Word associations "heliotrope rash (purplish rash on the eyelids) related to the autoimmune disease dermatomyositis.
The heliotrope rash is a purplish rash on the eyelids that is often associated with dermatomyositis, an inflammatory muscle disease. Dermatomyositis is an uncommon inflammatory disease marked by muscle weakness and a distinctive skin rash. Some related terms include inflammation, autoimmune disorder, skin rash, and periorbital edema. This condition can cause a purplish rash on the eyelids, as well as muscle weakness and inflammation in other parts of the body.
Thus, a reddish-purple eruption on the upper eyelid (the heliotrope rash), accompanied by swelling of the eyelid in a patient with dermatomyositis (DM). This is the most specific rash in DM, although it is only present in a minority of patients.
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State whether each drug is indicated in patients who also have heart failure
ACE-I/ARBs
CCBs
BBs
ACE-I/ARBs are indicated in patients who also have heart failure.
CCBs and BBs may be indicated in patients who also have heart failure, depending on their specific medical condition and symptoms.
ACE-I/ARBs: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE-I) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are two classes of drugs used to treat hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions. They work by inhibiting the actions of angiotensin II, a hormone that constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure, and by promoting vasodilation and reducing salt and water retention. ACE-I/ARBs are first-line therapies for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and are recommended by guidelines as they improve symptoms, reduce hospitalizations, and increase survival.
CCBs: Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are a class of drugs that reduce the entry of calcium into the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels and the heart, resulting in vasodilation and decreased contractility. They are used to treat hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. Some CCBs (dihydropyridines) may be used in patients with heart failure and preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) to reduce symptoms, but others (non-dihydropyridines) are generally not recommended due to their negative inotropic effects.
BBs: Beta blockers (BBs) are a class of drugs that block the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart and blood vessels, leading to reduced heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure. They are used to treat hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, and heart failure. BBs are recommended for all patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) as they improve symptoms, reduce hospitalizations, and increase survival. However, they may not be indicated in some patients with HFpEF or comorbidities such as asthma, bradycardia, or heart block.
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CT scan shows numerous punctate hemorrhages with blurring of grey-white interface --> dx?
If CT scan shows numerous punctate hemorrhages with blurring of grey-white interface, it shows diffuse axonal injury.
A blunt brain injury can cause a traumatic brain injury (TBI) known as diffuse axonal injury (DAI). Traumatic brain injury is the primary cause of death and disability among children and young people in the United States.
There are some people who may be able to recover from a diffuse axonal brain injury, but there are no assurances with such injuries.
Diffuse axonal injury is a traumatic deceleration injury to the brain that will cause numerous minute punctate hemorrhages and blurring of the grey-white matter junction on CT.
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When are alcohol withdrawal seizures most likely to occur?
Alcohol withdrawal seizures typically occur within 24 to 48 hours after the last drink. This is because the body has become dependent on the alcohol and when it is suddenly removed from the body, it can cause a sudden change in the body's chemistry.
This sudden change can cause seizures, which can range from mild to severe. Seizures can also occur if the individual has been drinking heavily for an extended period of time and then suddenly stops drinking.
Seizures can be a sign of alcohol withdrawal syndrome and should be taken seriously. If an individual is experiencing seizures, they should seek medical attention immediately.
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when caring for a resident who is comatose, the nurse aide is expected to
When caring for a resident who is comatose, the nurse aide is expected to: provide comprehensive care to ensure the resident's comfort and dignity.
The nurse aide should monitor vital signs, observe the resident's response to stimuli, provide oral hygiene, assist with range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures, and assist with elimination needs.
The nurse aide should also turn and reposition the resident frequently to prevent pressure ulcers, keep the resident's skin clean and dry, and use protective padding as needed.
If the resident has a feeding tube, the nurse aide should monitor the tube's placement and flush the tube as ordered.
The nurse aide should communicate with the resident, speak to them in a calm, reassuring tone, and provide comfort measures such as dimming the lights or playing soothing music.
The nurse aide should also communicate with the resident's family, providing updates on the resident's condition and offering support and comfort.
Overall, the nurse aide should provide compassionate care and advocate for the resident's well-being.
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78 y/o lady is brought in from her nursing home for altered mental status. She sleeps more during the day and becomes agitated at night- reporting seeing green men in the corner. She also complains of pain upon urination. First step?
The first step in evaluating this 78-year-old lady with altered mental status and urinary pain would be to perform a thorough physical and neurological examination, including an assessment of her vital signs and mental status.
Additionally, a urine sample should be obtained for analysis to check for any urinary tract infections or other possible causes of her urinary pain. Depending on the results of these initial evaluations, further testing and treatment may be necessary. It is also important to consider any medications she may be taking and any recent changes in her medical history that could be contributing to her symptoms.
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ACS treated with medical therapy and angioplasty but is not getting better --> Next step in management?
If a patient with ACS (acute coronary syndrome) is not responding to medical therapy and angioplasty, the next step in management would be to consider other interventions such as coronary artery bypass surgery or the use of other medications.
It is important to evaluate the patient thoroughly and consider their medical history, as well as any comorbidities they may have, to determine the best course of action. This may involve consulting with a specialist, such as a cardiologist, to determine the most appropriate treatment plan. It is also important to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate follow-up care and that their condition is closely monitored to prevent any further complications.
Overall, the management of ACS requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of the patient, and involves close collaboration between the patient, their healthcare provider, and any other specialists involved in their care of angioplasty.
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If second premolar is missing, what do you do for tx?
If a second premolar is missing, the appropriate treatment (tx) depends on the specific circumstances. Generally, there are three main options for replacing a missing premolar: dental implants, dental bridges, or removable partial dentures.
1. Dental Implants: This is a long-lasting solution where a titanium post is implanted into the jawbone, which then fuses with the bone through a process called osseointegration. An artificial tooth, designed to match the appearance of your natural teeth, is attached to the implant. 2. Dental Bridges: A bridge is a fixed dental restoration that replaces the missing premolar by utilizing the adjacent teeth as support. These neighboring teeth are prepared, and crowns are placed on them. An artificial tooth (pontic) is then attached to the crowns, filling the gap left by the missing premolar. 3. Removable Partial Dentures: This option uses a custom-made dental appliance that can be taken in and out of the mouth. The partial denture consists of a plastic or metal framework with an artificial tooth attached, which is held in place by clasps that grip the neighboring teeth.
Consultation with a dental professional is essential to determine the most suitable treatment option for the missing second premolar. Factors such as the patient's age, oral health, bone structure, and personal preferences must be taken into account to ensure the best outcome.
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a project that has several near-critical or critical paths is said to be
Managing a complex project with multiple critical paths requires careful planning, scheduling, and monitoring
What are the potential risks associated with a project that has several near-critical or critical paths, and how can a project manager effectively manage these paths to ensure project success?A project that has several near-critical or critical paths is said to be complex. In project management, a critical path refers to the sequence of project activities that must be completed on time to ensure the project's overall completion within the specified timeframe. The critical path method (CPM) is a project management tool used to identify the critical path and determine the minimum time required for project completion.
When a project has multiple near-critical or critical paths, it means that there are several sequences of activities that are equally important for the project's success and must be completed on time. This can make the project more complex and difficult to manage, as delays in any of the critical paths can have a significant impact on the overall project timeline.
Managing a complex project with multiple critical paths requires careful planning, scheduling, and monitoring to ensure that all activities are completed on time and that any delays are identified and addressed quickly to minimize their impact on the project timeline.
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Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) products commonly come in all the following forms EXCEPT a. gum b. injections c. hand d. gel. e. patches
The Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is a method used to help people quit smoking by providing them with controlled amounts of nicotine without the harmful substances found in tobacco. This aids in reducing withdrawal symptoms and cravings.
The NRT products come in various forms to suit individual preferences, but there is one form mentioned that is not commonly used. Gum: Nicotine gum provides a controlled dose of nicotine that is absorbed through the lining of the mouth when chewed. d Gel: Nicotine gels are applied to the skin, allowing nicotine to be absorbed through the skin and into the bloodstream. e. Patches: Nicotine patches are applied to the skin, and they release a steady dose of nicotine into the bloodstream throughout the day. The form that is NOT commonly used as an NRT product is: b. Injections: There are no commercially available nicotine injections for NRT, as they pose higher risks and complications compared to other forms of NRT. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is "b. Injections," as nicotine replacement therapy products do not commonly come in the form of injections.
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what develops from foregut, midgut, and hindgut
Foregut develops into esophagus, stomach, liver, and pancreas. Midgut develops into small intestine and part of large intestine. Hindgut develops into rest of large intestine.
The foregut, midgut, and hindgut all contribute to the formation of various bodily organs and structures throughout embryonic development. The pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, liver, pancreas, and biliary apparatus are all formed in the foregut.
The small intestine, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon are all formed by the midgut. The distal third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum are formed by the hindgut. These structures are essential for the body's metabolic activities, waste removal, and nutrient digestion and absorption.
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Fibrates, niacin and fish oil are mainly used for what?
Fibrates, niacin, and fish oil are mainly used for managing dyslipidemia, which is an abnormal amount of lipids (such as cholesterol and triglycerides) in the blood.
Dyslipidemia is a common condition that can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, including heart attacks and strokes.
Fibrates are a type of medication that can lower triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol (the "good" cholesterol).
Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, can lower LDL cholesterol (the "bad" cholesterol) and triglycerides while increasing HDL cholesterol.
Fish oil supplements contain omega-3 fatty acids, which can reduce triglycerides and may have other beneficial effects on cardiovascular health.
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When should an asthmatic be referred to a pulmonologist? (13)
An asthmatic should be referred to a pulmonologist when their asthma is not well-controlled with standard treatments such as inhalers, when they require frequent use of oral steroids, or when they experience frequent exacerbations.
Other reasons for referral may include the need for allergy testing or evaluation for comorbidities such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). It is important to note that referral to a pulmonologist does not necessarily mean that the individual's primary care physician is no longer involved in their care, but rather that they will be working collaboratively with the pulmonologist to optimize the patient's management and improve outcomes.
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The normal recall appointment between periodontal treatment:? ___ months
The normal recall appointment between periodontal treatment is typically three months. This interval is recommended by most periodontists and dentists to maintain healthy periodontal tissues after treatment.
The three-month recall schedule allows for early detection and intervention of any potential periodontal disease progression, which can help prevent further damage to the teeth and gums. During these recall appointments, the dentist or periodontist will conduct a comprehensive examination of the patient's teeth, gums, and supporting bone structures.
They may also perform a thorough cleaning to remove any accumulated plaque and tartar. Patients with a history of periodontal disease are advised to maintain regular recall appointments to ensure that any developing issues are identified and addressed promptly. Maintaining a healthy oral hygiene routine at home is also essential to ensure the success of periodontal treatment and maintain good oral health.
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Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure. B. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. C. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. D. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse
The most reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output is D. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.
Cardiac output is the amount of blood the heart pumps per minute, and it can be estimated by multiplying the heart rate (number of beats per minute) by the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart with each beat). While there are various techniques to measure stroke volume, including invasive procedures such as thermodilution and echocardiography, assessing the heart rate and strength of the pulse is a non-invasive and reliable way to estimate cardiac output in many clinical settings.
Determining the average diastolic blood pressure or listening to heart sounds with a stethoscope can provide some information about cardiac function, but they are not the most reliable methods for estimating cardiac output. Connecting the patient to an electrocardiogram can help diagnose certain heart conditions, but it does not directly provide information about cardiac output.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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What type of teratoma is aggressive and malignant?
The aggressive and malignant type of teratoma is called immature teratoma.
Immature teratoma is the type of teratoma that is considered aggressive and malignant. Teratomas are a type of germ cell tumor that can contain a mix of different types of tissues, such as hair, teeth, and bones.
They are classified into three types: mature, immature, and monodermal teratomas.
Mature teratomas are usually benign, whereas immature teratomas contain underdeveloped or embryonic tissues, making them malignant and more aggressive.
These tumors can spread to other parts of the body and require a combination of treatments, including surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy, for effective management.
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As you may already know, the basilar membrane functions to separate sounds based on their frequency...
What does the frequency selectivity of sound in the basilar membrane depend on?
The frequency selectivity of sound in the basilar membrane primarily depends on its physical properties and tonotopic organization.
The basilar membrane is a part of the cochlea, which is responsible for transforming mechanical vibrations into neural signals. It has a unique structure, being wider and more flexible at its apex and narrower and stiffer towards its base.
This variation in width and stiffness allows the basilar membrane to respond differently to various sound frequencies. High-frequency sounds cause maximum vibration at the base of the membrane, while low-frequency sounds result in greater vibration towards the apex. This spatial arrangement, known as tonotopic organization, enables the basilar membrane to separate sounds based on their frequency.
The frequency selectivity is further enhanced by the outer hair cells present along the basilar membrane. These cells amplify vibrations and fine-tune the responses, ensuring that each frequency is accurately represented in the neural signals transmitted to the brain. In summary, the frequency selectivity of sound in the basilar membrane depends on its structural properties and the organization of outer hair cells, facilitating precise sound perception and processing.
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What is treatment of flexion somatic dysfunction for carpal tunnel syndrome?
The treatment of flexion somatic dysfunction for carpal tunnel syndrome typically involves a combination of manual therapy techniques, exercise, and lifestyle modifications.
Manual therapy techniques may include soft tissue mobilization, joint mobilization, and muscle energy techniques. Exercise may focus on strengthening the muscles of the hand and wrist, improving flexibility and range of motion, and correcting postural imbalances. Lifestyle modifications may include ergonomic adjustments to workstations and activities, as well as the use of splints or braces to support the wrist and reduce pressure on the median nerve. It is important to address any underlying factors that may be contributing to the development of carpal tunnel syndrome, such as repetitive motions or chronic stress. Depending on the severity of the condition, additional treatments such as medication or surgery may be recommended.
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Malignant hyperthermia is: (Select all that apply)
triggered by general anesthetics.
treated by a drug called Dantrolene.
an autosomal dominant trait.
causes an early rise in temperature as the first symptom.
Malignant hyperthermia is a condition that can be triggered by general anesthetics, treated by a drug called Dantrolene, and is an autosomal dominant trait
What's Malignant hyperthermiaMalignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain general anesthetics and muscle relaxants. It is triggered by medications like halothane, sevoflurane, and succinylcholine, often used during surgeries.
This condition is an autosomal dominant trait, meaning it can be inherited if one parent carries the gene.
When malignant hyperthermia occurs, patients experience a rapid and severe rise in body temperature, which is not typically the first symptom.
Early signs include increased heart rate, muscle rigidity, and acidosis.
Prompt treatment with the drug Dantrolene is crucial, as it helps counteract the excessive calcium release in muscle cells, alleviating the symptoms and preventing complications.
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Inc in jugular venous pressure on inhalation
Sign? Disease associated?
The increase in jugular venous pressure on inhalation is a sign that is typically observed in individuals with heart failure. This is due to the increased pressure within the chest during inhalation that causes blood to accumulate in the veins leading to the heart, which can result in engorgement of the jugular veins.
Jugular venous pressure on inhalation is an important clinical sign that can be used to assess the fluid status of the patient and can be indicative of the severity of heart failure. Other diseases that may be associated with an increase in jugular venous pressure on inhalation include constrictive pericarditis and tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the increase in jugular venous pressure is not always apparent and may require specialized techniques to detect. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to be trained in the proper assessment of jugular venous pressure to provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for patients.
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What is next step for woman who finds palpable mass in breast in <30 vs > 30?
For women under 30 years old who find a palpable mass in their breast, the next step is typically a diagnostic mammogram or ultrasound. Women over 30 should also undergo a diagnostic mammogram, and if necessary, a breast biopsy.
Breast cancer is a leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Palpable masses in the breast are the most common symptom of breast cancer, but not all masses are cancerous.
Therefore, it is crucial to perform a thorough evaluation to determine the nature of the mass. For women under 30 years old, mammograms may not be as effective due to the density of the breast tissue, so an ultrasound may be the preferred imaging method.
Women over 30 should undergo a diagnostic mammogram to assess the mass, and if necessary, a biopsy can be performed to determine if it is cancerous or not. Early detection and prompt treatment of breast cancer can significantly improve the chances of survival.
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what is injury ? arm outwardly rotated, & numbness over deltoid
An injury is damage or harm caused to the body. In this specific case, it seems that the injury involves the arm being outwardly rotated,
which can indicate a dislocation or sprain. The numbness over the deltoid could be a result of nerve damage or compression. It is important to seek medical attention for any injury, as prompt treatment can aid in recovery and prevent further complications.
An injury involving an outwardly rotated arm and numbness over the deltoid may be related to nerve compression or damage, such as from a shoulder dislocation or brachial plexus injury. It's important to consult with a medical professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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Pt presents with dilated pupils, seizure, tachycardia and HTN.
Tx of HTN and tachycardia?
Immediate treatment is required to address hypertension and tachycardia.
How to treat HTN and tachycardia effectively?In a patient presenting with dilated pupils, seizure, tachycardia, and hypertension, immediate treatment is required to prevent further complications. The underlying cause of these symptoms could be due to a range of medical conditions, such as drug overdose, stroke, brain tumor, or head trauma. Treatment will focus on addressing the hypertension and tachycardia through the administration of medications such as intravenous beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it is important to note that this may not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Additional testing and evaluation may be necessary, and the patient may require close monitoring and supportive care depending on the severity of their symptoms.
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How does the administration of PGE2 lead to decreased smooth muscle tension?
PGE2 administration can lead to decreased smooth muscle tension through various mechanisms. PGE2 activates EP receptors, which in turn activates adenylate cyclase and increases cyclic AMP levels.
This leads to activation of protein kinase A and subsequently, phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). Phosphorylation of MLCK leads to decreased activity of the enzyme, reducing myosin light chain (MLC) phosphorylation and decreasing smooth muscle contraction. PGE2 can also inhibit calcium influx into smooth muscle cells, further reducing MLC phosphorylation and smooth muscle contraction. Additionally, PGE2 can activate potassium channels, causing hyperpolarization of smooth muscle cells, which can also reduce smooth muscle tension.
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If they tell you abnormal quad screen values, what is the NEXT BEST STEP?
The next best step after abnormal quad screen values is to follow up with diagnostic testing, such as ultrasound and genetic counseling.
Quad screen testing is a blood test performed on pregnant women to assess their risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities and neural tube defects. An abnormal quad screen may indicate an increased risk of these conditions, but it does not provide a definitive diagnosis.
Therefore, further testing is necessary to confirm or rule out the presence of a fetal abnormality. Diagnostic testing options include ultrasound, amniocentesis, and chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
Additionally, genetic counseling can help expectant parents understand the implications of abnormal test results and make informed decisions about their pregnancy. It is essential to follow up with diagnostic testing promptly to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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What is a bactericidal antibiotic used in treatment of infections caused by Pseudomonas species and indole=positive Proteus species
A bactericidal antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Pseudomonas species and indole-positive Proteus species is Gentamicin. This antibiotic belongs to the aminoglycoside class, which works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis and ultimately leading to cell death
The bactericidal antibiotic commonly used in the treatment of infections caused by Pseudomonas species and indole-positive Proteus species is called aminoglycosides. Aminoglycosides work by binding to the bacterial ribosome, which prevents protein synthesis and ultimately leads to bacterial cell death. Some examples of aminoglycosides include gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin. These antibiotics are often used in combination with other drugs for optimal treatment outcomes. It is important to note that aminoglycosides can have serious side effects, including kidney damage and hearing loss, so close monitoring and dosage adjustments may be necessary during treatment.
A bactericidal antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Pseudomonas species and indole-positive Proteus species is Gentamicin. This antibiotic belongs to the aminoglycoside class, which works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis and ultimately leading to cell death. Gentamicin is effective against these gram-negative bacteria and is often administered intravenously or intramuscularly to treat serious infections.
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Perio flap that expose bone also known as
A periodontal flap that exposes bone is also known as an osseous flap or an open flap debridement (OFD).
What is a open flap debridement?Open flap debridement (OFD) is a surgical procedure in which the gum tissue is lifted or reflected, and the underlying bone is exposed to allow for better access and visibility during scaling and root planing, as well as bone reshaping or regenerative procedures.
The purpose of this procedure is to remove plaque, calculus, and infected tissues from the tooth root surface and promote the regeneration of healthy bone and gum tissue.
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Hypotonia, hypogonadism, hyperphagia, skin picking, aggression. Deletion on paternal Chr15. what is the diagnosis?
The diagnosis for the presented symptoms (hypotonia, hypogonadism, hyperphagia, skin picking, and aggression) and the deletion on paternal chromosome 15 is Prader-Willi Syndrome (PWS).
PWS is a genetic disorder that occurs due to a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15. Individuals with PWS typically have hypotonia (low muscle tone) and hypogonadism (underdeveloped or absent reproductive organs). They also tend to have an insatiable appetite (hyperphagia) and struggle with obesity. Other common symptoms include skin picking and aggression. PWS requires lifelong management to address the physical, behavioral, and psychological aspects of the disorder.
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What do you not do at the perio maintenance apt.?
At the perio maintenance appointment, there are certain things that should not be done to ensure the success of the treatment. Firstly, it is important not to skip or cancel the appointment as regular attendance is crucial in maintaining periodontal health.
Additionally, it is not recommended to brush or floss excessively before the appointment as it may cause gum irritation and bleeding. Similarly, it is not advisable to consume hot or cold drinks and foods as they may cause sensitivity in the teeth and gums.
During the perio maintenance appointment, it is important to avoid any aggressive cleaning techniques as they may cause further damage to the gums and teeth. Lastly, it is not recommended to use any mouthwash or breath sprays before the appointment as they may interfere with the diagnostic tests and assessments performed by the dentist or hygienist.
Overall, following these guidelines will help ensure a successful perio maintenance appointment and promote long-term periodontal health.
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A mom asks the student nurse how she will know if the baby is having trouble breastfeeding? The student nurse correctly states: (Select all that apply)
"The baby makes smacking or clicking sounds."
"The baby refuses to eat."
"The baby will fall asleep after feeding for less than 5 minutes."
"Audible swallowing."
The student nurse correctly states that a: "The baby makes smacking or clicking sounds.", b: "The baby refuses to eat.", d: "Audible swallowing."
When a mom asks how she will know if the baby is having trouble breastfeeding, the student nurse correctly states several signs to watch for. Smacking or clicking sounds during breastfeeding can indicate an improper latch or difficulty in creating a seal, leading to ineffective milk transfer. Refusal to eat is another sign of trouble, as it suggests that the baby is not able to properly latch or is experiencing discomfort while feeding.
Audible swallowing is a positive sign that the baby is effectively swallowing milk. These signs help the mother and healthcare providers identify any issues that may be interfering with successful breastfeeding and allow for timely intervention and support.
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Relapsing remmiting MS + non-responsive to IFN-beta --> next step?
If a patient with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS) is non-responsive to interferon beta (IFN-beta), the next step would be to consider switching to another disease-modifying therapy (DMT).
There are several other DMTs that have been approved for the treatment of RRMS, including:
Glatiramer acetate: a synthetic protein that modulates the immune system and is administered by injection.Teriflunomide: an oral medication that inhibits the proliferation of immune cells.Dimethyl fumarate: an oral medication that modulates the immune system and has antioxidant effects.Thus, these therapies are used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS).
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