Since the nurse suspects that the client has acromegaly the client will most likely receive a prescription for octreotide.
In the medical disorder known as acromegaly, the body produces too much growth hormone, which causes excessive bone development, particularly in the hands, feet, and face.
Octreotide, a synthetic version of somatostatin, is frequently recommended as a treatment for this illness. In order to reduce growth hormone levels and alleviate symptoms, octreotide binds to the same receptors as growth hormone and inhibits its release.
Octreotide also has the capacity to reduce tumors that produce too much hormone. It's crucial to remember that Octreotide is only one component of treatment and that ongoing observation and care are essential for successful acromegaly management. The symptoms can be effectively treated and the condition's progression halted with the right monitoring and care.
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which behavior would alert the nurse that a child is demonstrating outwardly focused anger or agression
The following behavior would alert the nurse that a child is demonstrating outwardly focused anger or aggression : Scribbling on a classmate's art assignment .
Outwardly focused anger is manifested in a visible or unmasked manner that is harmful, such as destroying another student's artwork.
Not all anger is expressed in the same way. Anger and aggression can be directed outwardly, inwardly, or passively. Outward. This includes expressing anger or aggression in obvious ways. This may include actions such as yelling, swearing, throwing or breaking things, or verbal or physical abuse of others. External anger means expressing anger verbally or physically toward another person or object. This includes breaking things, attacking others, yelling and swearing.
Anger can be expressed in a variety of unhelpful ways, including:
Inward aggression, outward aggression such as telling yourself you don't like yourself, withdrawing from the world, not providing basic needs (e.g. food)
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Complete question :
A child would be demonstrating outwardly focused anger or aggression in an overt manner when engaging in which behavior?
Dominating a class discussion
Intentionally forgetting to do homework
Scribbling on a classmate's art assignment
Crying when told he or she must wait his or her turn
t is caring for a patient who sustained damage to the portion of the skin that contains the small capillary beds and sensory structures. which skin layer would the emt doc
The damaged skin would most likely be in the dermis layer, which is the middle layer of the skin and contains the small capillary beds and sensory structures.
The dermis layer of the skin is the middle layer, located between the epidermis and the hypodermis. It contains small capillary beds and sensory structures, such as nerve endings and hair follicles, and is responsible for providing the skin with its strength and elasticity. In the case of a patient who has sustained damage to the portion of skin containing the small capillary beds and sensory structures, it is likely that the damage is located in the dermis layer. The EMT would need to assess the extent of the damage and provide appropriate medical care to the patient, such as wound care, dressing changes, or referral to a specialist for further treatment.
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an older-adult patient has extensive wound care needs after discharge from the hospital. which facility should the nurse discuss with the patient?
The facilities discussed by nurses for elderly adult patients in wound care are home care visits.
What is wound care?Wound care is an action to speed up the wound healing process and prevent infection from occurring in the wound.
There are various types of wounds that require treatment, namely avulsion wounds. An avulsion is a partial or complete tearing of the skin and underlying tissue, a stab wound, Torn wound, laceration, cuts or incisions, scratches, or abrasions.
In old age, comprehensive wound care is needed by making nursing visits at home because that will facilitate the process of wound care
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a bill has been submitted to the state house of representatives that is designed to reduce the cost of health care by increasing the patient-to-nurse ratio from a maximum of 2:1 in intensive care units to 3:1. what should the nurse realize?
A bill has been submitted to the state house of representatives that is designed to reduce the cost of health care by increasing the patient-to-nurse ratio from a maximum of 2:1 in intensive care units to 3:1. The nurse should realize that The individual nurse can influence legislative decisions.
Nurses recognize that today's healthcare system is in trouble and needs change. The experience of many nurses practicing in the real world of health care motivates them to take on some kind of advocacy role to influence policy, law, or regulatory change governing the larger health care system. give. This type of advocacy needs to move beyond one's own practice and into a less familiar world of politics and politics, a world in which many nurses feel unprepared to work effectively.
Policy shapes nursing practice in its most fundamental way.
Through the State Nursing Practice Act (NPA), which dates back more than 100 years in many states. The NPA frames nursing practice by defining the professional scope and educational requirements of nursing practice. NPA has not stagnated and evolved over the past century. But only through the active involvement of nurses in legislative decisions to change laws and update policies related to nursing practice.
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which response would the emergency department nurse make to the mother who says her daughter is cutting her wrists but they're just superficial cuts
The emergency department nurse should respond to the mother with empathy and urgency, and take the report of self-harm seriously.
Self-harm, including wrist cutting, is a serious behavior that can lead to significant harm or death, even with superficial cuts. The nurse should take immediate action to assess and stabilize the daughter's condition, and ensure her safety. The nurse should also provide support and reassurance to the mother, and work with the interdisciplinary team to coordinate the appropriate level of care for the daughter, which may include referral to a mental health specialist.
The nurse should also educate the mother about the signs and symptoms of self-harm and encourage her to seek help if she notices any changes in her daughter's behavior or mood. It's important to remember that individuals who engage in self-harm behaviors often struggle with underlying mental health issues that require professional intervention.
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a client develops bacterial pneumonia and is admitted to the emergency department. the client's initial pao2 is 80 mm hg. when the arterial blood gases are drawn again, the level is 65 mm hg. which action would the nurse take first
Increase the O2 flow rate.
An illness called pneumonia causes the air sacs of one or even both lungs to become inflamed. The air sacs may swell with fluid or abscess (purulent material), which can lead to a cough that produces pus or phlegm, a fever, chills, and breathing difficulties.
Pneumonia can be brought on by a number of different species, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. The majority of pneumonia patients react favorably to therapy, although the condition can be extremely dangerous and even fatal. If you are an adult male, or a small child, have a compromised immune system.
Suffer from a chronic illness like diabetes or cirrhosis, you are more likely to experience difficulties. The recovery process from pneumonia may be prolonged. In one to two weeks, some individuals feel better and can resume their regular schedules.
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a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a decline in the client's chronic illness. the nurse feels that the nurse should speak to the client's spouse, who is extremely worried and anxious, and provide the spouse with support. which setting should the nurse select to speak to the spouse? choose the best answer.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a decline in the client's chronic illness. The consultation room should the nurse select to speak to the spouse.
What does chronic illness mean?A chronic disease is defined as a condition that lasts a year or longer, requiring constant medical care, limits daily activities, or both. Chronic diseases such as diabetes, cancer, and heart disease are the leading causes of death and disability in the United States. They are also the primary drivers of the country's $4.1 trillion in yearly health-care costs.
When you have a chronic or long-term illness, you must learn to deal with its needs as well as the therapy needed to address it. Because a chronic illness can change the way you live, see yourself, and interact with the world, there may be additional challenges.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a decline in the client's chronic illness. The nurse feels that the nurse should speak to the client's spouse, who is extremely worried and anxious, and provide the spouse with support. Which setting should the nurse select to speak to the spouse? Choose the best answer.
(A) The consultation room
(B) The Doctor room
(C) The restroom
(D) None of these
the patient's heparin is infusing at 28 ml/hr on an infusion pump. the bag of fluid is mixed 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml d5w. what hourly dose of heparin is the patient receiving?
The hourly dose of heparin the patient is receiving can be calculated as follows:40 units/ml * 28 ml/hr = 1,120 units/hr
First, we need to determine the concentration of heparin in the solution, which is 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units/ml.
Next, we can calculate the volume of heparin the patient is receiving per hour by multiplying the concentration of heparin (40 units/ml) by the flow rate (28 ml/hr):
40 units/ml * 28 ml/hr = 1,120 units/hr
So, the patient is receiving an hourly dose of 1,120 units of heparin. It is important to regularly monitor the patient's response to the heparin infusion, including frequent monitoring of their blood coagulation status and any potential side effects, to ensure that the patient is receiving an appropriate and safe dose.
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Which of these actions constitutes a breach of the EMT's duty, placing him or her at risk for the charge of negligence?
A.
Obtaining a refusal of care from a patient without obtaining vital signs
B.
Applying oxygen to a patient who is not complaining of shortness of breath
C.
Transporting an alert and oriented patient who does not want transport to the hospital
D.
Obtaining an informed and signed refusal of care form from an alert and oriented patient with abdominal pain
Transporting an alert and oriented patient who does not want transport to the hospital constitutes a breach of the EMT's duty, placing him or her at risk for the charge of negligence. The correct alternative is Option C.
A breach of duty in this case occurs because EMTs have a responsibility to obtain informed consent from patients before providing medical care.
Transporting an alert and oriented patient who does not want transport to the hospital constitutes a breach of the EMT's duty, placing him or her at risk for the charge of negligence because when a patient is alert and oriented and expresses a clear desire not to be transported, continuing to do so without their consent could be considered a violation of their autonomy and a breach of the EMT's duty to obtain informed consent. This could potentially result in the charge of negligence if harm were to come to the patient as a result of the transport.
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The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse that the dying patient is manifesting a death rattle. Which action would the nurse perform?
A. Instruct the UAP to initiate postmortem care
B. Notify the family that the patient has died
C. Turn the patient on the side to reduce gurgling
D. Tell the UAP that this is expected and nothing can be done
In the scenario mentioned, if the UAP informs the nurse that the dying patient is manifesting a death rattle, the nurse should take the following action: Option C. Turn the patient on the side to reduce gurgling.
The term "UAP" refers to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel, which are individuals who provide supportive care to patients in a healthcare setting. As a nurse, it is important to understand the role of UAP and how to effectively communicate with them in order to provide high-quality patient care.
Turn the patient on the side to reduce gurgling. A death rattle is a sound that can occur when a patient is in the final stages of dying and is caused by the buildup of secretions in the patient's throat.
Turning the patient on their side can help reduce the gurgling sound by allowing the secretions to drain from the patient's mouth. This is a simple and effective intervention that can provide comfort to the dying patient and their family.
It is important to note that, in this scenario, the nurse should not initiate postmortem care (A), as this is typically performed by a funeral home after the patient has died. The nurse should also not notify the family that the patient has died (B), as this is a decision that should only be made by a physician. Lastly, the nurse should not tell the UAP that the death rattle is expected and nothing can be done (D), as this may lead to the UAP feeling helpless and not taking any action to provide comfort to the patient.
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clostridium difficile is a common and serious infectious agent that causes severe intestinal distress. when cells of c. difficile are gram-stained, they appear as gram-
C. difficile is a Gram-negative bacteria, the meaning is that it does not retain the crystal violet dye used during the Gram-staining process.
During Gram staining, a series of way are followed in which the cells are stained with different colorings and also examined under a microscope. In the first step, the cells are treated with a primary stain, generally crystal clear violet. Gram-negative bacteria can not retain the demitasse violet color, which is why they appear as Gram-negative when stained.
The cells will also be treated with a caustic, generally iodine, which binds to the demitasse violet and helps to make it more undoable. The cells are also snowed using an organic detergent, similar as ethanol, which causes the demitasse violet to be washed down.
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When using the MyPlate website's Daily Checklist to plan your menus, it is not necessary to provide information about your. ethnic background.
No, when using the MyPlate website's Daily Checklist whether they need to provide information about their ethnic background. The MyPlate website's Daily Checklist is a valuable tool for college students who want to plan their meals and make healthier food choices.
This website provides a simple way to track your daily food intake and make sure that you are getting a balanced diet.
The MyPlate website is designed to be inclusive and accessible to people of all ethnicities and backgrounds. The Daily Checklist tool is based on general dietary recommendations, which are not specific to any particular ethnicity. The website takes into account factors such as age, gender, and physical activity level, but not ethnicity.
The focus of the MyPlate website and its Daily Checklist is to promote healthy eating habits, regardless of ethnicity. The website provides information on portion sizes, recommended food groups, and the importance of variety and moderation in your diet. The website also provides tips and suggestions on how to incorporate healthy foods into your meals, regardless of your background.
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a client has a colostomy after surgery for cancer of the colon. which postoperative nursing intervention maximizes skin integrity? empty the colostomy bag when it is three-fourths full.
Postoperative nursing interventions that maximize skin integrity in clients undergoing colostomy after colon cancer surgery are applying stoma adhesive around the stoma and then attaching the device.
A colostomy is a procedure for making a hole in the stomach that functions as a channel for excretion (feces). This procedure is usually performed on patients who are unable to have normal bowel movements due to problems in the colon, anus, or rectum.
The colostomy procedure is done by making an opening or hole (stoma) in the abdominal wall to be connected to a functioning part of the large intestine. Part of the large intestine will then be sewn so that it attaches to the hole in the abdominal wall so that the stool will not come out through the anus, but through the hole or stoma that has been made.
On the outside of the stomach, the doctor will place a pouch that functions as a stool reservoir. This bag is called a colostomy bag and must be changed regularly after the stool is full. So that after the operation the nurse will intervene by applying stoma adhesive around the stoma and then attaching the device.
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lacto-ovo vegetarians would not eat . a. meat or dairy b. meat c. eggs or dairy d. dairy/354550856/determining-and-controlling-body-composition-flash-cards/
Lacto-ovo vegetarians would not eat meat, dairy, or eggs. They would only eat plant-based foods such as fruits, vegetables, grains, nuts, and legumes.
A lacto-ovo vegetarian diet is made up of plant-based foods such as fruits, vegetables, grains, nuts, legumes, and dairy and egg products. This type of diet is high in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, with limited intake of saturated fat and cholesterol.
It is low in saturated fat and high in essential fatty acids which can help reduce risk of heart disease. Additionally, plant-based diets are associated with a lower risk of type 2 diabetes, obesity, and certain cancers. Eating an overall healthy diet rich in whole grains, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and legumes can help promote good health and well-being.
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a client is experiencing persistent vomiting, and serum electrolytes have been prescribed. the nurse would monitor which laboratory results? sodium and chloride levels
The nurse would monitor sodium and chloride levels as these are the electrolytes that have been prescribed.
Option A. Sodium and Chloride levelsThe nurse would monitor sodium and chloride levels as these are the electrolytes that have been prescribed. This is important in order to determine any electrolyte imbalances that may be causing the persistent vomiting. If the levels are abnormal, it could indicate an underlying condition that needs to be addressed. The nurse would review the results, and then work with the physician to create a treatment plan that addresses the underlying cause of the vomiting.
Here's the full task:
A client is experiencing persistent vomiting, and serum electrolytes have been prescribed. The nurse would monitor which laboratory results?
Choose the right option:
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the 7-year-old child is joining a dance class. the child insists the parent stay in the dance room, frequently requests to use the bathroom, and refuses to join in the actual dance activity until the last 5 minutes of the class. when discussing the child's behavior with the parent, the nurse will base the instruction on which temperament style?
This is a slow-to-warm-up child.
When discussing this temperament with parents, try to use positive terms such as, "ways to find a healthy fit for your child," rather than stressing the ways the child is hard to manage.
Based on personality traits and formative experiences, a person's temperament determines how they act and portray themselves. The way you respond to situations is determined by your temperament, which is consistent. It's a technique for identifying persistent personality features.
According to one study, temperament is determined by brain-stem functions. The brain stem that is unique to each individual is fixed throughout life. People can change even while the brain stem does not, despite what some may believe. The personality of a youngster develops with time.
Rather, as they learn more about the world and develop new types of behaviour, people can add them to their temperament. Consider how kids react to stimuli and how their reactions evolve over time.
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what are some of the health effect(s) of isoamyl nitrite (also called amyl nitrite, or isopentyl nitrite)? (choose all that apply)
Some of the health effects of isoamyl nitrite are Higher heart rate, Reduction in blood pressure, Dizziness, Lightheadedness, and Headache.
Isoamyl nitrite is a form of alkyl nitrite that is frequently used as a recreational drug and as a treatment for angina.
It is also referred to as amyl nitrite or isopentyl nitrite.
There are also some other negative health effects that can result from inhaling isoamyl nitrite, including:
Flushing, Feelings of warmth and Tingling, Nausea and Diarrhea, Weakness, Fainting
Additionally, it can have psychotropic effects such as increased sociability, euphoria, and sexual desire.
Consuming isoamyl nitrite, however, can be poisonous and have serious negative effects on one's health, including methemoglobinemia.
It is a condition in which the blood's ability to carry oxygen is compromised.
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a client is admitted to the hospital for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. which item would the nurse encourage the client to add to the diet to help normalize bowel function after surgery? vitamins
The item that nurse should encourage the client to add to the diet for normalizing bowel function after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is: (B) Whole bran.
Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy is an invasive procedure for the removal of gall bladder. A small incision is made for this procedure. The operation makes use of tiny cameras to help in the removal. The surgery should be performed with care because although harmless, it may lead to complications.
Whole bran is the outer layer present in seeds that is enriched in fiber. Cereals like wheat, rice, oats and corn all contain whole bran. The fiver in them is very essential to maintain a regular bowel movement.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A client is admitted to the hospital for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. which item would the nurse encourage the client to add to the diet to help normalize bowel function after surgery?
A. Vitamins
B. Whole bran
C. Cod liver oil
D. Amino acids
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when would the nurse begin to teach how to care for the wound to a client who is hospitalized for intravenous antibiotic therapy and an incision and drainage of an abscess that developed at the site of a puncture wound? in the preoperative period two days before discharge on the first postoperative day during the first dressing change
The nurse should teach how to care for the wound to a client who is hospitalized for intravenous antibiotic therapy in preoperative peroid.
The preoperative phase is the time period between the decision to have surgery and the morning of the surgical procedure. The preoperative phase can range from twinkles to months. For a case who has been diagnosed with a critical illness that must be corrected with surgery, the time from opinion to surgery may be measured in twinkles. Those types of situations are generally caused by a traumatic injury or massive bleeding. For cases with a surgery planned in advance, the preoperative period may last for months. Some cases bear expansive testing to determine whether they're suitable to tolerate the stresses of surgery and anesthesia. Others bear" tuning up", a period of time where they work to ameliorate their overall health under the care of the preoperative platoon.
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a 9-year-old child sustained a deep partial-thickness second degree burn to the volar aspect of the forearm and wrist 2 months ago. the wound did not require skin grafting and is now fully closed. which scar management technique is most beneficial to include as part of the child's overall intervention at this stage of the healing process?
Scar management technique are scar massage, silicone application, and sunblock. most beneficial to include as part of the child's overall intervention at this stage of the healing process.
When the skin is harmed by a burn, trauma, or surgery, scars naturally form as a natural part of healing. Everybody develops scars uniquely.
The full healing of scars might take up to a year.
You won't be able to tell your child's scar has changed until at least 6 to 8 weeks have passed since the operation or damage. Scars start to transform at this point from a thick, raised, red scar to a thin, flat, white scar. Applying scar management measures to your child's scar is crucial. The scar will become flatter, smoother, and more malleable as a result. The less unpleasant and apparent a scar is for your child, the flatter, smoother, and more flexible it is.
Scar massage, silicone treatment, and sunscreen are all methods for managing scars.
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which dietary assessment tool furnishes an overall picture of the diet but requires the ability to judge portion sizes?
Food Frequency Questionnaire assessment tool furnishes an overall picture of the diet but requires the ability to judge portion sizes.
A food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) includes a limited selection of foods and drinks along with response options that reflect the typical frequency of consumption during the time period in question. Typically, 80 to 120 different foods and drinks are questioned in order to evaluate a person's diet as a whole.
For each type of food and beverage, you can inquire about the typical serving size. Alternately, you can integrate information on portion size and frequency by asking respondents to convert their typical consumption amount to the number of predetermined units (for example, How often do you eat a 12 cup of rice?). In an effort to improve reporting accuracy, some questionnaires contain pictures of portions.
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What two groups of ingredients were exempted from the regulation process?
Before a substance can be added to food, federal rules demand proof that it is secure for usage at the intended amount.
Do any food additives have any exceptions to the requirement for approval?
The FDA's testing and approval procedures for two categories of food additives were waived by the Food Additives Amendment. First, there is the list of chemicals that are "generally recognized as safe" (GRAS). There are many different compounds in this category, such as phosphates, carrageenan, and regularly used spices and flavorings.It is not necessary to list an ingredient on the label if it is only present incidentally and has no impact on the completed product's functionality or technical aspects. It is common for an incidental addition to be present since it is a component of another product.To learn more about food additives refer to:
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the nurse is planning care for a client. which information is most important for the nurse to apply in developing a plan of care?
Interventions is most important for the nurse to apply in developing a plan of care.
In general , nursing interventions help patients reach specific health goals. This involves Administering medication, dressing wounds, and ensuring that patient stays hydrated and relieved from pain are just some of the ways in which nurse carry out the treatment plans for speedy recovery.
Hence , Nursing interventions is considered as an steps taken by the nurse to achieve patient goals and get desired outcomes This may include various plans like giving medications, educating the patient, checking vital signs every couple hours or assessing the patient's pain levels at certain intervals.
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the nurse teaches the mother of a 2-year-old child how to instill antibiotic otic drops. the mother indicates understanding of the skill when she takes which action?
The mother indicates understanding of the skill when she properly instills the antibiotic otic drops in the child's ear.
Learning to Instill Antibiotic Otic Drops in a 2-Year-Old ChildThe nurse teaches the mother of a 2-year-old child how to instill antibiotic otic drops. The nurse explains how to properly instill the drops in the child's ear, including the correct angle and depth for insertion. The nurse then guides the mother through the process, demonstrating each step and providing feedback on her technique. The mother indicates understanding of the skill when she successfully completes a practice run of instilling the antibiotic otic drops in the child's ear.
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what is the coordination number of the platinum in the chemotherapy medication cisplatin, ptcl2(nh3)2
The chemotherapeutic drug cisplatin (cis-diamminedichloroplatinum(II), PtCl2(NH3)2) has a platinum coordination number of six.
The platinum atom in cisplatin is linked to four nitrogen atoms from two NH3 molecules and two chloride ions. The octahedral geometry is altered as a result of this coordination. The chemotherapy drug cisplatin is used to treat a variety of cancers, including lung, ovarian, bladder, and testicular tumors.
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the staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by which acronym?
The staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by RACE which is the term for rescue, alarm, contain, and extinguish.
R.A.C.E. : An abbreviation used by hospital workers to recall their responsibilities in the event of a fire. It is an acronym that stands for RESCUE, ALARM, CONFINE, and EXTINGUISH/EVACUATE.
If it does not threaten your own life, R = RESCUE anybody in imminent danger from the fire. By triggering the fire alarm system, A = ALERT. C = Shut down all windows and entrances to CONFINE the flames. E = EXTINGUISHER or EVACUATE if the fire is too huge.
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Complete question :
The staff nurse knows that many health care facilities use the fire emergency response defined by which acronym?
a. RACE
b. PASS
c. PACE
d. QSEN
a client calls the primary health care provider's office to schedule an appointment because a home pregnancy test was performed and the results were positive. the nurse determines that the home pregnancy test identified the presence of which in the urine?
The nurse determines that the home pregnancy test identified the presence of a hormone in the urine called: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Pregnancy is the stage achieved after the fertilization of ovum by the sperm inside the female. It is the period of development of a single-celled zygote into a fully developed child. The period of pregnancy in humans is of 9 months.
hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta after a women becomes pregnant. The role of the hormone is to thicken the blood lining of the uterus in order to provide the correct environment for the fetus to develop.
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Which factors can move a client to the illness end of the health-illness continuum? Select All That Apply.
1.
Injuries
2.
Mental disorders
3.
Physical ailments
4.
Exercise and activity
5.
Hospitalization
The factors that can move a client to the illness end of the health-illness continuum are:
1. Injuries
2. Mental disorders
3. Physical ailments
5. Hospitalization
A continuum of care is essentially a system that provides a full variety of health services in order for treatment to change with the patient through time. The continuum of care exists to guarantee that gaps in care are addressed, with the knowledge that a patient's health may be most susceptible during such gaps.
Disability, symptoms, awareness, education, and development are the five stages along the continuum. For example, if a person has a fever and believes he will be OK in a few days if he continues his therapy, he will have both mental and physical wellness. In the event of a negative attitude, the individual will be in emotional discomfort, and recovery from disease may be delayed.
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in which triage category would the nurse include a client who requires simple first aid or basic primary care?
Why might two individuals have different responses to stressors?
Two people react differently to stressors because they are subjected to different environmental pressures and have different genetic structures, which allow them to respond differently to stressors.
What is the significance of the stressors?Different stressors exist as a result of genetic and environmental differences such as life experiences, upbringing, and personality are examples of environmental factors, as are other psychological factors. Genetic factors include specific genes or variations in hormone regulation in the organisms.
Hence, two people react differently to stressors because they are subjected to different environmental pressures and have different genetic structures, which allow them to respond differently to stressors.
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