required for absorption of vitamin B12.
Vitamin B12, also known as cobalamin, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, particularly in the production of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. However, vitamin B12 is a large and complex molecule that cannot be directly absorbed by the small intestine. This is where intrinsic factor, a protein synthesized and released by the parietal cells of the stomach, comes into play.
Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 in the stomach, forming a complex that is resistant to degradation by stomach acid. This complex is then transported to the small intestine, where it interacts with specific receptors on the surface of the intestinal cells. The complex is taken up by these cells through a process called receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Once inside the cells of the small intestine, vitamin B12 is released from the complex and enters the bloodstream. From there, it can be transported to various tissues and organs in the body, where it performs its essential functions. Without intrinsic factor, the absorption of vitamin B12 would be severely impaired, leading to a deficiency of this vital nutrient.
In summary, intrinsic factor secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. It binds to vitamin B12, protects it from degradation, and facilitates its uptake by the cells of the small intestine. This process ensures the proper absorption and utilization of vitamin B12 in the body, supporting various physiological functions.
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to a condition called pernicious anemia, characterized by low red blood cell production. In addition to the parietal cells, the presence of intrinsic factor is also important for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum, the last segment of the small intestine.
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Question 5 CO2 is less soluble than O2
Question 5 options:
- True
- False
Question 6 Approximately how much oxygen that is transported is attached to hemoglobin?
Question 6 options:
a. 80.7%
b. 98.5%
c. 22.2%
d. 50.1%
Question 5: False. CO₂ is actually more soluble than O₂ in water. This is important for its transport and elimination from the body.
CO₂ is less soluble in water than O₂. This is because CO₂ is a nonpolar molecule, while O₂ is a relatively small and nonpolar molecule. Nonpolar molecules are less soluble in water, which is a polar solvent. Therefore, CO₂ has a lower solubility in water compared to O₂.
Question 6: b. 98.5%. Approximately 98.5% of the oxygen that is transported in the blood is bound to hemoglobin, forming oxyhemoglobin. Only a small fraction of oxygen is dissolved in the plasma.
Approximately 98.5% of the oxygen that is transported in the blood is bound to hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that has a high affinity for oxygen. Each molecule of hemoglobin can bind up to four molecules of oxygen.
This allows for efficient transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues throughout the body. The remaining 1.5% of oxygen is dissolved in the plasma and is not bound to hemoglobin.
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What is the main difference between a square knot and an Aberdeen knot? a. with an Aberdeen knot twice as much thread length is used b. An Aberdeen knot is created by alternately using over and underhand movements c. An Aberdeen knot can only be created with monofilament thread d. An Aberdeen knot can be created with a single hand e. An Aberdeen knot uses a loop that is created by not pulling the thread through completely
The main difference between a square knot and an Aberdeen knot is that An Aberdeen knot is created by alternately using over and underhand movements.
The square knot and the Aberdeen knot are types of knots used in fishing, but they differ in how they are tied and the fishing lines they can be used with. A square knot is a knot in which two lines are tied together. An overhand knot is made with one line and then a second overhand knot is made with the other line. The two overhand knots are then tied together.The Aberdeen knot, on the other hand, is created by alternately using over and underhand movements. It is a strong knot that can be used with both monofilament and braided fishing lines.
The Aberdeen knot uses a loop that is created by not pulling the thread through completely.In summary, the main difference between a square knot and an Aberdeen knot is that the Aberdeen knot is created by alternately using over and underhand movements while the square knot involves two overhand knots tied together. The Aberdeen knot is also more versatile in terms of the types of fishing lines it can be used with.
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Give the definition of physical literacy and indicate its importance, explain the philosophical foundations of physical literacy, explain one of the topics you have chosen with examples. (I NEED AT LEAST 2 PAGES EXPLANATION)
**IT NEEDS TO BE COMPUTER WRITING, NOT HANDWRITING.**
Physical literacy is a relatively new concept that refers to the essential role of physical activity and exercise in maintaining optimal health and wellness.
The term refers to a state of being that involves both physical and mental attributes, such as flexibility, agility, coordination, balance, strength, endurance, and the ability to learn and adapt new physical activities.Physical literacy is significant because it promotes healthy living and well-being, providing individuals with the knowledge, skills, motivation, and confidence to participate in physical activity throughout their lifespan. The acquisition of physical literacy allows people to engage in a wide range of physical activities and sports with competence and confidence, leading to lifelong participation and enjoyment.
Physical literacy helps to reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases such as obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease, as well as improving mental health, academic performance, and social interaction.Physical literacy is based on three philosophical foundations: the holistic nature of human development, the need for lifelong learning and development, and the right of every individual to participate in physical activity. Firstly, physical literacy emphasizes that human development is holistic, meaning that physical, cognitive, emotional, and social aspects of development are interrelated and complementary. Physical activity and exercise have been shown to promote not only physical but also cognitive, emotional, and social development, which are essential for optimal well-being.
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Lysine for Janet, a 30-year-old, her exhaustion was way beyond what she believed was usual for someone in decent physical shape. She was exhausted after her runs, with muscle cramps, spasms, and a strange weight in her legs. Her tiredness and discomfort became so severe recently. Other strange symptoms began to appear, such as fuzzy vision. She went to her doctor, concerned. Her doctor performed numerous tests and spoke with a number of specialists. Janet gets diagnosed with mitochondrial disease after several months. Janet is taken aback. Her niece, who is ten years old, has mitochondrial disease, although her symptoms began when she was very young and included seizures and learning impairments.
a.Why Janet feels extreme fatigue and muscle pain after exercise?
b.How is it possible that Janet has the same condition but has distinct symptoms?
c.Compare and contrast the lagging strand and leading strand in elongation of DNA replication?
a. Janet feels extreme fatigue and muscle pain after exercise because she has mitochondrial disease. Mitochondrial disease can cause fatigue, exhaustion, muscle cramps, spasms, and a strange weight in the legs, all of which are symptoms that Janet has experienced.
b. Janet has the same condition as her niece, mitochondrial disease, but has different symptoms. This is because mitochondrial diseases can cause a wide range of symptoms, and the severity and onset of symptoms can vary from person to person. This is also because mitochondrial diseases can affect different parts of the body and different organs. In Janet's case, her symptoms are related to muscle and energy metabolism, while her niece's symptoms are related to seizures and learning impairments.
c. The leading strand and the lagging strand are two different strands of DNA replication. The leading strand is the strand that is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 3' to 5' direction in small fragments known as Okazaki fragments.
The leading strand is synthesized by DNA polymerase III, while the lagging strand is synthesized by DNA polymerase I. The leading strand is synthesized at a faster rate than the lagging strand because it is synthesized continuously, while the lagging strand is synthesized in small fragments that must be joined together.
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select true or false of sentences and correct the false one:
1.I band of muscle sarcomere contains thick filaments only .(true/false)
2.skeletal muscle is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.(true/false)
3.a hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ions is glucagon.(true/false)
4.the lung's ability to return to resting volume when stretching force is released is called compliance.(true/false)
5.epinephrine's primary role in the respiratory system is as a bronchoconstrictor.(true/false)
*fill the gaps
----------are responsible for bone deposition while ----------are responsible for bone break down
1. False, the I band of a muscle sarcomere contains thin filaments only.
2. False, skeletal muscles are controlled by the somatic nervous system.
3. False, the hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ions is calcitonin.
4. True.
5. False, epinephrine's primary role in the respiratory system is as a bronchodilator.----------Osteoblasts are responsible for bone deposition while osteoclasts are responsible for bone breakdown.
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Which of the following best describes how functions of regulatory transcription factor proteins modification occur in eukaryotic cells? A. The modification of the function of eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteins in eukaryotic cells occurs when they bind a small effector molecule, such as a hormone, to form a hormone-receptor complex that binds DNA and activates or inactivatos transcription B. The modification of the function of eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteinoin eukaryotic cells occurs when either two similar or non-similar regulatory transcription factor proteins Interact with one another forming a homodimeric protein or a heterodimeric protein that binds DNA to activate or inactivate transcription C. The modification of the function of eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteins in eukaryotic cells occurs when regulatory transcription factor proteins bind to DNA and are covalently modified through phosphorylation by kinases to activate or inactivate transcription D. Answers AB and Care the correct answer choices for this question E. None of the answers in the correct answer choice for this question QUESTION 43 Which segments of nucleic acide directly indulge in translation in living cells? A. The segments of nucleic acids directly indulged in the translation process are the messenger ribonucleic acids B. The segments of nucleic acids directly indulged in the translation process are the ribonucleic acids C. The segments of nucleic acids directly indulged in the translation process are the complementary deoxyribonucleic acids D. The segments of nucleic acids directly indulged in the translation process are the reversed transcribed ribonucleic acids E. The segments of nucleic acide directly Indulged in the translation process are the complementary deoxyribonucleic acids
The modification of the function of eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteins in eukaryotic cells occurs when regulatory transcription factor proteins bind to DNA and are covalently modified through phosphorylation by kinases to activate or inactivate transcription, option C.
The term "regulatory transcription factor" refers to proteins that regulate gene transcription. These proteins bind to specific DNA sequences in genes and control their transcription. Eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteins, like most other proteins, may be covalently modified to change their activity level. These modifications include phosphorylation, acetylation, methylation, and others.
Phosphorylation by kinases is one of the most well-known forms of covalent modification of eukaryotic regulatory transcription factor proteins. Phosphorylation adds a phosphate group to specific amino acid residues, typically serine, threonine, and tyrosine, on regulatory transcription factor proteins. This changes the protein's activity level, allowing it to activate or inactivate transcription. Therefore, option C is the correct answer to the given question.
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What is the role of cyclins amd cyclin-dependent kinases, p53, pRb,
ATM, oncogenes, suppressor genes and checkpoints in cancer growth
amd spread?
Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases play a vital role in the cell cycle, specifically in the process of regulating mitosis or cell division. P53 plays a critical role in the body's defense against cancer by inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis.
In the case of DNA damage, p53 activates genes that are involved in DNA repair, which results in the reduction of DNA mutations. Additionally, pRb inhibits the growth of the cell by binding to E2F transcription factors, thus suppressing the expression of genes that are involved in DNA replication and cell cycle progression.
Checkpoint genes, like ATM, are crucial in the cellular response to DNA damage and play a vital role in repairing damaged DNA. Oncogenes, on the other hand, are involved in the initiation of cancer growth. These genes are often mutated and become hyperactive, leading to the uncontrolled proliferation of cells. Suppressor genes, on the other hand, prevent the growth of cells and play a critical role in regulating the cell cycle.
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Which of the following are TRUE, when describing the interaction of Oxygen, Blood and Haemoglobin? Select All that are true Oxygen is highly soluble in plasma, and the majority of Oxygen is transported in solution dissolved in Plasma When describing Haemoglobin-Oxygen equilibrium, the term "P50" indicates the Partial Pressure of Oxygen at which 50% of haemoglobin Oxygen binding sites are occupied Interactions between Haemoglobin subunits generally decrease Haemoglobin- Oxygen affinity, giving the single protein Myoglobin a higher affinity for Oxygen over a wide range of PO2 The smaller increase in PO2 required to increase Haemoglobin saturation (from 25% to 50%, and again from 50% to 75% saturation), indicates an increase in haemoglobin affinity for Oxygen, after one binding site is occupied. High PCO2, acidity and/or temperature decreases the affinity of Haemoglobin for Oxygen, and increases Oxygen unloading As one Haemoglobin subunit binds 02, it and the other subunits adopt the Relaxed conformation & become more likely to bind another 02.
This Increased affinity promotes Oxygen "loading" where PO2 is high. The larger increase in PO2 required to fully saturate Haemoglobin (from 75% to 100%), indicates a decrease in haemoglobin affinity for Oxygen compared to haemoglobin that is partially saturated. As one Haemoglobin subunit releases O2, it and the other subunits adopt the Tense conformation & become less likely to bind another 02. This decreased affinity promotes Oxygen "unloading" where PO2 is low. High PCO2, acidity and/or temperature increases the affinity of Haemoglobin for Oxygen, and increases Oxygen loading, When describing Haemoglobin-Oxygen equilibrium, the term "P50 indicates the proportion of possible Haemoglobin binding sites bound to oxygen, at a Partial Pressure of Oxygen of 50 mmHg.
The following statements are TRUE when describing the interaction of Oxygen, Blood and Haemoglobin Oxygen is highly soluble in plasma, and the majority of Oxygen is transported in solution dissolved in Plasma.
When describing Haemoglobin-Oxygen equilibrium, the term "P50" indicates the Partial Pressure of Oxygen at which 50% of haemoglobin Oxygen binding sites are occupied.The smaller increase in PO2 required to increase Haemoglobin saturation (from 25% to 50%, and again from 50% to 75% saturation), indicates an increase in haemoglobin affinity for Oxygen, after one binding site is occupied.
As one Haemoglobin subunit releases O2, it and the other subunits adopt the Tense conformation & become less likely to bind another 02. This decreased affinity promotes Oxygen "unloading" where PO2 is low.High PCO2, acidity and/or temperature increases the affinity of Haemoglobin for Oxygen, and increases Oxygen loading.When describing Haemoglobin-Oxygen equilibrium, the term "P50 indicates the proportion of possible Haemoglobin binding sites bound to oxygen, at a Partial Pressure of Oxygen of 50 mmHg. Each Haemoglobin subunit binds O2.
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You dissolve 120 mmoles of glucose powder in a 100 mM solution of NaCl. What is the osmolarity(in mOsm) of the resulting solution?
The osmolarity of the resulting solution is 220 mOsm.
Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of osmotically active particles in a solution. To calculate osmolarity, we need to consider the number of moles of solute particles. In this case, glucose does not dissociate in solution, so it remains as a single solute particle. The NaCl, on the other hand, dissociates into two ions (Na+ and Cl-) per molecule.
The initial solution of NaCl has an osmolarity of 100 mOsm (since it is a 100 mM solution). When we dissolve 120 mmoles of glucose powder, it contributes an additional 120 mOsm. Therefore, the total osmolarity of the resulting solution is 220 mOsm.
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Question 1. It has been observed that an active pharmaceutical ingredient becomes less soluble in water as it changes to a less soluble polymorph in response to pressure. a) Discuss a suitable granulation process for this drug. b) Wet granulation usually involves a drying step to reduce the amount of moisture in the formulation. Discuss how drying is achieved using a fluidised bed dryer and its advantages over an oven tray dryer. c) Discuss the impact of the moisture content of air on a drying process. This should include how this could be controlled to ensure drying efficiency.
An active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) can become less soluble in water as it changes into a less soluble polymorph in response to pressure.
Granulation is the process of forming granules from powder. There are two types of granulation methods: Dry granulation and wet granulation. However, wet granulation is the most commonly used method for producing pharmaceutical granules. It involves mixing the drug powder with a liquid binder and drying the mixture to form granules. The impact of the moisture content of air on a drying process and how this could be controlled to ensure drying efficiency.The moisture content of air is critical in the drying process. Humidity affects the drying time, product quality, and energy consumption.
Moisture can also impact the stability of the drug formulation.To control the moisture content of the air, we must monitor the relative humidity and dew point of the air in the dryer. To ensure the drying process is efficient, the following methods can be employed: Control the airflow rate: Adjusting the air flow rate in the dryer to optimize the drying process. The rate of airflow is crucial to remove the evaporated moisture from the granules.Monitoring of temperature: Temperature can affect the moisture content of the air in the dryer. It is essential to control the temperature in the dryer to ensure that the process runs efficiently.
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Question 8 1.5 pts Dr Dajer's patient survived after the treatment. He was very confident in his diagnosis that the patient may have inhaled the liquid contrast ma v Ultimately Dr. Dajer determined that he should not v have ordered the original CT scan < Previous
Dr. Dajer's patient survived after treatment. The incorrect order for the original CT scan was determined as the contrast agent was used to enhance the image quality.
In the given statement, Dr. Dajer's patient survived after the treatment. He was very confident in his diagnosis that the patient may have inhaled the liquid contrast. Ultimately Dr. Dajer determined that he should not have ordered the original CT scan.
The term 'Contrast' refers to a substance that radiologists utilize in imaging scans of the human body to improve the quality of the resulting images. It does this by increasing the contrast between two adjacent tissues that would otherwise appear similar.
A contrast agent is used in medical imaging to improve the visibility of internal bodily structures. Contrast-enhanced imaging can be performed by radiography, CT scan, MRI, or even ultrasound. On the other hand, CT (Computed tomography) imaging uses X-rays to generate highly-detailed images of internal structures, allowing physicians to diagnose medical conditions.
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Describe a situation where utilizing predictive 1RM tests would
be applicable.
Predictive 1RM tests can be used in several situations, including creating training plans, tracking progress, and identifying strength imbalances.
However, a situation where utilizing predictive 1RM tests would be applicable is to determine the training intensity of a client who wants to increase their strength. A client wants to increase their strength, and you, as a trainer, want to determine the appropriate training intensity for them. To do this, you need to estimate the client's 1-rep max (1RM), which is the maximum weight they can lift for one repetition. However, testing a client's 1RM can be risky, especially if the client is new to lifting weights or lacks experience. So, in this situation, you can use predictive 1RM tests to estimate the client's 1RM. This test involves using a submaximal weight and calculating the predicted 1RM using an equation such as Epley's or Brzycki's formula. The result will give you a good idea of the client's strength level, which will help you design an appropriate training program that will help the client increase their strength while minimizing the risk of injury.
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Postmortem biochemistry and immunohistochemistry of adrenocorticotropic hormone with special regard to fatal hypothermia
Postmortem biochemistry and immunohistochemistry of adrenocorticotropic hormone with special regard to fatal hypothermia is a study that focuses on how the hormone levels change in fatal hypothermia.
In such conditions, the body tries to adjust by producing more adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This increase in ACTH levels can be detected postmortem through biochemistry and immunohistochemistry techniques. Postmortem biochemistry and immunohistochemistry of adrenocorticotropic hormone are useful in determining the cause of death in cases of fatal hypothermia. This study highlights how the hormone levels change in hypothermia and how the body tries to adjust to such conditions. The increase in ACTH levels in such cases can be detected postmortem through biochemistry and immunohistochemistry techniques. This information can be helpful in identifying the cause of death and determining the appropriate treatment for future cases of fatal hypothermia. Postmortem biochemistry and immunohistochemistry of adrenocorticotropic hormone is a study that focuses on how hormone levels change in fatal hypothermia.
The study highlights that the body tries to adjust to hypothermia by producing more adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which can be detected postmortem through biochemistry and immunohistochemistry techniques. This information is useful in identifying the cause of death in cases of fatal hypothermia and can help determine the appropriate treatment for future cases.
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If an embryo was lacking HOX genes many problems might happen including this….*
a)neural crest would not undergo EMT
b)neural progenitors would never form
c)neurons would not form axons
d)The rhombomeres would not form
Aquatic embryos have been useful for understanding human development because ...
a) scientists can test thousands of drugs at a time to find candidates that can alter basic processes such as cell division.
b) scientists can test mechanisms of placental development.
c) scientists can use these organisms to understand how humans may react to new therapies.
d) scientists can derive iPS in these organisms that are identical to human cells.
e) scientists can study the basic principles of development since most such principles are conserved across vertebrates.
f) a and e are correct
g) a and c are correct
h) d and b are correct
1 - If an embryo was lacking HOX genes, including many other issues, the neurons would not form axons. Here option C is the correct answer. Aquatic embryos have been useful for understanding human development because scientists can test thousands of drugs at a time to find candidates that can alter basic processes such as cell division. Here option A is the correct answer.
The HOX genes are a group of related genes that are arranged in a cluster on the same chromosome and play a crucial role in the development of the body's anterior-posterior axis. It determines the morphology of all body parts and organs along the axis. It plays a critical role in embryonic development by controlling the body plan's identity during early embryonic development.
Thus, if an embryo is lacking the HOX genes, the neural crest would not undergo EMT, neural progenitors would never form, the rhombomeres would not form, and the neurons would not form axons as well.
Aquatic embryos have been useful for understanding human development because scientists can study the basic principles of development since most such principles are conserved across vertebrates. Option (e) is correct.
An aquatic embryo is an organism that lives underwater during its developmental stages. Vertebrates are organisms that have a spine or spinal column. As a result, scientists can understand human development by studying aquatic embryos because they are both vertebrates and share many of the same developmental principles.
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Which of the following are examples of functions of proteins. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: O They give origin to steroid hormones. OThey serve as a structural components of the skin (collagen, elastin, keratin) OThey are precursors of prostaglandins. OThey serve as channels, pumps and receptors on cells. OThey influence blood osmolarity, blood viscosity, and blood pH OThey serve as enzymes in multiple metabolic pathways.
Options B, D, and F are the examples of functions of proteins.
Proteins perform a variety of functions within cells. Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids that fold into unique shapes, allowing them to carry out specific tasks. The following are examples of protein functions: They serve as a structural component of the skin (collagen, elastin, keratin).
They serve as channels, pumps, and receptors on cells. They serve as enzymes in multiple metabolic pathways. Therefore, options B, D, and F are the examples of functions of proteins.
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The soft palate is quite rigid and stays in one position at all
times.
true or false
The statement "The soft palate is quite rigid and stays in one position at all times" is FALSE.
The soft palate is located in the back of the roof of the mouth, just above the tongue. The soft palate is made up of muscle and connective tissue, and it is covered by a thin, moist membrane that produces mucus.
The soft palate serves a vital role in swallowing, breathing, and speech. The given statement is false because the soft palate is not rigid but soft and flexible. The soft palate, also known as the velum, can move and change its position based on the actions being performed by an individual.
For instance, during speech, the soft palate can move to create different speech sounds. When you swallow, the soft palate helps to prevent food and drink from entering the nasal cavity.
Similarly, while breathing, the soft palate moves to close off the nasal passages to ensure that air passes through the mouth. Therefore, the statement "The soft palate is quite rigid and stays in one position at all times" is FALSE.
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11 1 point Which of the following statements about urea is NOT true? ◯ All urea is immediately excreted ◯ Urea is toxic in high concentrations ◯ Urea recycling means that we can reabsorb some urea to drive the reabsorption of water ◯ None of the above are true Previous
Out of the following statements, the statement "All urea is immediately excreted" is NOT true.
Urea is a colorless organic compound with the chemical formula CO(NH₂)₂, a carbamide. It is a waste product produced by humans and many other mammals as a result of protein metabolism. The liver synthesizes urea as ammonia and carbon dioxide are transformed in the urea cycle. The urea then passes into the bloodstream and is removed from the body via urine by the kidneys.
The recycling of urea refers to the process by which we reabsorb some urea to facilitate the absorption of water. Urea is recycled in the urea cycle, which is a critical part of the mammalian liver's metabolism. This cycle helps to regulate the amount of urea that is produced in the liver and ultimately released into the bloodstream. Some urea is reabsorbed into the blood through the kidneys, which aids in the reabsorption of water. This mechanism is known as urea recycling.
Urea plays an important role in the human body. The primary function of urea is to eliminate excess nitrogen, which is produced as a result of protein metabolism. Excess nitrogen can be toxic to the human body, and urea provides a safe way to remove it. Urea is transported via the bloodstream to the kidneys, where it is excreted from the body as urine.
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When compared to a larger alveolus, a smaller alveolus will have:
1) higher rise of collapse due to surface tension
2) higher surface tension at gas-fluid interface
3) smaller contribution to dead space
The correct option is 3) smaller contribution to dead space. When comparing a smaller alveolus to a larger alveolus.
A smaller alveolus will have a higher risk of collapse due to surface tension. Surface tension is a force that acts to reduce the surface area of a liquid. Higher surface tension will be observed at the gas-fluid interface in smaller alveoli. The curvature of the alveoli contributes to higher surface tension, as mentioned earlier. The increased curvature leads to a higher concentration of molecules at the surface, resulting in stronger cohesive forces between the liquid molecules.
Smaller alveoli make a smaller contribution to dead space. Dead space refers to the portions of the respiratory system where gas exchange does not occur. It includes anatomical dead space (such as the trachea and bronchi) and physiological dead space (alveoli that are poorly perfused or not ventilated).
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Question 4 1 pts The biological conversion of biomass to liquid fuels using yeasts is called O anaerobic digestion O pyrolysis aerobic digestion fermentation
The biological conversion of biomass to liquid fuels using yeasts is called fermentation (Option D).
What is biomass?Biomass refers to any organic matter that has accumulated energy from the sun in the form of chemical bonds. As a result, plant materials and organic waste become valuable sources of energy through the process of converting biomass to biofuels.
Biomass is used to produce a variety of products, including liquid biofuels. Biofuels produced from biomass are generally derived from plant materials, such as crops, agricultural wastes, or wood. Biofuels can be used for energy, transportation fuels, or chemical production.
There are several methods for converting biomass into liquid fuels, including fermentation, anaerobic digestion, pyrolysis, and gasification. Fermentation is a process in which microorganisms, such as yeast or bacteria, break down organic materials to produce ethanol, butanol, or other chemicals.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Traumatic hemorrhage can result in: A. Acute Renal Failure B. Chronic Renal Failure (First Stage) C. Chronic Renal Failure (Second stage). D. Chronic Renal Failure (Third stage) E. Polycystic disease 34 3 points Reproduction is the process by which new individuals of a specie are produced and the genetic material is passed on from generation to generation A True B. False 35 a polnts Testosterone is produced by A Spermatozoa B. Sustentacular cells CLeydig cells D. Hypothalamus
The correct options are A. Acute Renal Failure
B. True
C. Leydig cells
Traumatic hemorrhage can result in: Acute Renal Failure. A. Acute Renal Failure
Reproduction is the process by which new individuals of a species are produced and the genetic material is passed on from generation to generation. This is a true statement.
Testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells. C. Leydig cells
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