ELISA Tutorial 1: How a Direct, Indirect, and Sandwich ELISA Works
When is an ELISA done?
In the video, what might the specific protein be sought to be?
What is an antibody?
What is a direct ELISA?
What is an indirect ELISA?
When might it be useful to use this ELISA instead of a direct ELISA?
What is a Sandwich ELISA?
What makes an ELISA sensitive?

Answers

Answer 1

An ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is done when students or healthcare experts want to detect and quantify the presence of a specific protein or antigen in a sample. ELISA is widely used in various fields, including medical diagnostics, research, and quality control.

In the video, the specific protein being sought could be any protein of interest depending on the experiment or diagnostic purpose. It could be a disease biomarker, a viral antigen, or any other protein of interest.

An antibody is a specialized protein produced by the immune system in response to the presence of foreign substances, such as antigens. Antibodies specifically bind to antigens, helping to identify and eliminate them from the body.

A direct ELISA involves the direct binding of an antibody (or antigen) labeled with an enzyme to the target antigen (or antibody) immobilized on a solid surface, such as a microplate. The enzyme activity is then detected to determine the presence or quantity of the target antigen.

An indirect ELISA uses two antibodies. The first antibody, which is specific to the target antigen, is used to bind to the antigen immobilized on a solid surface. Then, a secondary antibody, labeled with an enzyme, binds to the first antibody. The enzyme activity is detected to determine the presence or quantity of the target antigen. Indirect ELISA provides signal amplification as multiple secondary antibodies can bind to a single primary antibody, increasing the sensitivity of the assay.

An indirect ELISA might be useful when the primary antibody used for detection is not available in a labeled form. In this case, a secondary antibody that recognizes the primary antibody can be used, which is conjugated with an enzyme for signal detection.

A Sandwich ELISA is used to detect and quantify an antigen of interest. It involves the use of two specific antibodies. The capture antibody is immobilized on a solid surface, and it binds to the target antigen. Then, a detection antibody, labeled with an enzyme, binds to a different epitope on the target antigen. This creates a "sandwich" structure with the antigen trapped in between. The enzyme activity is detected to determine the presence or quantity of the target antigen.

An ELISA is considered sensitive due to the amplification provided by the enzyme-labeling system. Enzymes catalyze a reaction that produces a detectable signal, usually a color change or light emission, amplifying the original signal from the antibody-antigen interaction. Additionally, careful optimization of the assay conditions and using high-affinity antibodies contribute to the sensitivity of an ELISA.

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Related Questions

an aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that the estimate of uncollectible accounts 7900

Answers

An aging of a company's accounts receivable is a technique used to determine the time when an account receivable will be paid. The aging of accounts receivable is essential to businesses because it helps them avoid cash flow problems.

The aging of accounts receivable is done by separating all accounts by the length of time they have been outstanding. The estimate of uncollectible accounts is determined by the allowance method. The allowance method is a way of estimating bad debt expenses and is based on the percentage of credit sales or accounts receivable. The aging of accounts receivable is used to estimate uncollectible accounts because it allows businesses to identify the accounts that are likely to be uncollectible. If the aging of accounts receivable indicates that the estimate of uncollectible accounts is $7,900, the company should increase its allowance for doubtful accounts by $7,900. The allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra asset account that is used to reduce the balance of accounts receivable to the amount that is expected to be collected. In conclusion, the aging of accounts receivable is a useful tool for businesses to estimate uncollectible accounts and avoid cash flow problems.

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In the EMG experiment. the measured force came from the contraction of which muscles? Check all that apply. Check All That Apply ◯ flexor digitorum superficialis ◯ flexor pollicis longus ◯ flexor carpi ulnaris ◯ flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus

Answers

The muscles whose contractions were measured in the EMG experiment are: a. flexor digitorum superficialis,  b. flexor pollicis longus, , c. flexor carpi ulnaris,  and  d. flexor carpi radialis.

In the EMG experiment, the measured force came from the contractions of the following muscles:

a. Flexor digitorum superficialis: This muscle is located in the forearm and is responsible for flexing the fingers.

b. Flexor pollicis longus: This muscle is also located in the forearm and is responsible for flexing the thumb.

c. Flexor carpi ulnaris: Found in the forearm, the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is involved in flexion and adduction of the wrist.

d. Flexor carpi radialis: Also located in the forearm, the flexor carpi radialis muscle is responsible for flexion and abduction of the wrist.

These muscles were chosen for measurement in the EMG experiment to assess their electrical activity and provide insights into their contraction patterns and strength during specific movements or tasks.

The correct format of the question shoud be:

In the EMG experiment. the measured force came from the contraction of which muscles?

Select All That Apply

a. flexor digitorum superficialis

b. flexor pollicis longus

c. flexor carpi ulnaris

d. flexor carpi radialis

e. palmaris longus

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Question one correct answer An electron micrograph shows a gall capillary. Indicate what formed its wall? O Cell membranes of adjacent hepatocytes O Cell membranes of adjacent acinar cells O Pit cells O Endotheliocytes O Hepatic stellate cells

Answers

An electron micrograph shows a gall capillary. The correct answer is: Endotheliocytes formed its wall. Option c.

What is a gall capillary?

A gall capillary is a small vessel that forms part of the blood vessels in the liver. Endothelial cells are the cells that form its walls. The endothelium in the human body is made up of a layer of cells that line the inside of the heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. It functions as a selectively permeable barrier that regulates the movement of materials and cells between the bloodstream and the surrounding tissues. The liver endothelium also plays a role in hepatic function.

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please answer pharmacology
If the patient whose creatinine clearance is 30mL/min takes 15mg intravenous medication. What would be the dosage of the same medication in a healthy
individual?
Select one:
A) 45mg
B) 50mg
C) 30mg
D) 450mg
E) 15mg
creatinine is 100

Answers

The dosage of the same medication in a healthy individual would still be 15mg. The creatinine clearance value of 30mL/min indicates reduced kidney function, but it does not directly affect the dosage of the medication.

Option (E) is correct.

Creatinine clearance is a measure of kidney function that estimates the rate at which the kidneys can clear creatinine from the blood. It is commonly used as an indicator of renal function, as impaired kidney function can affect the clearance of certain medications. In patients with reduced creatinine clearance, dosage adjustments may be necessary to prevent the accumulation of the medication and potential adverse effects.

In the given scenario, the dosage of the medication remains 15mg for a healthy individual because the medication is not significantly cleared by the kidneys. The dosage of a medication is determined based on factors such as the desired therapeutic effect, drug metabolism, and the patient's condition. While creatinine clearance provides valuable information about renal function, it is not the sole determinant for adjusting medication dosages.

Healthcare professionals consider multiple factors, including the drug's pharmacokinetics and the patient's overall health, when determining the appropriate dosage. Therefore, in this case, the dosage remains the same for both the patient with a creatinine clearance of 30mL/min and the healthy individual.

So, the correct option is (E).

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In contrast to dextrins, limit dextrins contain some
A• glucoses molecules linked by 1-6 bonds
B. glucose molecules linked by 1-4 bonds
C• only fructose molecules
D• glucosed molecules linked by 1-1 bonds

Answers

In contrast to dextrins, limit dextrins contain some glucose molecules linked by 1-6 bonds.

Limit dextrins are intermediate products formed during the enzymatic breakdown of starch. They are characterized by having branched structures, with glucose molecules connected by 1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic bonds. While dextrins primarily consist of glucose molecules linked by 1-4 bonds, limit dextrins contain additional branches created by the presence of 1-6 bonds. These branched structures contribute to the unique properties and functions of limit dextrins in various biological and food-related processes.

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SCIENTIFIC INQUIRY INTERPRET THE DATA A Minnesota gardener notes that the plants immediately bordering a walkway are stunted compared with those farther away. Suspecting that the soil near the walkway may be contaminated from salt added to the walkway in winter, the gardener tests the soil. The composition of the soil near the walkway is identical to that farther away except that it contains an additional 50m MNaCl . Assuming that the ф NaCl is completely ionized, calculate how much it will lower the solute potential of the soil at 20°C using the solute potential equation:

фS = -i C R T where i is the ionization constant ( 2 for NaCl ), C is the molar concentration (in mol / L, R is the pressure constant [R = 0.00831L . c MPa/mol c .K] , and T is the temperature in Kelvin

273 + °C How would this change in the solute potential of the soil affect the water potential of the soil? In what way would the change in the water potential of the soil affect the movement of water in or out of the roots?

Answers

The addition of NaCl to the soil near the walkway may cause water to move out of the roots, which can cause the plants to become stunted.

Solute potential is affected by the addition of solutes, whereas water potential is affected by the addition of solutes and pressure.

When solutes are added to the soil, they can lower the solute potential, which in turn affects the water potential of the soil, making it more negative.

As a result, the movement of water in or out of the roots is restricted.

Given equation of solute potential,

фS = -i C R T

where i is the ionization constant (2 for NaCl),

C is the molar concentration (in mol/L),

R is the pressure constant [R = 0.00831 L.c MPa/mol K],

and T is the temperature in Kelvin [273 + °C]

Concentration of NaCl added to the soil = 50mM

To convert 50 mM to mol/L,

Divide it by 1000.50 mM = 50 / 1000 = 0.05 mol/L

Therefore, the solute potential of the soil will be:

фS = -2 × 0.05 × 0.00831 × (273 + 20)

фS = -0.027 MPa

The solute potential of the soil will be lowered by 0.027 MPa.

The change in the solute potential of the soil affects the water potential of the soil, making it more negative.

The movement of water in or out of the roots is restricted because water moves from areas of higher water potential to areas of lower water potential.

The addition of solutes to the soil results in a lower water potential, which restricts water movement.

As a result, the addition of NaCl to the soil near the walkway may cause water to move out of the roots, which can cause the plants to become stunted.

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1. Describe and explain the second messenger system.
2. Explain transport through capillary walls.
3. Explain the cell-mediated response in immunity.
4. Explain the regulation of urine concentration and volume.
5. Explain carbohydrate metabolism.

Answers

The second messenger system refers to the process of the activation of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) by ligands, resulting in the triggering of intracellular signaling cascades.

It is a method used by cells to transduce signals from membrane-bound receptors to the inside of the cell where it causes a response to occur. In other words, the second messenger system is a signal transduction mechanism that involves the generation of second messengers within the cytoplasm in response to activation of cell surface receptors by extracellular signaling molecules.

.2. Transport through capillary wallsCapillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body, where gas and nutrient exchange takes place between the blood and tissues. Transport across capillary walls occurs through three mechanisms: diffusion, bulk flow, and transcytosis. Diffusion is the passive movement of substances from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.3.Cell-mediated response in immunityThe cell-mediated response is a type of immune response that involves the activation of T cells to target infected cells. The process begins with the recognition of an antigen by a T cell receptor (TCR) on the surface of a T cell.

4.Regulation of urine concentration and volumeThe regulation of urine concentration and volume is primarily controlled by the kidneys through the processes of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.

5.Carbohydrate metabolismCarbohydrate metabolism refers to the biochemical processes that are involved in the breakdown, synthesis, and storage of carbohydrates in the body. Carbohydrates are the primary source of energy for the body, and they are stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle tissue.

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Compare and contrast the two types of muscle fibers that predominate human skeletal muscle. describe the myosin isoform found in each fiber, as well as the fiber diameter, aerobic capacity, and amount of force produced by each.

Answers

Type I fibers have a slower contraction speed, smaller diameter, higher aerobic capacity, and lower force production. Type II fibers, on the other hand, have faster contraction speed, larger diameter, lower aerobic capacity, and higher force production.

The two types of muscle fibers that predominate human skeletal muscle are called Type I (slow-twitch) and Type II (fast-twitch) fibers. These fibers differ in various aspects, including myosin isoform, fiber diameter, aerobic capacity, and force production.

Type I fibers contain a myosin isoform called Myosin Heavy Chain I (MHC-I), which is characterized by its slower contraction speed. These fibers have a smaller diameter, typically ranging between 50-70 micrometers. Type I fibers are highly aerobic, meaning they rely primarily on oxidative metabolism to generate energy.

They contain a rich supply of mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries, which support their endurance capabilities. Due to their oxidative nature, Type I fibers are resistant to fatigue. However, they produce relatively lower force compared to Type II fibers.

Type II fibers comprise several subtypes, with the main ones being Type IIa and Type IIx or IIb (sometimes referred to as fast-twitch or fast-glycolytic fibers). These fibers contain myosin isoforms MHC-IIa and MHC-IIx/IIb, respectively. Type II fibers have a larger diameter, typically ranging between 70-110 micrometers.

They rely more on anaerobic metabolism and have a lower aerobic capacity compared to Type I fibers. Consequently, they fatigue more quickly. However, Type II fibers generate greater force due to their larger motor units and higher myosin ATPase activity.

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• List the 3 complement pathways (+1). All 3 pathways converge at the formation of which enzyme? (+1) • Describe the difference between MHCI antigen presentation and MHCI antigen presentation. • Describe the function of the Fab site (+1) and Fc site (+1) of antibodies.

Answers

Complement pathways, Alternative pathway, Lectin pathway, Classical pathway.

All three pathways converge at the formation of a membrane attack complex (MAC).

Antigen presentation refers to the process in which antigen-presenting cells (APCs) display antigen fragments on their cell surface. This activates T-cells and initiates an immune response.

MHCI molecules are expressed on the surface of most nucleated cells. They bind and display short peptides (8-10 amino acids) derived from intracellular proteins. This is known as "MHCI antigen presentation."

MHCII molecules are expressed on specialized antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells. They bind and display peptides derived from extracellular pathogens. This is referred to as "MHCII antigen presentation."

Fab stands for Fragment, antigen-binding. It is responsible for the antigen-binding activity of an antibody. The Fab site contains specific amino acid sequences that allow recognition and binding to a unique antigenic determinant.

Fc site, Fc stands for Fragment, crystallizable. It is responsible for the effector functions of an antibody. The Fc site interacts with Fc receptors on certain cells, leading to the activation of various immune effector mechanisms.

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Which statement is true regarding muscle contraction? a. ATP is needed to release the thick filament from the thin filament b. The T-tubules store the calcium ions within the internal part of the muscle cell c. Tropomyosin protein binds to the actin protein d. The power stroke occurs when the thick filament binds to the thin filament

Answers

The statement that is true regarding muscle contraction is: The power stroke occurs when the thick filament binds to the thin filament. The correct answer is D.

Muscle contraction is a physiological process in which the tension of muscle fibers is increased. Muscle contractions may be isometric, which means that the muscle tension remains the same, or isotonic, which means that the tension is the same throughout the muscle.

During muscle contraction, the myosin head forms a cross-bridge with actin and pulls it towards the center of the sarcomere, resulting in a decrease in the distance between the Z-discs of the sarcomere. This process is known as the power stroke. ATP is required to break the cross-bridge between myosin and actin, and new ATP is required for the myosin head. The correct answer is D: The power stroke occurs when the thick filament binds to the thin filament.

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What hormones act on the kidneys that are involved in regulating
blood volume

Answers

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin, Aldosterone, Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP), and Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) are the hormones act on the kidneys to regulate blood volume.

Several hormones act on the kidneys to regulate blood volume. These hormones include:

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin: ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, reducing urine volume and helping to conserve water. This mechanism helps regulate blood volume and prevent dehydration.

Aldosterone: Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium ions and the excretion of potassium ions. This leads to increased water reabsorption, which helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure.

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP): ANP is released by specialized cells in the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure. ANP acts on the kidneys to promote the excretion of sodium and water, thereby reducing blood volume and blood pressure.

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS): The RAAS is a complex hormonal system involved in regulating blood volume and blood pressure. Renin, an enzyme released by the kidneys, initiates the RAAS pathway. Renin converts angiotensinogen, produced by the liver, into angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by the enzyme ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme). Angiotensin II acts on the adrenal glands to stimulate the release of aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water reabsorption, leading to an increase in blood volume.

These hormones, through their actions on the kidneys, play essential roles in regulating blood volume and maintaining overall fluid balance in the body.

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How
are brightfield, darkfield, phase- contrast, and fluorescence
microscopy similar? Make sure you include the similarities in their
lenses and basic microscope design as well.

Answers

Brightfield, darkfield, phase-contrast, and fluorescence microscopy all use lenses and a basic microscope design to visualize specimens, although they differ in illumination techniques and contrast mechanisms.

Brightfield, darkfield, phase-contrast, and fluorescence microscopy share similarities in their use of lenses and a basic microscope design. They all utilize a combination of objective and ocular lenses to magnify and focus light on the specimen being observed. The basic microscope design consists of a light source, condenser, specimen stage, and a set of lenses.

However, these microscopy techniques differ in their illumination techniques and contrast mechanisms. Brightfield microscopy uses transmitted white light to illuminate the specimen, providing contrast between the specimen and the surrounding background. Darkfield microscopy uses oblique or angled lighting to selectively illuminate the specimen, creating a bright image against a dark background. Phase-contrast microscopy enhances contrast by exploiting the phase differences of light passing through different parts of the specimen. Fluorescence microscopy uses fluorescent dyes or labels to emit light of a different wavelength, allowing specific structures or molecules to be visualized.

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Describe the difference between a nervous reflex and an endocrine reflex. Which one is faster and why? (3 marks)

Answers

The difference between a nervous reflex and an endocrine reflex is:In a nervous reflex, the response is brought about by the transmission of impulses along a neuron or across synapses; neurotransmitters are the chemical messengers involved.

In comparison, an endocrine reflex employs hormones, which are secreted into the bloodstream and transported to target cells, where they exert their effects.

These hormones may affect a wide range of organs, including those that are not immediately adjacent to the site of the original stimulus.Nervous reflexes are faster than endocrine reflexes, primarily due to the nature of the signal transmission.

In nervous reflexes, signals travel along the axons of neurons, which have a very high conduction velocity, while in endocrine reflexes, signals are carried via the circulatory system, which is comparatively slower.

This means that nervous reflexes can achieve a faster response time than endocrine reflexes, making them useful in situations that demand a quick response.

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• Describe the difference between the wall of an artery and the wall of the vein and how blood flow and pressure experienced between arteries and veins is different • In lecture we described 6 different types of vessels (arterioles, muscular arteries, elastic arteries, venules, veins, and capillaries) which of these vessels experiences the highest blood pressure and which of these vessels experiences the lowest blood pressure) • What are the two primary ways that materials move into and out of capillaries (i.e., capillary exchange) • Which cartilages attach to and move the vocal cords • What is the function of elastic in blood vessel walls? What is the function of smooth muscle in blood vessels walls • Describe the characteristics and anatomy of lymph capillaries • What are the similarities and differences between lymph NODULES and lymph NODES • Describe the arteries (including specific regions of the aorta) that blood would travel through on its way from the heart into the lower limbs • Describe the pressure differences between the lungs/alveoli and the atmosphere that result in exhalation and inhalation
• Describe the relationship primary, secondary, and tertiary bronchi have with the segments, lobes, and two lungs. • What mechanisms move lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Answers

1. Artery walls are thicker and more muscular compared to vein walls.

2. Elastic arteries have highest and capillaries have lowest blood pressure.

3. Capillary exchange occurs through diffusion and bulk flow.

4. Arytenoid cartilages attach and move vocal cords.

5. Elastic fibres give elasticity while smooth muscles regulate diameter.

6. Lymph capillaries are thin-walled vessels having overlapping endothelial cells.

7. Lymph nodules are clusters of tissue whereas lymph nodes are organs.

8. Aorta → thoracic aorta → abdominal aorta → common iliac arteries.

9. During inhalation, pressure decreases and during exhalation, pressure increases.

10. The primary bronch divides into the secondary bronchi which further divides into the tertiary bronchi.

11. The mechanisms are contraction of smooth muscles, valves and external forces.

1. Arteries have a thick layer of smooth muscle and elastic fibers that allow them to withstand high blood pressure and maintain their shape. Veins have thinner walls with less smooth muscle and more elastic tissue and also have valves.

2. Among the listed vessels, elastic arteries experience the highest blood pressure due to their proximity to the heart and their ability to expand and recoil. Capillaries experience the lowest blood pressure as they have a large total cross-sectional area, allowing for slower blood flow and efficient exchange of materials.

3. Capillaries facilitate the exchange of materials between the blood and surrounding tissues through two primary mechanisms: diffusion and bulk flow. Diffusion allows for the passive movement of molecules down their concentration gradient, while bulk flow involves the movement of fluid along a pressure gradient.

4. The cartilages that attach to and move the vocal cords are the arytenoid cartilages. The movement of the arytenoid cartilages allows for the adjustment of tension and position of the vocal cords, enabling changes in pitch and volume of the voice.

5. The function of elastic fibers in blood vessel walls is to provide elasticity and recoil. By contracting or relaxing, smooth muscle cells regulate the diameter of blood vessels, which directly affects blood flow and blood pressure.

6. Lymph capillaries have overlapping endothelial cells that act as one-way valves, allowing fluid to enter but preventing its backflow. Lymph capillaries are highly permeable and present throughout most tissues, except the CNS.

7. Lymph nodules are small clusters of lymphoid tissue found within organs like the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, lymph nodes are encapsulated bean-shaped organs along lymphatic vessels. They have a complex structure with cortex and medulla regions.

8. The arteries that blood would travel through on its way from the heart into the lower limbs include aorta → thoracic aorta → abdominal aorta → common iliac arteries.

9. The pressure differences between the lungs/alveoli and the atmosphere drive inhalation and exhalation. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts, creating a larger thoracic cavity and reducing the intra-alveolar pressure. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes, reducing the thoracic cavity's size and increasing the intra-alveolar pressure.

10. The primary bronchi are the main branches of the trachea that enter the lungs. They divide into secondary bronchi, which correspond to the lobes of the lungs. The secondary bronchi further divide into tertiary bronchi, which supply air to the bronchopulmonary segments within each lobe.

11. Lymph moves through lymphatic vessels primarily through three mechanisms:

a) Contraction of smooth muscles: The walls of lymphatic vessels contain smooth muscles that contract rhythmically, propelling lymph forward.

b) Valves: One-way valves in the lymphatic vessels prevent backflow of lymph, ensuring its unidirectional flow.

c) External forces: Surrounding skeletal muscles, pulsations of nearby arteries, and movements of adjacent organs can exert external pressure on lymphatic vessels, aiding the movement of lymph.

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Explain the stress response in the body. How does it begin, what
part of the body initiates the stress response, what
chemicals/hormones are released, and what happens during the
response to our body?

Answers

The stress response is an automatic reaction of the body to an actual or perceived threat that causes physical, emotional, and psychological changes. This response is known as the “fight or flight” response, and it is activated when the hypothalamus in the brain detects a stressor.

The hypothalamus then activates the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), which initiates the stress response. The SNS signals the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. These hormones prepare the body to fight or flee by increasing heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure. They also divert blood flow away from the digestive and reproductive systems and towards the muscles and limbs, providing energy for action. During the stress response, the body also releases cortisol, which is a stress hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. Cortisol increases blood sugar levels, suppresses the immune system, and helps the body to use fat and protein for energy. It also helps to maintain blood pressure and cardiovascular function in response to stressors. The stress response can be helpful in dangerous situations, allowing the body to respond quickly and effectively to potential threats. However, chronic stress can be harmful to health, leading to a range of physical and psychological problems, including anxiety, depression, high blood pressure, heart disease, and diabetes.

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What are the net products of Glycolysis? Consider the metabolism of one molecule of glucose in the absence of Oxygen. 2 molecules of ATP, 2 NADH, 2 H20, 2 Lactic Acid 36-38 molecules of ATP 2 molecules of ATP, 2 NADH, 2 H20, 2 Pyruvic Acid 2 molecules of ATP, 4 NADH, 2 C02, 2 Acetyl-CoA,

Answers

The net products of glycolysis when one molecule of glucose is metabolized in the absence of Oxygen is 2 molecules of ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvic acid.

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that involves the conversion of glucose into pyruvate. It is the first step in the process of cellular respiration, and it occurs in the cytoplasm of cells. Glycolysis is an anaerobic process, which means it can occur in the absence of oxygen. Glycolysis involves a series of ten reactions, which can be divided into two stages: the preparatory phase and the payoff phase.

During the preparatory phase, two molecules of ATP are utilized to prepare the glucose molecule for further metabolism. The glucose molecule is then split into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. During the payoff phase, each glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecule is converted into pyruvate, and two molecules of ATP are produced. In addition, two molecules of NADH are produced as electron carriers.

The net yield of ATP during glycolysis is two molecules.

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The stotement that best describes Hyperosmolor Hyperglycemic Syndrome is
Select one a. A metobolic disordes of type DM chorocterized by metabolic ocio b. A metobolic disorder of type 2 DM occurring with younga.lt
c. A metobolic disordet of type 2 DM characterized by severe con d. A lite threatening disorder that requires tuid restriction

Answers

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is a life-threatening disorder that requires fluid restriction. It is a metabolic disorder that is characterized by severe dehydration. Option d is the right answer. Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is a severe complication of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). It is characterized by extreme elevations in blood sugar levels and is caused by insufficient insulin levels in the body, which leads to hyperglycemia. As a result, glucose builds up in the bloodstream, leading to osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. This often leads to the onset of HHS.

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome   is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) and severe dehydration (osmolarity). HHS is often accompanied by other complications such as altered mental status, neurological symptoms, electrolyte imbalances, and organ dysfunction. Prompt medical intervention is necessary, including fluid replacement and insulin therapy, to manage the condition and prevent further complications. A metabolic disorder of type 2 DM characterized by severe complications.

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5. Contraceptive pills containing estradiol or estradiol plus progesterone are given at programmed doses during the ovarian cycle to prevent follicle maturation and ovulation.
Explain how these pills work.

Answers

Contraceptive pills containing estradiol or estradiol plus progesterone are given at programmed doses during the ovarian cycle to prevent follicle maturation and ovulation. These pills work by disrupting the menstrual cycle and preventing ovulation.

They contain hormones, usually a combination of estrogen and progestin, that inhibit the body's natural production of these hormones. The pills are taken daily for 21 days, followed by a seven-day break during which a woman will experience bleeding similar to a menstrual period. During this time, the body is not producing eggs, making it difficult for fertilization and pregnancy to occur.By suppressing ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the uterine lining, contraceptive pills effectively reduce the chances of fertilization and pregnancy. It's important to note that while these pills are highly effective at preventing pregnancy when taken correctly, they do not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

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The nitering unit of the nephron is: Arenal corpuscle Brenal tubules. C. Nephron D. Bowman's capsule E. endothelial-capsular membrane. 19 3 points Urine is derived from filtering blood plasma, and is formed by which of the following functions of the nephron(s)? A Glomerular filtration B. Tubular reabsorption C. Tubular secretion D. All of the above E. Two of the above. 20 3points What percentage of substances filtered from the glomerulus blood/plasma is reabsorbed into peritubular capillary blood? A. 89% OB.99% C. 100% D. 78.9% F 50%

Answers

The answer to the first question is D. Bowman's capsule.

The answer is D. All of the above.

The answer is B.99%.

An individual nephron of the kidney has a renal corpuscle, which is made up of a Bowman's capsule and glomerulus. The Bowman's capsule is a cup-like structure that encloses the glomerulus, which is a small, ball-shaped structure that filters blood. Bowman's capsule is the interring unit of the nephron.

The blood plasma that has been filtered then passes into the renal tubule as filtrate after it has passed through the endothelial-capsular membrane. Therefore, the mitering unit of the nephron is Bowman's capsule. Urine is formed by three functions of the nephron(s): glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.

The amount of substance filtered from the glomerulus blood/plasma that is reabsorbed into peritubular capillary blood is B. 99%. Most of the filtered substances, such as water, glucose, amino acids, and ions, are reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries.

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Which of the compounds below would you expect to form a covalent bond? Select all that apply. a. CBr4 b. H2O c. Mgo d. K2S

Answers

A covalent bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms. The compounds that are expected to form a covalent bond are A) CBr4 and B) H2O.

Covalent bonds are expected to form between atoms of non-metals and other non-metals.

On the other hand, ionic bonds are expected to form between atoms of metals and non-metals.

Let's see why these compounds form covalent bonds:

CBr4: Carbon and Bromine are non-metals. They will share electrons to form a covalent bond.

H2O: Oxygen is a non-metal and hydrogen is a metalloid. They will share electrons to form a covalent bond.

MgO: Magnesium is a metal and oxygen is a non-metal. They will form an ionic bond.

K2S: Potassium is a metal and sulfur is a non-metal. They will form an ionic bond.

Thus, the correct option is A) CBr4 and B) H2O

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When an oxygen molecule binds to the deoxyhemoglobin, multiple conformational changes happen that switch the hemoglobin from a T state to an R state. Describe the key conformational changes that happen that lead to the switch of Hemoblogin to an R state, starting with oxygen binding.

Answers

Oxygen binding to deoxyhemoglobin induces conformational changes, including breaking salt bridges, subunit movement, and transition to the R state. This enhances oxygen affinity and facilitates oxygen release in tissues.

When an oxygen molecule binds to deoxyhemoglobin, it triggers a series of conformational changes that convert hemoglobin from a T (tense) state to an R (relaxed) state. This transition is known as the oxygenation of hemoglobin. Here are the key conformational changes that occur:

Oxygen binding: Oxygen molecules (O2) bind to the iron (Fe) atoms present in the heme groups of hemoglobin. Each hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules.Breaking salt bridges: Upon oxygen binding, the interaction between the positively charged histidine residues in the hemoglobin molecule and negatively charged residues in the neighboring subunits is weakened. This leads to the breaking of salt bridges, allowing for structural changes.Subunit movement: The breaking of salt bridges induces a movement of the subunits within the hemoglobin molecule. This movement involves the rotation and translation of the α (alpha) and β (beta) subunits relative to each other.T-to-R transition: As the subunits move, the hemoglobin molecule undergoes a transition from the T state to the R state. In the T state, the hemoglobin has a low affinity for oxygen, while in the R state, it has a high affinity for oxygen.Structural changes: The transition to the R state leads to a rearrangement of the quaternary structure of hemoglobin. The movement of the subunits and changes in their interactions result in an overall conformational change, including alterations in the positions of helices and other structural elements.Oxygen release: In the R state, oxygen molecules are held more tightly within the heme groups. This allows oxygen to be released more readily to the tissues during oxygen exchange in the lungs.

It's important to note that these conformational changes are reversible, and hemoglobin can switch back to the T state when oxygen is released. The binding and release of oxygen by hemoglobin are essential for its function in oxygen transport throughout the body.

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How do the kidneys and lungs work together to maintain blood pH homeostasis?

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The lungs and kidneys work together to maintain blood pH homeostasis. The lungs contribute by regulating the carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration in the blood, while the kidneys contribute by regulating the bicarbonate (HCO3−) concentration in the blood. They both work together to maintain an ideal pH range in the bloodstream.

Blood pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of blood. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. Anything lower than 7 is acidic, while anything higher than 7 is basic. Blood pH is tightly controlled in the range of 7.35 to 7.45 by various organ systems in the body, including the lungs and kidneys.

The lungs contribute to blood pH homeostasis by regulating the concentration of CO2 in the blood. Carbon dioxide is an acidic gas that forms when the body breaks down food for energy. The lungs remove CO2 from the body by exhaling it out of the body. When blood pH becomes too low (too acidic), the lungs increase their rate of ventilation to remove more CO2 from the blood, which increases blood pH. When blood pH becomes too high (too basic), the lungs decrease their rate of ventilation to retain more CO2 in the blood, which lowers blood pH.

The kidneys contribute to blood pH homeostasis by regulating the concentration of HCO3− in the blood. Bicarbonate is a basic molecule that is formed when CO2 combines with water (H2O). The kidneys regulate HCO3− concentration in the blood by reabsorbing or excreting it. When blood pH becomes too low (too acidic), the kidneys increase the amount of HCO3− that is reabsorbed into the blood, which increases blood pH. When blood pH becomes too high (too basic), the kidneys excrete more HCO3− into the urine, which lowers blood pH.

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12. Describe in detail the movement of oxygen inwards via the mouth, and carbon dioxide outwards via mouth (include systemic circulation and peripheral capillary beds). Include in your answer a discussion of how hemoglobin dissociation curve contributes the loading and unloading of oxygen.

Answers

Oxygen moves inwards via the mouth in order to oxygenate the body, while carbon dioxide moves outwards via the mouth as a waste product of respiration. The process by which oxygen moves from the lungs to the peripheral tissues and how carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction is known as gas exchange.

 Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood through systemic circulation, which involves the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins. During systemic circulation, the blood leaves the heart and flows through arteries to the capillary beds in the body's tissues. At this point, oxygen is unloaded from the blood and into the tissues, and carbon dioxide is loaded onto the blood.

The blood then flows back to the heart via veins and is then pumped back to the lungs, where carbon dioxide is unloaded and oxygen is loaded back onto the blood for the next cycle. The hemoglobin dissociation curve shows how oxygen binds to hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells. When the oxygen concentration is high, the hemoglobin binds to the oxygen strongly, while when the oxygen concentration is low, the hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily.

This contributes to the loading and unloading of oxygen during the gas exchange process in the lungs and the peripheral tissues. When the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs is high, the hemoglobin becomes saturated with oxygen, and when the partial pressure of oxygen in the peripheral tissues is low, the hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily, allowing it to diffuse into the tissues.

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When an antigen fragment is bound to a MHC class I molecule to form a MHC-I-antigen complex, it can stimulate a
Group of answer choices
a. plasma cell.
b. B cell.
c. cytotoxic T cell.
d. NK cell.
e. helper T cell.

Answers

When an antigen fragment is bound to an MHC class I molecule to form an MHC-I-antigen complex, it can stimulate a cytotoxic T cell. Option C is the correct answer.

Cytotoxic T cells, also known as CD8+ T cells, play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and destroying cells that are infected with intracellular pathogens or cancerous cells.

The MHC-I-antigen complex on the surface of infected or abnormal cells serves as a signal for cytotoxic T cells to recognize and eliminate them. This immune response is important for eliminating infected or abnormal cells and maintaining overall immune system function.

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Indicate the function of the cerebral lobes. Personality, decision making. aggression, mood Most sensory input other than smell, taste, hearing, and vision Hearing, memory CMcGraw-Hill Education, Inc./Rebecca Gray Vision

Answers

The cerebral lobes have specific functions which are distributed across each of them. Below are the functions of the cerebral lobes:Frontal lobes.

The frontal lobes are responsible for motor functions like voluntary movement and coordination. It is also responsible for higher cognitive functions like decision-making, planning, reasoning, attention, memory and motivation. In addition, the frontal lobes are responsible for aspects of personality like aggression and mood. Parietal lobesThe parietal lobes are responsible for the interpretation of somatosensory information such as touch, pain, pressure, and temperature. The somatosensory cortex, located in the parietal lobes, receives and interprets the sensations of touch, pain, and temperature that are received from all parts of the body.

The temporal lobes are responsible for the processing of auditory information and the formation of memory. It is located in the lateral portion of each hemisphere and consists of two parts: the superior temporal gyrus and the inferior temporal gyrus. The superior temporal gyrus is responsible for hearing, while the inferior temporal gyrus is responsible for the interpretation of visual information. The occipital lobes are located at the back of the brain and are responsible for the processing of visual information. It is the primary visual cortex of the brain, which receives sensory input from the eyes and helps process this input into visual perception. The brain uses information from the eyes to identify and recognize objects.

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41. all of the following is information traveling to the cerebrum in the fasiculus gracilis and fasiculus cuneatus except a. proprioception b. pain c. vibration d. weight discrimination e. stereognosis 42. All of the following are under ANS control except -a. withdrawal reflex b. coughing c. sneezing d. swallowing

Answers

All the information traveling to the cerebrum in the fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus includes touch, vibration, proprioception, weight discrimination, and stereognosis, except for pain. The correct option is b. pain.

Explanation:

The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus are ascending tracts in the spinal cord that transmit sensory information from the limbs to the brainstem.

They carry touch, vibration, proprioception, weight discrimination, and stereognosis information from different parts of the body to the cerebrum for processing.

Regarding the autonomic nervous system (ANS), it controls involuntary bodily functions.

Coughing (option b), sneezing, and swallowing are reflex actions rather than functions directly regulated by the ANS.

Therefore, the correct answer is option b. coughing.

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What do you think would happen if you try to fire action
potentials in close succession?

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If action potentials are fired in close succession, it would result in a phenomenon known as temporal summation.

This refers to the process by which the postsynaptic potential is increased by the successive firing of presynaptic neurons.The action potentials in the axon of a neuron can trigger an influx of Ca2+ ions that leads to the release of neurotransmitters at the axon terminal. When this happens, it can trigger postsynaptic potentials in the dendrites of the next neuron, resulting in either an excitatory or inhibitory response.

If an excitatory response occurs, it could lead to temporal summation. This occurs when a neuron fires action potentials in rapid succession, leading to an accumulation of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. As a result, the postsynaptic neuron may become more depolarized and eventually reach the threshold for firing an action potential of its own. This phenomenon can be observed in neurons where the membrane potential is very close to the threshold potential.

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Final answer:

If action potentials are fired in close succession, the neuron goes into a refractory period where it either resists firing again until recovery or requires a greater stimulus to fire. The refractory period, which includes absolute and relative stages, helps prevent neuron damage from too many quickly fired action potentials.

Explanation:

The question is about what might happen when attempting to fire action potentials in close succession. The answer lies within a phenomenon known as the refractory period. The refractory period is the time immediately after an action potential has been fired, during which the neuron temporarily resists firing again. This period exists to prevent the neuron from firing too many action potentials too quickly, which could potentially damage the neuron.

There are two stages of the refractory period: absolute and relative. During the absolute refractory period, a neuron cannot generate another action potential under any circumstances. During the relative refractory period, a neuron can generate an action potential, but the stimulus required is greater than normal. So, if action potentials were to be fired in close succession, the neuron would enter the refractory period, and either resist firing again until it had recovered, or require a greater stimulus than normal to fire again.

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Which of the following is activated by contact with collagen and endothelium from the damaged vessel?
Group of answer choices
extrinsic pathway
intrinsic pathway
common pathway
none of the above

Answers

The correct option is the intrinsic pathway.it is activated by contact with collagen and endothelium from the damaged vessel leading to a cascade of clotting factors being activated.

The intrinsic pathway is activated by contact with collagen and endothelium from the damaged vessel. When a blood vessel is injured, collagen fibers are exposed, and platelets adhere to the damaged area. This interaction triggers a cascade of events leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation.

In the intrinsic pathway, a series of clotting factors, including factor XII, factor XI, factor IX, and factor VIII, are activated. These factors interact with one another, ultimately leading to the conversion of factor X to its active form, factor Xa. Factor Xa then plays a central role in the subsequent steps of the clotting process, leading to the formation of a fibrin clot.

The intrinsic pathway is called so because all the necessary factors for its activation are present within the bloodstream. It is a slower and more complex pathway compared to the extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, is initiated by tissue factor released by damaged tissues, and it primarily serves as a rapid initiation mechanism for clot formation.

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Which of the following statement(s) about the digestive system is (are) correct? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: A. Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the stomach. Bile is synthesized in the gall bladder. B. The common bile duct and the pancreatic duet drain into the major duodenal papilla. C. The glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation (both for taste and somatic sensory innervation) to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue. D. The lesser omentum connects the liver and the lesser curvature of the stomach.

Answers

Statement B is correct as bile is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Statement C is also correct as the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the posterior one-third of the tongue. Statement D is correct as the lesser omentum connects the liver and the lesser curvature of the stomach.

Bile is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder. The gallbladder acts as a reservoir for bile and releases it into the small intestine when needed for digestion.

The glossopharyngeal nerve, one of the cranial nerves, provides sensory innervation to the posterior one-third of the tongue. It carries taste sensations from this region and also provides somatic sensory innervation, allowing for general sensation, such as touch and temperature perception.

The lesser omentum is a double-layered peritoneal fold that connects the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. It helps to stabilize the position of the stomach and provides a pathway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics to reach these organs.

Digestion of carbohydrates primarily begins in the mouth, where salivary amylase starts breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. In the stomach, the digestion of carbohydrates is limited due to the acidic environment.

The main site for carbohydrate digestion is the small intestine, where pancreatic amylase and brush border enzymes further break down carbohydrates into absorbable molecules. Statements B, C, and D are correct, while statement A is incorrect.

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Does Reporting People who pollute the water to the authority? IS IT GOOD?

Answers

Reporting people who pollute the water to the authorities can be a positive action with several benefits. Firstly, it helps to protect the environment and natural resources, including water bodies, which are vital for the health and well-being of ecosystems and communities.

By reporting pollution incidents, you contribute to the preservation and conservation of water resources for current and future generations.

Secondly, reporting water pollution can help hold individuals or industries accountable for their actions. It ensures that those who are responsible for polluting the water are identified and appropriate measures are taken to prevent further pollution and enforce environmental regulations and laws.

Additionally, reporting pollution incidents to the authorities raises awareness about the issue and highlights the importance of maintaining clean water sources. It can encourage public engagement and advocacy for stronger environmental protection measures.

However, it is important to note that the effectiveness of reporting depends on the responsiveness and actions of the authorities involved. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the appropriate authorities are contacted and that the necessary evidence is provided to support the claims of water pollution.

Overall, reporting people who pollute the water to the authorities is a responsible action that can contribute to the preservation of water resources, promote environmental accountability, and raise awareness about the importance of clean water.

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