A classmate walks into class and states that he has an extra ticket to a chamber orchestra concert on Friday night. He asks everyone in the class to put their name on a piece of paper and put it in a basket. He plans to draw from the basket to choose the person who will attend the concert with him. If there are 38 other people in class that night, what is your chance of being chosen to attend the concert

Answer:

option a is correct by using quadratic formula

Step-by-step explanation:

Option B is correct. Refer to the attachment!

Answer:

In general gf(x) is not equal to fg(x)

Some pairs of functions cannot be composed. Some pairs of functions can be composed only  for certain values of x.

Only with they can be composed some values of x are the ranges of g(x) and f(x) are the same, and their domains are also the same. Or else lies inside it.

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x) = 3x + 6 - 8, f(x) = √x.

The domain of a composed function is either the same as the domain of the first function, or  else lies inside it

The range of a composed function is either the same as the range of the second function, or else lies inside it.

Or vice versa

Now only positive numbers, or zero, have real square roots. So g is defined only for numbers

greater than or equal to zero. Therefore g(f(x)) can have a value only if f(x) is greater than or

equal to zero. You can work out that

f(x) ≥ 0 only when x ≥3/2

.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Function 'g' is,

g(x) = x²

Since, leading coefficient of this function is positive, parabola is opening upwards.

From the graph attached,

Function 'f' is opening upwards leading coefficient of the function will be positive.

Since, the graph of function 'f' is vertically stretched, equation will be in the form of f(x) = kx²

Here, k > 1

Since, function 'f' is formed by shifting the graph of function 'g' by 1 unit upwards,

f(x) = g(x) + 1

Combining all these properties, equation of the function 'f' should be,

f(x) = 4x² + 1

Option B will be the correct option.

Answer:

Milk   10 L

Vanilla essence  = 20 ml

Sugar   = 1kg

Egg yolks   100 yolks

Step-by-step explanation:

2l/250ml = 8 servings per recipe ,

40 servings/8 = 5 "batches"

Milk 2 L * 5 = 10 L

Vanilla essence 4 ml * 5 = 20 ml

Sugar 200 g * 5  = 1000g = 1kg

Egg yolks 20 * 5 = 100 yolks

Answer:

"D" is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Grey's Anatomy

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

* is multiplication

1 3/4 is 1.75

so

24/1.75 = 72/×

1.75 * 72 = 24 * x

126 = 24x

24x = 126

x = 5.25 or 5 1/4

Total [tex]5\frac{1}{4}[/tex] cups of butter required to make 72 cookies.

The unitary method is a process of finding the value of a single unit, and based on this value; we can find the value of the required number of .

According to the given question.

Number of cups or butter required for making 24 cookies = [tex]1\frac{3}{4} =\frac{7}{4}[/tex]

⇒ Number of cups of butter required to make 1 cookie = [tex]\frac{\frac{7}{4} }{24} =\frac{7}{(24)(4)}[/tex]

Therefore,

The number of cups of butter required to make 72 cookies

= [tex]72[/tex] × [tex]\frac{7}{(24)(4)}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{21}{4}[/tex]

= [tex]5\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Hence, total [tex]5\frac{1}{4}[/tex] cups of butter required to make 72 cookies.

Find out more information about unitary method here:

https://brainly.com/question/22056199

#SPJ3

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

because

0.9.30 am to 4.30 p.m. is 7 hours.

If we minus 30 minutes from it then it is 6 hours 30 minutes.

Answer:

the larger number is 69

the smaller number is 16

Step-by-step explanation:

x is the smaller number

y is the larger number

x + y = 85

y - 4x = 5

y = 5 + 4x

x + 5 + 4x = 85

5x = 80

x = 16

y = 69

Answer:

The probability of getting two good coils is 77.33%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a batch consists of 12 defective coils and 88 good ones, to determine the probability of getting two good coils when two coils are randomly selected (without replacement), the following calculation must be performed:

88/100 x 87/99 = X

0.88 x 0.878787 = X

0.77333 = X

Therefore, the probability of getting two good coils is 77.33%.

Answer:

Xin hãy đánh dấu cho tôi là một người tồi tệ nhất

Để tìm chu vi hình vuông, bạn phải nhân 2 cạnh với 4..

Sử dụng công thức

chu vi = 4 * (một mặt)

Answer:

[tex]\bar x = 13.739[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = 4.923[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\begin{array}{cc}{Class} & {Frequency} & 10.01 - 11.50 & 44 & 11.51 - 13.00 & 27 & 13.01 - 14.50 & 38 & 14.51 - 16.00 & 33 & 16.01 - 17.50 & 40 \ \end{array}[/tex]

Required

The sample mean and the sample variance

First, calculate the midpoints

[tex]x_1 = \frac{10.01 + 11.50}{2} = 10.755[/tex]

[tex]x_2 = \frac{11.51 + 13.00}{2} = 12.255[/tex]

And so on...

So, the table becomes:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{Class} & {Frequency} & {x} & 10.01 - 11.50 & 44 & 10.755 & 11.51 - 13.00 & 27 & 12.255 & 13.01 - 14.50 & 38 & 13.755 & 14.51 - 16.00 & 33 & 15.255 & 16.01 - 17.50 & 40 & 16.755 \ \end{array}[/tex]

So, the sample mean is:

[tex]\bar x = \frac{\sum fx}{\sum f}[/tex]

[tex]\bar x = \frac{44 * 10.755 + 27 * 12.255 + 38 * 13.755 + 33 * 15.255 + 40 * 16.755}{44 + 27 + 38 + 33 + 40}[/tex]

[tex]\bar x = \frac{2500.41}{182}[/tex]

[tex]\bar x = 13.739[/tex]

The sample variance is:

[tex]\sigma^2 = \frac{\sum f(x - \bar x)^2}{\sum f - 1}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = \frac{44 * (10.755 - 13.739)^2 + 27 * (12.255 - 13.739)^2+ 38 * (13.755 - 13.739)^2 + 33 * (15.255 - 13.739)^2+ 40 * (16.755- 13.739)^2}{44 + 27 + 38 + 33 + 40-1}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = \frac{890.950592}{181}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = 4.923[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

y=k/x

Answer: You will never reach a sum of 2. You would need infinitely many terms to sum up.

============================================================

Explanation:

We have this sequence

1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, 1/64, ...

which is geometric with the following properties

Notice how we multiply each term by 1/2 to get the next term. Eg: (1/4)*(1/2) = 1/8 or (1/16)*(1/2) = 1/32.

Since r = 0.5 is between -1 and 1, i.e. -1 < r < 1 is true, this means that adding infinite terms of this form will get us to approach some finite sum which we'll call S. This is because the new terms added on get smaller and smaller.

That infinite sum is

S = a/(1-r)

S = 1/(1-0.5)

S = 1/0.5

S = 2

So if we keep going with that pattern 1+1/2+1/4+... and do so forever, then we'll reach a sum of 2. However, we cannot go on forever since it's asking when we'll reach that specific sum. In other words, your teacher wants finitely many terms to be added.

In short, we'll never actually reach the sum 2 itself. We'll just get closer and closer.

Here's a list of partial sums

We can see that we're getting closer to 2, but we'll never actually get there. We'd need to add infinitely many terms to get to exactly 2.

Answer:

-10

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{97} \\ \sqrt{9^{2}+4^{2} }[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.7671 = 76.71% probability that he was taught by method A

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional Probability

We use the conditional probability formula to solve this question. It is

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}[/tex]

In which

P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.

[tex]P(A \cap B)[/tex] is the probability of both A and B happening.

P(A) is the probability of A happening.

In this question:

Event A: Person learned Spanish successfully.

Event B: Method A was used.

Probability of a person learning Spanish successfully:

70% of 80%(using method A)

85% of 20%(using method B)

So

[tex]P(A) = 0.7*0.8 + 0.85*0.2 = 0.73[/tex]

Probability of a person learning Spanish successfully and using method A:

70% of 80%, so:

[tex]P(A \cap B) = 0.7*0.8 = 0.56[/tex]

What is the probability that he was taught by method A?

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{0.56}{0.73} = 0.7671[/tex]

0.7671 = 76.71% probability that he was taught by method A

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

First lets list all the factors of these numbers

72: 1,2 3,4,6,8,9,12,18,24,36,72

84: 1 , 2 , 3 ,4 , 6 , 7 , 12 , 14 ,  21 , 28 , 42 , 84

Now lets find the biggest number that is a factor of both 84 and 72  

as we can see the highest number that is the factor of both 84 and 72 is 12

12 is the hcf

Answer:

​Robbin's grade point average must be at least 2.75 in order to be unconditionally accepted into the program. ​

Step-by-step explanation:

An unconditional acceptance into a graduate program at a university will be given to students whose GMAT score plus 100 times the undergraduate grade point average is at least 1075

Considering the GMAT score x, and the GPA y, this situation is modeled by the following inequality:

[tex]x + 100y \geq 1075[/tex]

Robbin's GMAT score was 800.

This means that [tex]x = 800[/tex], and thus:

[tex]x + 100y \geq 1075[/tex]

[tex]800 + 100y \geq 1075[/tex]

[tex]100y \geq 275[/tex]

What must her grade point average be in order to be unconditionally accepted into the​ program?

Solving the above inequality for y:

[tex]100y \geq 275[/tex]

[tex]y \geq \frac{275}{100}[/tex]

[tex]y \geq 2.75[/tex]

Thus:

​Robbin's grade point average must be at least 2.75 in order to be unconditionally accepted into the program. ​

Answer:

Cardinality of the power set of the given set = [tex]2^6=64[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Power set is the set of all the possible subsets that can be formed from the given set including the null set and the set itself.

Example set:

{1,2,3}

All the possible subsets of this set:

{}; {1}; {2}; {3}; {1,2,3}; {1,2}; {1,3}; {2,3}

The power set of the above set is written as:

P({ {}, {1}, {2}, {3}, {1,2}, {1,3}, {2,3}, {1,2,3} })

Since the no. of elements in the above power set in this example is 8 therefore its cardinality is 8.

Cardinality of the power set of a given set is expressed by a formula: [tex]2^n[/tex]

where n is the cardinality (no. of elements) of the given set whose power set is to be formed for determining cardinality of the power set.

Hence in the given case, we have  n = 6.

Answer:

please provide an image.

Answer:

19.3 miles per gallon

Step-by-step explanation:

First, subtract 54,042.8-53,737.7. The answer is 305.1

Then, find the unit rate. 305.1/15.8

You get 19.31012658. The prompt says to round to the nearest tenth, so round, and you get 19.3.

That's your answer!

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for figuring the amount that can be borrowed (P) is shown on the first line of the attachment. (The second line rounds it to the nearest cent.) In this formula, ...

  a = monthly payment, r = annual interest rate, t = number of years

The amounts requested by the problem statement are shown in the attachment, and above. b is the amount that can be borrowed, p is the total of payments, and i is the interest paid. There are 360 monthly payments in 30 years, so the total paid is 360 times the monthly payment amount.

Answer:

a. high-low method.

b. scatter diagrams.

d. least-squares regression.

Step-by-step explanation:

Costing is a measurement of the cost of production of goods and services by assessing the fixed costs and variable costs associated with each step of production.

Fixed cost can be defined as predetermined expenses in a business that remain constant for a specific period of time regardless of the quantity of production or level of outputs. Some examples of fixed costs in business are loan payments, employee salary, depreciation, rent, insurance, lease, utilities etc.

On the other hand, variable costs can be defined as expenses that are not constant and as such usually change directly and are proportional to various changes in business activities. Some examples of variable costs are taxes, direct labor, sales commissions, raw materials, operational expenses etc.

In Financial accounting, the three methods used to classify costs into their fixed and variable components includes high-low method, scatter diagrams and least-squares regression.

The high-low method is a quick and easy way to estimate costs by using historical accounting information from a range of reporting periods.

A scatter diagram (scattergraph) estimate costs by considering all the data points and not just the lowest or highest point.

A least squares regression line is a standard technique in regression analysis used to make the vertical distance obtained from the data points running to the regression line to become very minimal or as small as possible.

Generally, the sum of the residuals of a least squares regression line is always equal to zero.

Answer:

a. high-low method.

b. scatter diagrams.

d. least-squares regression.

Step-by-step explanation:

The three methods used to classify costs into their fixed and variable components includes:

Answer:

The sample mean weight is 16.235 ounces, and the margin of error is 0.360 ounces

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the sample mean, we can find the mean of the confidence interval.

(15.875 + 16.595)/2 = 16.235

To find the margin of error, that is the difference between the mean and one of the edges of the confidence interval. 16.595 - 16.235 = 0.36

The sample mean weight is 16.235 ounces, and the margin of error is 0.360 ounces

Answer:

C. We are 90% confident that the interval from 15.875 ounces to 16.595 ounces captures the true mean weight of bags of grapes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D. No, there isn’t enough information because only two pairs of corresponding sides can't be used to prove that two triangles are congruent.

Answer:

x=2pi/3 +2pi n, 4pi/3 +2pi n for all integar of n.

Step-by-step explanation: