which segment is parallel to JI?​

Answer:

the first on the top right next to c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: the answer is B hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

A zero is another word for an x-intercept, which is where the function crosses the x-axis on a graph. One way to find the x-intercept is by graphing the equation. I did so, and I found that the x-intercept of this function is x=5. I'll attach a photo of the function below.

Hope this helps! If you feel this helped, feel free to give me Brainliest. :)

Answer:

5.

Step-by-step explanation:

I graphed it on my calculator, and the x intercept of this function is x=5.

Given:

He has $20 to spend and the frogs cost $2.50 each.

To find:

The inequality to find how many frogs he can afford.

Solution:

Let x be the number of frogs he can afford.

Cost of one frog = $2.50

Cost of x frogs = $2.50x

He has $20 to spend. It means, the total cost, i.e., $2.50x, must be less than or equal to $20.

[tex]2.50x\leq 20[/tex]

Divide both sides by 2.50.

[tex]x\leq \dfrac{20}{2.50}[/tex]

[tex]x\leq 8[/tex]

Therefore, the maximum number of frogs he can afford is 8.

Answer:

1937cuz I'm smart andjsianeyeuaiwnebshzyaie

Answer: This maybe kind of hard for me because Im in the same grade im doing this same stuff but Id say it would haft to be if they charge 2.95 per video game then plus a 10 dollar membership free then plus those together? then divide that by 41.25. then write a inequality like Ill hink about it some more and come back to it....sorry Im confused

Answer:

the answer is B hope it helps

Answer:

Is this in Pearson Easybridge?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.00009090909

Step-by-step explanation

U just have to divide

Answer:

a=8m

Step-by-step explanation:

a²+b²=c²

where a= 6m,c=10m

6²+b²=10²

b²=100-36

b²=64

b=√64=8

Answer:

2. [tex]a=8[/tex] m

Step-by-step explanation:

Let [tex]a[/tex] = length of the remaining leg

[tex]6^2+a^2=10^2[/tex] (using the Pythagorean theorem)

[tex]36+a^2=100[/tex]

[tex]a^2=64[/tex]

[tex]a=\sqrt{64}[/tex]

[tex]=8[/tex] m

∴ The length of the remaining leg is [tex]8[/tex] m.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

x = -8 and BDC is 68 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine -7x+12 and -8x+48 to get -15x+60.  Since BDA is a straight angle put the above equation to get -15x+60=180.  Subtract 60 from both sides to get -15x=120.  Divide -15 both sides to get -8 as your x value.  Plug in -8 to BDC, since both negatives are being multiplied, it would turn to a positive number which is 56, add 12 to get 68 as your final result for BDC.

Answer:

[tex]x=1,-5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]We\ are\ given\ that,\\4x+5=x(x+8)\\Hence\ by\ expanding\ the\ terms,\\4x+5=x^2+8x\\Hence\ by\ moving\ 4x\ and\ 5 to\ the\ RHS\ ,\\0=x^2+8x-4x-5\\Hence\ by\ simplifying\ the\ RHS,\\0=x^2+4x-5\\Now,\\We\ take\ a\ closer\ look\ at\ the\ RHS,\\x^2+4x-5\ can\ also\ be\ written\ as:\\=x^2+5x-x-5\\Now, By\ factorizing,\\x(x+5)-1(x+5)\\=(x-1)(x+5)\\Hence,\\(x-1)(x+5)=0\\Now,\\To\ nullify\ the\ LHS\ to\ 0,\ either\ the\ term\ (x-1)\ or/and\ (x+5)\ should\ equate\ to\ 0.\\Hence,\\x-1=0\\[/tex][tex]x=1\ is\ our\ first\ solution\\(x+5)=0\\x=-5\ is\ our\ second\ solution\\Hence,\\x=1,-5[/tex]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

it will take Eric 7 1/2 hours to make it 20 miles and it will take Jesus 10 hours to make it 20 miles so it will take them 8 hours I think

The required factorization of the expession 5p³ – 10p² + 3p - 6 is [5p² + 3 ] [p - 6].

An expression 5p3 – 10p2 + 3p - 6 is given, To factorize the expression 5p3 – 10p2 + 3p - 6.

The process in mathematics to operate and interpret the function to make the function or expression simple or more understandable is called simplifying and the process is called simplification.

factors can be defined by splitting the value into multipliable values.

Here,
= 5p³ – 10p² + 3p - 6
Factorization,
= 5p² [p - 10] + 3 [p - 6]
= [5p² + 3 ] [p - 6]

Thus, the required factorization of the expession 5p³ – 10p² + 3p - 6 is [5p² + 3 ] [p - 6].

Learn more about simplification here: https://brainly.com/question/12501526

#SPJ2

Given :

A stack of 500 pieces of paper is 1.654 inches tall.

Mulan guesses that each piece of paper is 0.045 inches thick.

To Find :

The actual thickness of paper and how is Mulan's answer is incorrect.

Solution :

Let, actual thickness is t.

So,

[tex]t = \dfrac{1.654}{500}\ inches\\\\t = 0.003308\ inches[/tex]

So, actual thickness is 0.003308 inches.

Therefore, the Mulan's answer is incorrect.

Answer:

-10240

Step-by-step explanation:

-2.5, -10, -40, -160, -640, -2560, -10240

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

3:5 = 12:20 because 12 divided by 4 = 3 and 20 divided by 4 = 5

Answer:

60 percent were satisfied

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

By the definition of the logarithm, if we have:

[tex]y=\log_{2}x[/tex]

This means that we have some value y such that:

[tex]\displaystyle 2^y=x[/tex]

If x is -8, then:

[tex]2^y=-8[/tex]

As you can see, there is no real value* that can make the result negative. No matter what the value of y is, we will simply get another positive value.

So, -8 or any other negative value or zero is not included in our domain. 0 is not included because, likewise, we can’t raise 2 to a power and get 0 as a result.

*There is no real value for which 2 raised to y is -8. However, as you will learn much much later, there are in fact infinitely many complex (imaginary) solutions such that 2 raised to y is indeed -8.

Step-by-step explanation:

sinA = perp/base

sinA = 5/12

TanA = perp/base = 5/12

Answer: 2 < x < 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

u = -144

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define equation

-24 = u/6

Step 2: Solve for u

Step 3: Check

Plug in u into the original equation to verify it's a solution.

Here we see that -24 does indeed equal -24.

∴ u = -144 is a solution of the equation.

Answer:

x = -2 and x = 5/4

Step-by-step explanation:

The image below shows step-by-step on how to solve it.

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

i gotchu anytime fam

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Your answer would be y = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Both have the same y-axis

Answer:

Number of more red cup = 1.5 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Number of white cup = 4

Number of red cup = 6

Number of more white cup = 1

Find:

Number of more red cup

Computation:

Number of more red cup = Number of more white cup x [Number of red cup / Number of white cup]

Number of more red cup = 1 [6/4]

Number of more red cup = 1.5 cups