Answer:
Because they are born with a mutation in their DNA repair system and they cannot repair DNA that is mutated by UV radiation.
true or false? indirect costs are those that cannot be tied to any patient care service line.
Indirect costs are those that cannot be tied to any patient care service line. This statement is true.
Indirect costs are those that are unrelated to patient care. General administration, health records, information technology, physical plant and maintenance, human resources, volunteer services, capital expenses, and other regional services are examples of indirect costs.
The term indirect costs has come to mean the expenses incurred as a result of the cessation or reduction of work productivity caused by the morbidity and mortality associated with a given disease. Indirect costs typically include job loss, worker replacement, and decreased productivity due to illness and disease.
Indirect costs include overhead expenses (such as rent and utilities) as well as general and administrative expenses (such as officers' salaries, accounting department costs, and personnel department costs).
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If a new disease enters an area and only impacts repeat breeders of a species that has both semelparous and iteroparous individuals, we may suspect what will increase in a population:
The Suspect's population increase is semelparous.
SEMELPAROUS
A species is semelparous if it has a single reproductive event prior to death, whereas it is iteroparous if it has several reproductive cycles over its lifetime.
Semelparous refers to organisms that reproduce once in their lifetime. Some examples are terrible, such as female praying mantises devouring their mates following fertilization of their eggs. Others are victories of tenacity, such as spawning salmon utilizing their last remaining energy to run up their natal rivers and spawn.
In semelparity, a member of a species only reproduces once and then dies. Species exhibiting this pattern exhaust the majority of their resource budget during a single reproductive event, hence jeopardizing their survival.
The benefit of semelparity is that it permits an organism to invest maximally in reproduction, resulting in larger clutch sizes, more parental investment, or shorter generation durations.
If adult mortality in the iteroparous population is 30% per year, the average individual will generate 340 seeds over its lifespan, which is greater than in the semelparous population. In populations whose mortality is sufficiently high, semelparity will be favored above iteroparity.
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When the next human influenza pandemic strikes, it will almost certainly involve which other group of animals?.
From the historical influenza pandemic that occurred in the past, the animal group which will be the host and carrier will most likely be coming from avian and mammal group of animals.
Learning from the 1918 Spanish influenza pandemic caused by H1N1 virus in which avian group of animals were the hosts and carrier, in the case of Spanish influenza pandemic, started from wild waterfowl animals such as ducks and goose. We can also learn from the 2003 SARS pandemic which was caused by SARS-CoV-1 virus, that the hosts and carriers were poultry animals, and from 2009 H1N1 pandemic which was caused by MERS-CoV virus, it was mammals such as pigs. Recently from the 2020 Covid-19 pandemic, the virus responsible was SARS-CoV-2, which was believed to be originated from mammals predominantly bats.
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true or false: in the video/transcript case about breast cancer testing, sara altschule received her genetic test prior to having any symptoms of breast cancer (or any other disease); this would be considered presymptomatic/predictive testing.
True in the video/transcript case about breast cancer testing, sara Altschule received her genetic test prior to having any symptoms of breast cancer (or any other disease); this would be considered presymptomatic or predictive testing.
Which of the following offers a presymptomatic test example?Presymptomatic testing is frequently used to diagnose diseases like Huntington's. Predictive testing is a necessary option to validate the heritability of this mutant gene if the individual's family has a history of a known genetic condition and the faulty gene that causes that condition is known.
What exactly is genetic predictive testing?Genetic mutations or changes that are connected to disease are looked for during predictive genetic testing.
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After an accident, David has trouble moving his right arm and feeling things with his right fingers. The doctor tells him this is due to brain damage in two specific areas of his cerebral cortex.
a. Which hemisphere is David’s brain damage likely to be?
b. In what two specific areas of the cortex is the damage likely to be located?
David's brain damage is likely to be in the left hemisphere. The two specific areas of the cortex that are likely to be damaged are the motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex.
What is brain damage?
Both traumatic injuries, like those sustained in falls or car accidents, and nontraumatic, acquired injuries, like strokes, can result in brain damage. The brain does not heal completely on its own like a cut or other physical injury does. Following brain damage, a person's ability to recover and resume normal functioning depends on the nature of the injury and their symptoms. The common types, induces, symptoms, as well as treatments of brain injury will be covered in this article. Traumatic and acquired brain damage are typically separated into separate categories by doctors. Traumatic brain injuries happen when the brain is damaged by a blow, violent shaking, as well as strong rotation to the head.
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which of the following statements is correct? chose the best answer. aldosterone is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood.
Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex's zona glomerulosa that influences water and salt regulation in the body. The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones (the outer layer of the adrenal gland). It regulates the water and salt balance in the kidney by keeping sodium in and releasing potassium from the body. Excess aldosterone can result in high blood pressure and fluid buildup in body tissues.
The kidney's sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion are both increased by aldosterone. It primarily affects sodium and potassium balance by binding to the mineralocorticoid receptor (MCR) in the kidney's distal convoluted tubule, connecting segment, and cortical collecting duct.
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Histamine receptor blockers are a widely used drug. What effects would you expect in a person taking this drug?.
Answer: The side effects aren't that big and they are uncommon but they include diarrhea, constipation, fatigue, drowsiness, headache, and muscle aches.
Explanation: I hope this helps!!!!!
Yoa Li is receiving analgesia via PCA. Which of the following statements describes
why this form of analgesia delivery was an appropriate choice for him? (Select all
that apply.)
Yoa Li has the ability to understand teaching related to use of a PCA.
PCA provides Yoa Li with a sense of control over his own pain management.
He can tailor frequency of medication to his individual pain tolerance.
Yoa Li is receiving analgesia via PCA:
Yoa Li has the capacity to comprehend instruction regarding the use of a PCA.
Yoa Li feels like he has control of his own pain management thanks to PCA.
He can adjust the dosage frequency to fit his personal pain threshold.
What is analgesia?
Any medication used to relieve pain is referred to as an analgesic drug, also known as a simple analgesic (American English), an analgaesic (British English), pain reliever, as well as painkiller (that is, analgesia or pain management). Usually, it is employed to encourage cooperation during a medical procedure. Although analgesia and anaesthesia are neurophysiologically similar and therefore various drugs both have analgesic and anaesthetic effects, anaesthetics conceptually differ from those that temporarily reduce, and in some cases eliminate, sensation. The type of pain also affects the choice of analgesic: Traditional analgesics are less effective in treating neuropathic pain, and classes of medications like tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants—which are not typically thought of as analgesics—often provide relief.
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The category of contraception that only protects against unplanned pregnancies and not stds and hiv/aids is ?.
The category of birth control that does not prevent stds, HIV/aids, or planned pregnancies is: Hormonal.
What is HIV?The immune system of the organism is attacked by the HIV (human immunodeficiency virus). HIV can cause AIDS if it is not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). Currently, there is no cure that works well. Once someone contracts HIV, they will always have it. HIV can be managed by the right medical care.The immune system is attacked by the HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). (The immune system defends against illnesses and infections in a person's body.) HIV gradually weakens a person's immune system, making it more difficult for it to fight against infections. HIV results in AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).Early HIV symptoms typically appear a few weeks to a month or two after infection and resemble the flu in many cases.
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client fell and fractured her hip. besides the fall, which progressive pathophysiological process should the nurse expect contributes to the cause of this fracture?
The nurse should anticipate a developing pathophysiological process that contributes to the pathogenesis of this fracture, including increased osteoclast production with reduced apoptosis.
What exactly are osteoblasts?The osteoclasts are the cells that break down bone to start the normal rebuilding of bone and mediate bone resorption in pathologic situations by raising their resorptive activity. After developing in the bone marrow, they are produced from myeloid/monocyte lineage progenitors that circulate in the circulation.
How does an osteoclast function?In a process known as bone resorption, the osteoclast breaks down and digests the mixture of hydrated protein and mineral at the molecular level by secreting an acid and a collagenase. The level of calcium absorption is likewise managed by this process.
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the nurse has read in a client's admission record that the client has been taking propranolol for psychiatric, rather than medical, reasons. the nurse should recognize that the client likely has a history of which mental health condition?
The client most certainly has a history of Panic disorder, and the nurse should be aware of this.
Which class of drugs have been used to treat social anxiety?Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are typically the first type of medication tried for social anxiety symptoms that don't go away, even though there are many alternative types of medications. Your doctor might advise paroxetine (Paxil) or sertraline (Zoloft).
What are the three treatments available for phobia sufferers?Psychotherapy. By consulting a mental health professional, you can more effectively manage your specific phobia. Exposure therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy are the most effective treatments. Exposure therapy aims to change your response to the situation or thing that makes you anxious.
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the nurse is working with a colleague who has a delayed hypersensitivity (type iv) allergic reaction to latex. which statement describes the clinical manifestations of this reaction?
Localized to the exposure site, clinical symptoms indicate a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. By switching glove brands or utilizing powder-free gloves, the clinical symptoms of an irritating contact dermatitis can be cured.
What kind of thing exemplifies hypersensitivity?Anaphylactic shock, allergic conjunctivitis, allergic rhinitis, allergic dermatitis, and bronchial asthma are all examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions. Due to the possibility of rapid, fatal respiratory collapse, anaphylaxis is a medical emergency. The process is one that is IgE-mediated.
When it becomes oversensitive, what happens?When the body responds to an antigen in a needless and unfavorable way, it is said to have experienced a hypersensitive reaction. The term "hypersensitivity" is frequently used to describe an allergy.
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which nursing intervention is appropriate for an adolescent boy with unilateral breast enlargement?
Answer: Assuring that the situation is only temporary
Explanation:
an elderly individual has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 ml. what is their cardiac output?
An older person with a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 ml will have a cardiac output of 4000 mL per minute.
What is cardiac output?Cardiac output (CO), the volume of blood the heart pumps each minute, is the process through which blood circulates throughout the body, particularly supplying the brain and other crucial organs with blood flow. Cardiac output, which is determined by the heart's pace, contractility, preload, and afterload, is the volume of blood it can pump in a minute. When evaluating cardiac output numbers, it's crucial to comprehend how each of these four components applies and how it relates to everyday life. Heartbeats per minute (bpm) and stroke volume are combined to create cardiac output (CO), which is the quantity of blood the heart pumps out each minute (mL).
Here,
The heart rate of elderly individual= 80 beats/minute
The stroke volume= 50 mL/beat
The cardiac output,
=heart rate*stroke volume
=80*50
=4000 mL/minute
The cardiac output will be 4000 mL/minute when an elderly individual has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 ml.
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a client receives tube feedings after an oral surgery. the nurse manages tube feedings to minimize the risk of aspiration. which measure should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce the risk of aspiration?
The measures to be included in care plan to reduce the risk of aspiration during tube feedings after an oral surgery are: using semi-Fowler position during, and 60 minutes after, the intermittent feeding.
Aspiration is the accidental condition where the food or fluids are breathed in the lungs. Thus leads to conditions like pneumonia or any other serious disease. The general symptoms of this is heartburn. It is more common in older adults, children and patients who have undergone some surgery.
Semi-Fowler position is when the body is at a position of 30° head-of-bed elevation. It is used when the patient faces difficulty breathing or is undergoing breathing treatments.
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the brachial plexus originates from the (fill in the blank) roots. group of answer choices :a) c5-t1 b) c1-c4 c) c1-t1 d) c4-t1
The brachial plexus originates from the c5-t1 roots.
The brachial plexus may be a network of nerves within the shoulder that carries movement and sensory signals from the neural structure to the arms and hands. Injury to the present network of nerves usually happens once your arm is forcibly force or stretched or your head and neck are forcibly force off from your shoulder.
The brachial plexus passes from the neck to the axillary cavity and provides the higher limb. It's fashioned from the ventral rami of the fifth (C5)to eighth cervical nerves and therefore the ascending a part of the ventral os of the first spinal nerve (T1).
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a client with a history of intimate partner violence has been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder. the client is wholly unwilling to discuss any aspects of personal history or current mental status with the nurse. what is the nurse's best initial action?
Making an attempt to show the client empathy is the nurse's best initial course of action.
Which sign of post-traumatic stress disorder would the nurse evaluate in a patient?Re-experiencing, avoidance, persistently negative cognitions and mood shifts, and changes in arousal and activity are the four types of symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis to be made.
What method of PTSD treatment is most effective, and why?The most successful method of treating PTSD, both in the short and long terms, has been proven to be cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Trauma-focused CBT for PTSD puts the traumatic event(s) at the forefront of the therapeutic process.
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the nurse interprets which finding as an early sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ards) in a client at risk?
A hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy is a finding as an early sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome in a client at risk. So the correct option is B.
What is acute respiratory distress syndrome?It is an inflammatory lung disease that will increase the vascular permeability of the lung and decrease the percentage of lung that will be aerated.
Among its characteristics is that there will be hypoxemia (main symptom), decreased compliance, an increase in pulmonary shunt, and there will be more physiological dead space.
If there is no response to oxygen therapy, it tells us that the patient could have ARDS, this is because despite the fact that a lot of oxygen is put in, since there is not the same percentage of aerated lung, less oxygen absorption will be generated.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is B. hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy.
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The nurse interprets which finding as an early sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a client at risk?
A. elevated carbon dioxide level
B. hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy
C. metabolic acidosis
D. sever, unexplained electrolyte imbalance
The age of an ancient artifact can be determined by the amount of radioactive carbon 14 remaining in it. If D0 is the orginal amount of carbon 14 and D is the amount remaining, then the artifacts age A (in years) is given by
A= -8267ln (D/D0)
Find the age of an object if the amount D of carbon-14 that remains in the object is 74% of the original amount D 0.
(Hint: If 74% remains, then the ratio D/Do=.74)
Which is the answer??
A. approx. 2700 years
B. approx. 2900 years
C. approx. 2200 years
D. approx. 2500 years
E. approx. 2400 years
Answer:
D. approx. 2500 years
Explanation:
The age of an ancient artifact can be determined by the amount of radioactive carbon 14 remaining in it. The nearest year, the age of the object is approximately 2500 years. the correct answer is D
To find the age of the object using the given equation A = -8267 ln(D/Do), where A is the age in years, D is the remaining amount of carbon-14, and Do is the original amount of carbon-14, we need to substitute the given value of D/Do.
The question states that D/Do = 0.74, which means that 74% of the original amount remains.
Now we can substitute this value into the equation:
A = -8267 ln(0.74)
To find the value of A, we can use a calculator to evaluate the natural logarithm (ln) of 0.74 and then multiply it by -8267.
A ≈ -8267 ln(0.74)
A ≈ -8267 * (-0.301)
A ≈ 2493.967
Rounding to the nearest year, the age of the object is approximately 2500 years.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. approx. 2500 years.
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chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that targets prokaryotic (70s) ribosomes but not eukaryotic (80s) ribosomes. which of these questions stems from this observation plus an understanding of eukaryotic origins?
Questions stemming from the observation plus an understanding of eukaryotic origins is "Can chloramphenicol pass through the capsules possessed by many cyanobacteria?". The correct answer should be B but you can adjust to the question you are working on.
What is cyanobacteria?Cyanobacteria are one example of a prokaryotic cell. They were thought to be blue-green algae and classified as photosynthetic until it was discovered that they lacked a membrane-bound nucleus and chloroplasts. They are the biggest prokaryotic creatures, with sizes ranging from 0.5 to 60 micrometers. In the question, it was stated that chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that only targets prokaryotic ribosomes and does not affect eukaryotic ribosomes. Hence, the chloramphenicol also targets the cyanobacteria. The chosen question above is stemming the observation and also an understanding of eukaryotic origins.
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which parameter is important for a nurse to monitor when titrating nitroglycerin in a patient
The parameters important for a nurse to monitor when titrating nitroglycerin in a patient are:
B) continuous blood pressure
D) presence of chest pain
Nitroglycerin, chemically is 1,2,3-trinitroxypropane. It is a colorless, oily and explosive liquid. It is administered in the form of medication in order to treat chest pain in patients suffering for Coronary Artery Disease.
Blood pressure is the force with which the heart pumps blood into the blood capillaries so that it reaches the whole body. There are 2 forms of blood pressure: systolic and diastolic. The average blood pressure of a healthy adult human is 120/80.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which parameter is important for a nurse to monitor when titrating nitroglycerin in a patient?
A) continuous oxygen saturation
B) continuous blood pressure
C) hourly electrocardiograms
D) presence of chest pain
E) serum nitroglycerin levels
F) visual acuity
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there is a distinct characteristic that separates vitamins a, d, e, k from vitamins c and b-complex, what is it? if you were to take a multivitamin, why are these differences relevant? (2 points)
A vitamin is a vital micronutrient needed for the body to function properly. if you were to take a multivitamin .
What sets vitamins B and C apart from vitamins A, D, E, and K?A, D, E, and K are the four fat-soluble vitamins. The body can absorb these vitamins more easily when there is dietary fat available. Water-soluble vitamins aren't stored by the body.
What traits do vitamins B and C possess?B-complex vitamins and vitamin C are water-soluble vitamins that must be ingested daily because they cannot be stored by the body. During food preparation and storage, certain vitamins are easily damaged or removed.
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Place the clinical progression of rheumatoid arthritis in order of occurrence in the disease process.
Joint deformities occur.
Synovial inflammation and lymphocytes increase.
Inflamed pannus destroys bone and bone edges.
Articular cartilage destruction causes growth of vascular granulation tissue.
According to the research, the correct clinical progression of rheumatoid arthritis in order of occurrence in the disease process is the following:
Synovial inflammation and lymphocytes increase.Articular cartilage destruction causes growth of vascular granulation tissue.Inflamed pannus destroys bone and bone edges.Joint deformities occur.What is rheumatoid arthritis?It is a chronic disease of autoimmune origin, which causes inflammation of the synovial membrane of the joints, causing pain, deformity and difficulty in movement.
In this sense, the disease usually begins slowly with increased synovial fluid volume, joint cartilage erosion, leading to pannus formation, bone erosion, and finally the appearance of deformities.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease whose persistent inflammation can end up damaging the bones, ligaments and tendons.
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the mother of a 9-year-old child who is 5 feet 1 inch (155 cm) in height asks a nurse about car safety seats. what should the nurse tell the mother to use?
Required to be manufactured with a maximum outward extension of 1.2 inches from the seat bight. Passenger safety restraint for children.
Which nursing guidance is suitable for parents of a child having sleep issues?Which nursing guidance is suitable for parents of a child having sleep issues? At bedtime, use a transitional item. (Transitional items could help the toddler relax and fall asleep. Toddlers will sleep better if they have a series of rituals that they follow every night.
What is the best strategy to encourage young children's healthy brain development?By talking to, playing with, and taking care of their child, parents and other caregivers can promote healthy brain development. When parents take turns speaking and playing with their kids, they help them learn the most.
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the nurse is caring for an elderly client with a respiratory infection. while reviewing age-related changes in the immune system, the nurse identifies which factor as having contributed to this client's infection?
The nurse identifies impaired ciliary action from exposure to environmental toxins as having contributed to this client's infection.
The immune system deteriorates with age in the ways listed below: The immune system loses its capacity to tell oneself apart from oneself. autoimmune disorders as a result.
The ability of naive B and T cells migrating from the bone marrow and thymus to lodge in the tissue may be compromised by the increased number of memory cells that occupy tissue niches and the inflammatory milieu. Age-related immune function declines as a result of all these changes.
The immune system loses its capacity to distinguish between foreign invaders and healthy tissues as a person ages.
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What is the standardized order of information on OTC drug labels?.
The standardized order of information on OTC drug labels is the amount of each dosage unit's active components in the product. The product's intended use. The product's applications (indications).
The final line, is that when people utilise over-the-counter medications to cure or relieve symptoms, they feel better and are able to be more productive.
What is OTC drug?
Without a prescription, over-the-counter (OTC) medications are those that can be marketed directly to consumers. OTC medications can be used to treat a wide range of conditions and symptoms, include pain, colds and the flu, diarrhoea, diarrhea, acne, and more.
Non-prescription or over-the-counter (OTC) medications are those that you can purchase without a prescription. They can be used at home to address minor health issues. Acetaminophen, aspirin, antacids, decongestants, antihistamines, and laxatives are a few instances of over-the-counter medications.
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the nurse is conducting a comprehensive assessment on a school-age child. which parent statement would suggest to the nurse that a child may have celiac disease?
As soon as a newborn begins eating solid foods like cereal, they may begin to exhibit the earliest symptoms of celiac disease. Diarrhea, stomach pain, and a lack of healthy weight gain are a few warning signs.
What are the four most typical signs of celiac disease in children?Diarrhea, loss of appetite, bloating and stomach pain, stunted growth, and weight loss are all typical signs of celiac disease. When children are between the ages of 6 months and 2 years old, when they typically experience gluten in food for the first time, many of them are diagnosed with it.
What causes childhood celiac disease?A genetic, autoimmune digestive disorder called celiac disease harms the small intestine and prevents nutrients from food from being absorbed.
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a nurse reading a sigmoidoscopy report notes that a client was found to have skip lesions. the nurse interprets this as an indication of:
The nurse interprets this as an indication of Crohn's disease. A skip lesion is an inflammation or wound that is visibly spotty and "skips" parts that are unaffected. It is a typical form of damage to intestines in case of Crohn's disease.
What is sigmoidoscopy?A sigmoidoscopy is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the lower portion of the colon or large intestine, known as the sigmoid colon. A flexible sigmoidoscopy exam can confirm the presence of inflammation, the cause of bleeding, the diagnosis of ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease in the lower region of the colon.
What is Crohn's disease?It is a type of Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). It causes the tissues in digestive tract to swell up (inflammation), which can cause abdominal pain, severe diarrhea, exhaustion, weight loss, and malnutrition.
In Crohn's disease, a patient may experience inflammation in several parts of his/her gastrointestinal tract, most frequently the small intestine. This inflammation frequently penetrates the innermost layers of the bowel.
There is no proven treatment for Crohn's disease. However, proper medications can significantly lessen its signs and symptoms.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding fiber intake among Americans?
A. Soluble fiber is less beneficial since it readily dissolves in fluids.
B. Fiber is added to many processed foods to increase consumption.
C. Few Americans consume the recommended amount of fiber on a daily basis.
D. Health claims about fiber have been refuted by the Food and Drug Administration.
Few Americans consume the recommended amount of fiber on a daily basis. Women should consume 25 grams of fiber everyday and men 38 grams. On average, American adults eat 10 to 15 grams of total fiber per day.
Why are fibers important in diet?Fiber helps control how the body uses glucose, which in turn helps to keep hunger at bay and maintain stable blood sugar levels. In order to maintain excellent health, children and adults require at least 25 to 35 grams of fiber per day, but the majority of Americans only consume approximately 15 grams per day. Complete grains, fruits and vegetables in their whole form, legumes, and nuts are all excellent sources.
Women should aim to consume 25 grams of fiber per day, while men should aim to consume 38 grams. This is the recommended daily amount of fiber intake for persons under the age of 50. Adults in the United States consume 10 to 15 grams of total fiber on a daily basis, on average.
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antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to the fact that which of the following may occur? select all that apply. • Fetal hypothyroidism• Fetal bradycardia• Goiter• Cretinism
Due to fetal hypothyroidism, goiter, and cretinism, anti-thyroid medications are contraindicated during late pregnancy.
Which thyroid medication should not be used during pregnancy?Radioiodine therapy is not recommended during pregnancy or breastfeeding. All ant thyroid medications may be given to nursing mothers during the postpartum period, but MMI should be used because PTU may cause hepatotoxicity in either the mother or the child.
Why is a thyroidectomy not recommended for pregnant women?The risk of fetal loss and the risk of uncontrolled maternal hyperthyroidism must be balanced before deciding when to perform the thyroidectomy.A high risk of spontaneous abortion is linked to surgery during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
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