Eukaryotes traditionally studied by microbiologists include the protozoa, helminths, and microscopic algae and:_______

Answers

Answer 1

Microbiologists frequently study eukaryotes such protozoa, helminths, microscopic algae, and Fungi.

What eukaryotes from the list below do microbiologists generally study?

A few few eukaryotes have long been the focus of microbiologists.

These consist of protozoa, microscopic fungi, microscopic algae, and helminths. Algae do not cause infections in people.

Which four classifications do eukaryotic microorganisms fall under?

The four eukaryotic kingdoms are recognised by the most common categorization as Versatility (prokaryotes), Animalia (Metazoa), Pteridophytes, Fungi, and Protista. This taxonomy also recognises the "Whittaker" five kingdom structure.

Organelles such as mitochondria (cellular energy exchangers), the Golgi apparatus (a secretory device), the endoplasmic reticulum (a canal-like structure of membranes within the cell), and lysosomes are also present in eukaryotic cells (digestive apparatus within many cell types)

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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -

Eukaryotes traditionally studied by microbiologists include the protozoa, helminths, and microscopic algae and:___

A. Fungi

B. Archeae

C. Bacteria

D. Virus


Related Questions

Most bacterial cells are encased by a strong cell wall composed of ___________________ which is a carbohydrate matrix cross-linked by polypeptides.

Answers

Most bacterial cells are encased by a strong cell wall composed of peptidoglycan, which is a carbohydrate matrix cross-linked by polypeptides.

What is the role of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell?

Peptidoglycan provides strength and rigidity to the bacterial cell wall and also helps to protect the cell from osmotic stress. Peptidoglycan is a critical component of the cell wall in bacteria, providing structural support and protection against osmotic stress. The peptidoglycan layer forms a mesh-like structure that encases the bacterial cell, providing rigidity and shape. The layer also helps to protect the cell from bursting due to changes in osmotic pressure, such as when the concentration of solutes is higher outside the cell than inside. Additionally, the peptidoglycan layer is a key target for antibiotics, which can interfere with its synthesis and cause bacterial cell death.

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Identify the shape of the bacteria​

Answers

the shape of the given bacteria was found to be rod-shaped (bacilli).

define about types of bacteria ?

Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can be classified based on various characteristics including shape, cell wall structure, and metabolic pathways. One classification system divides bacteria into four types based on their cell wall structure: Gram-positive, Gram-negative, acid-fast, and atypical. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane. Acid-fast bacteria have a waxy cell wall that is resistant to staining, and atypical bacteria have unique cell wall structures or lack a cell wall altogether. Bacteria can also be classified based on their metabolic pathways, such as aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative anaerobic. Understanding the different types of bacteria is important for identifying and treating infections caused by these microorganisms.

Bacteria can have various shapes including spherical (cocci), rod-shaped (bacilli), spiral-shaped (spirilla), comma-shaped (vibrio), and corkscrew-shaped (spirochete), among others.

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Compare and contrast the various polysaccharides in terms of origin, function, and structure (glycogen, amylose, cellulose, and amylopectin)

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polysaccharides are many monosaccharides. amylose and amylopectin are starch mixtures, cellulose is  fibrous carbohydrate and a linear polymer of glucose and glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate.

Polysaccharides can be defined as the large polymers which is generally  composed of tens to thousands of monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic linkages

starch has contains two polymers composed of glucose units: amylose, which is linear in structure and amylopectin, which is branched in structure.

Glycogen  can be defined a the branched polymer composed of glucose units, used as reserve food.

Cellulose is defined as the polymer which is in plants. structurally, the cellulose is a linear polymer with the glucose units which is linked through β-1,4-glycosidic bonds.

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The ribosome ______ subunit has _______ binding sites for tRNA molecules. a. large; two. b. small; two. c. large; three. d. small; three. e. large; four.

Answers

The ribosome large sub unit has three binding sites for tRNA molecules.

The correct answer is option C.

A ribosome binding  point, or ribosomal list  point( RBS), is a sequence of nucleotides upstream of the  launch codon of an mRNA paraphrase that's responsible for the reclamation of a ribosome during the  inauguration of  restatement. substantially, RBS refers to bacterial sequences, although internal ribosome entry  spots( IRES) have been described in mRNAs of eukaryotic cells or contagions that infect eukaryotes. Ribosome reclamation in eukaryotes is generally  intermediated by the 5' cap present on eukaryotic mRNAs.

The RBS in prokaryotes is a region upstream of the  launch codon. This region of the mRNA has the  agreement 5'- AGGAGG- 3', also called the Shine- Dalgarno( SD) sequence. The  reciprocal sequence( CCUCCU), called theanti-Shine-Dalgarno( ASD) is contained in the 3 ’ end of the 16S region of the  lower( 30S) ribosomal subunit. Upon encountering the Shine- Dalgarno sequence, the ASD of the ribosome base  dyads with it, after which  restatement is initiated.

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what information about recombination frequencies enables scientists to create linkage maps? the recombination frequency between two genes is equal to the distance in nanometers between the two genes. the recombination frequency between two genes reveals the nucleotide sequence of the two genes. the recombination frequency is proportional to the distance between the two genes. the lower the recombination frequency, the farther apart two genes are on a chromosome.

Answers

The higher the recombination frequency, the farther apart two genes are on a chromosome.

Linkage maps are used by geneticists to represent the relative positions of genes on a chromosome. The distance between two genes on a chromosome is proportional to the frequency at which they exchange DNA segments, or recombine, during the process of meiosis. If two genes tend to be inherited together more often, they are likely to be located closer together on the chromosome, and their recombination frequency will be low. On the other hand, if two genes tend to be separated more often, they are likely to be located farther apart on the chromosome, and their recombination frequency will be high. By measuring the recombination frequencies between multiple pairs of genes, scientists can build a linkage map that provides a rough representation of the relative distances between genes on a chromosome.

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The complete Question is:

What information about recombination frequencies enables scientists to create linkage maps?

- The higher the recombination frequency, the farther apart two genes are on a chromosome.

- The lower the recombination frequency, the farther apart two genes are on a chromosome.

- The recombination frequency between two genes is equal to the distance in nanometers between the two genes.

- The recombination frequency between two genes reveals the nucleotide sequence of the two genes.

a biopsy of the leg muscles of a runner indicates that she has higher than average ldh activity and lower than average myoglobin levels and mitochondrial volume. from what kind of runner was this sample likely taken?

Answers

The sample was most likely taken from Sprinter. Thus, a is the correct option.

Higher than normal LDH levels usually mean you have some type of tissue damage or disease. Conditions in which elevated LDH levels can be seen include Anemia, Kidney disease, Lung disease etc

Clinicians most commonly order muscle biopsy as a diagnostic procedure, used to evaluate patients with weakness suspected to be caused by muscle disease.

The gold standard test to assess mitochondrial respiration is muscle biopsies; however, biopsies are not always a feasible approach in persons with spinal cord injury (SCI). A muscle biopsy is also used to diagnose a neuromuscular disorder like Parkinson's, multiple sclerosis, or Huntington's disease.

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The correct question is:

A biopsy of the leg muscles of a runner indicates that she has higher than average LDH activity and lower than average myoglobin levels and mitochondrial volume. What kind of runner was this sample likely taken?

a. Sprinter

b. Long distance runner

after incubation, samples of the cottage cheese (control) and samples treated with the preservative (experimental) were diluted and plated on nutrient agar. calculate the number of bacteria. was the preservative effective?

Answers

The preservative is of no use CFU of the control and the experiment is equivalent.

The bacterial or fungal cells that make up the colony-forming unit can be used to count cells. The colony-forming unit houses the viable cells.

The following formula can be used to calculate the CFU/ml:

(Dilution factor x Colony Count) / Culture Plate Volume = CFU/ml

in command:

There are 160 colonies, as we've already mentioned.

1 milliliter with a 400-fold dilution

The cfu number for the control is

64000 cfu/ml (control) equals (1,040,400)/1

the findings of the experiment,

32 colonies are what we've said there are.

volume is 0.1 ml, and the dilution factor is 200.

32 cfu/ml x 200/0.1 = 64000 cfu/ml.

Because the CFU of the control and the experiment are equivalent, the preservative is of no use.

Note: the question is incomplete.

The complete question is:

The following data were obtained from four plates used to test the effectiveness of a food preservative. Two samples of cottage cheese were inoculated with bacteria; the preservative was added to one sample. After incubation, samples of the cottage cheese (control) and samples treated with the preservative (experimental) were diluted and plated on nutrient agar. Calculate the number of bacteria. Was the preservative effective?

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Which of these statements is true about the gametophyte tissue that surrounds the pine embryo?
A. It develops from the fusion of a microspore and a megaspore.
B. It functions as a diploid food reserve.
C. It functions as a triploid food reserve.
D. It functions as a haploid food reserve.
E. It is the remnant of the pollen tube.

Answers

Regarding the gametophyte tissue that encases the pine embryo, the following is true: (d) It acts as a haploid food reserve (This gametophyte tissue provides nutrients to the embryo.

One of the two alternate multicellular stages that develops during the life cycles of plants and algae is the gametophyte.

It develops from a single-chromosome haploid spore into a multicellular haploid organism. Gametophyte refers to the sexual stage of the life cycle of plants and algae. Gametophytes are the collective term for all tissues and organs produced by the haploid generation.

There are two distinct stages in the development of the gametophyte: the protonema and the gametophore. The first part of the moss to emerge from the spore is the protonema.

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True or false? you’re studying one genetic locus in a population of wombats and you sample 40 individuals with genotype aa, 60 individuals with genotype aa, and 100 individuals with genotype aa. the frequency of the a allele is exactly twice that of the a allele.

Answers

False - The frequency of the 'a' allele is not epsilon-totally equal to that of the 'A' allele.

The frequency of allele "a" is 0.65, whereas that of allele A is 0.35, or less than twice as frequently.

200 times 2 equals 400 total allele.

Total allele is equal to 200 divided by 2.

The type of variant present at a specific locus (i.e., location) in the genome is scored by what is known as a genotype. Symbols can be used to represent it. For illustration, BB, Bb, and bb could be used to denote a specific gene variant.

The genotypes AA, Aa, and aa are all possible in a population that has two alleles (A and a) at locus A. Homozygotes are people with the genotypes AA and aa (i.e., they have two copies of the same allele).

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In general, who has the possibility of
sharing the most genetic traits? Parent/Child or Sibling/Sibling

Answers

In general, Parent/Child has the possibility of sharing the most genetic traits.

What are traits?

As it relates to genetics, a trait is a unique quality about a person. Genes, environmental influences, or a combination of both can influence traits.

A parent and child share 50% of their genetic makeup on average. Contrarily, identical twins and fraternal siblings typically share 50% of their genetic material, however this percentage can vary.

A trait is a characteristic of the phenotype of the organism. To differentiate one trait from another under the more general word, phenotype, the trait is also known as the phenotypic trait in genetics.

Thus, Parent/child will share most genetic traits.

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what is the proteome? what is a method is used to determine the proteome of an organism? what type of information can we gain from it? what are some potential applications of determining the proteome of an organism?

Answers


The proteome refers to the complete set of proteins expressed by an organism, tissue, or cell at a specific time. It includes all the proteins encoded by an organism's genome as well as any modifications and interactions that occur after translation.

One method used to determine the proteome of an organism is mass spectrometry, which involves ionizing and measuring the mass-to-charge ratio of proteins to identify them. This method can be coupled with liquid chromatography to separate complex protein mixtures prior to analysis.

By determining the proteome of an organism, researchers can gain insight into the biological processes and functions that are active at a given time. This information can be used to identify potential drug targets or biomarkers of disease, as well as to understand the mechanisms underlying normal and pathological cellular processes.

Applications of proteomics include drug discovery, disease diagnosis and prognosis, and personalized medicine. For example, identifying the proteome of cancer cells can lead to the development of targeted therapies that selectively kill cancer cells while sparing healthy cells.

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what can you infer about scanning probe microscopes?

Answers

Answer:

They are a relatively recent invention.

Explanation:

I took the test ^^

The reduction of the microbial population to levels that are considered safe by public health standards is called
A. disinfection.
B. antisepsis.
C. sterilization.
D. sanitization.

Answers

The reduction of the microbial population to levels that are considered safe by public health standards is called sanitation.

What is sanitation?

Clean drinking water, the treatment and disposal of human waste, and other circumstances linked to public health are referred to as sanitation. Sanitation includes washing hands with soap after using the restroom and avoiding contact with human waste. Sanitation systems work to safeguard public health by creating a hygienic setting that will halt the spread of disease, particularly through the fecal-oral route. For instance, diarrhea, a major contributor to child malnutrition and stunted growth, can be decreased with proper sanitation. Ascariasis, a type of intestinal worm infection or helminthiasis, cholera, hepatitis, polio, schistosomiasis, and trachoma, to mention a few, are just a few of the diseases that are easily spread in communities with poor sanitation.

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Predict what would happen if chemical energy were burned. Energy is converted to mechanical energy. The amount of chemical energy starts to decrease. Energy is destroyed. Sound energy can be created through an explosion.​

Answers

When chemical energy is burned, it undergoes a chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat and light, which is then converted into mechanical energy through the expansion of gases.

What is chemical energy?

Chemical energy is described as the energy of chemical substances that is released when they undergo a chemical reaction and transform into other substances.

The conversion of the chemical energy brings about  a decrease in the amount of chemical energy stored in the fuel.

In  scenarios such as explosion,  the conversion of chemical energy into mechanical energy will  result in the creation of sound energy.

In conclusion, energy cannot be destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.

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the viscosity of blood is ________ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and _______ proportional to the amount of fluid.

Answers

Blood viscosity is positively correlated with RBC count and inversely correlated with fluid content.

What factors are related to blood viscosity?

From a macro-rheological perspective, it is well known that blood viscosity is directly proportional to hematocrit (concentration of red blood cells) [11,41], indicating that an increase or reduction in RBC content impacts blood viscosity values and its non-Newtonian behaviour.

Does the quantity of erythrocytes in blood directly correlate with its viscosity?

The quantity of fluid and the number of red blood cells have indirect but inverse relationships with blood viscosity. Fluid resistance can rise as a result of cell aggregation brought on by an increase in RBC count.

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What did Rosalind Franklin contribute to the field of science and how did her work impact society?

Answers

Rosalind Franklin established that the molecule existed in a helical configuration and, more significantly, identified the density of DNA. Her efforts to improve the clarity of DNA molecule X-ray patterns.

What contribution did Rosalind Franklin make to science?

Some would argue that Rosalind Franklin received unfair treatment despite having made a significant contribution to the understanding of the double helix structure of DNA. Brenda Maddox, a biographer, dubbed Franklin the "Dark Lady of DNA" because one of her employees once disparaged Franklin.

Rosalind Franklin, PhD, the brilliant and trailblazing scientist whose Photo 51 discovered the double helix of DNA, was honored with a dedication to our university in 2004. It is served as the basis for Francis Crick and James Watson's 1953 hypothesis that DNA is a double-helix polymer.

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Without autonomic nervous system input resting heart rate would be approximately?Answer choices:a. 70−80 beats/min b. 50−60 beats/minc. 100−120 beats/min d. 200−220 beats/min

Answers

Answer:

10000/76 x 76 = 100089

Explanation:

bnnygghh

when a hair cell stereocilia bend away from the kinocilium,
voltage-gated calcium channels open when the membrane potential of the hair cell increases. it does not release neurotransmitters. it releases neurotransmitters. it generates an action potential to communicate with the auditory nerve.

Answers

If a hair cell bends toward the kinocilium it releases neurotransmitters, thus the correct option is B.

The hair cells' cilia bend in response to mechanical stimulation. Trap doors in the next cilium are connected by fine, thread-like tip linkages. The VIIIth cranial nerve experiences neural impulses as a result of the tip link being stretched as a result of the hair cells being bent. The vestibular system's hair cells differ significantly from those in the auditory system in that they only contain one highest cilium, known as the kinocilium. The cell depolarizes when the stereocilia are bent in the direction of the kinocilium, increasing afferent activity via neurotransmitter .The cell becomes hyperpolarized when the stereocilia are bent away from the kinocilium, which lowers afferent activity via neurotransmitters.

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The Complete question is :

If a hair cell bends toward the kinocilium...

A. It generates action potentials

B. It releases neurotransmitters

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

in which strand of cellular nucleic acids would you expect to find 2'-hydroxyls groups on the riboses?

Answers

The correct answer is option C. TATATATATA.

The DNA strand, which is made up of four separate nitrogenous bases, adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (G), contains the 2-hydroxyl groups on the riboses (T). Thymine (T), a repeating nitrogenous nucleotide, makes up the whole of DNA strand C. TATATATATA.

Consequently, it may be inferred that this DNA strand includes 2-hydroxyl groups since thymine (T), one of DNA's four nitrogenous bases, is present in it.

The five-carbon sugar ribose, which maintains the nitrogenous base in place on the DNA strand, is where the 2-hydroxyl groups are found.

In contrast to RNA, which has a ribose sugar with one oxygen atom in place of a hydrogen atom, this strand of DNA's ribose sugar is made up of 2-hydroxyl groups, which is a crucial distinction to make.

Complete Question:

In which strand of cellular nucleic acids would you expect to find 2- hydroxyls groups on the riboses?

A. AGGCTTAGCC

B. CAATTGGCAC

C. TATATATATA

D. UACCAUGGCA

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96 The diagram shows how the volume of the left ventricle changes over a time period of 1.3 seconds.
A
Volume of
left ventricle
C
d
a
bi
ii
0
B
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6
Time in seconds
How many complete heart beats are shown in the diagram?
Use the graph to calculate how long one heart beat takes. Show your working.
Use your answer to bi to calculate the heart rate. Show your working.

Answers

96 The diagram shows how the volume of the left ventricle changes over a time period of 1.3 seconds.

A

Volume of

left ventricle

C

d

a

bi

ii

0

B

0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6

Time in seconds

How many complete heart beats are shown in the diagram?

Use the graph to calculate how long one heart beat takes. Show your working.

Use your answer to bi to calculate the heart rate. This is the answer

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are in the balanced equation?

H2O + CO2 ---------> C6H12O6 + O2

Answers

Answer:

Six I think

Explanation:

Answer:

In the balanced equation:

H2O + CO2 -> C6H12O6 + O2

there are 6 molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2).

What is the most important factor in assessment of the ability of the cardiovascular system to meet the body's metabolic demands?
A) Respiratory quotient (RQ)
B) Cardiac output
C) Oxygen uptake
D) Adequacy of perfusion

Answers

The most important factor in the assessment of the ability of the cardiovascular system to meet the body's metabolic demands is the adequacy of perfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

Perfusion is the process of delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues through the blood vessels. Adequate perfusion ensures that the body's metabolic demands are being met and that the tissues are receiving the necessary oxygen and nutrients to function properly. Without adequate perfusion, the body's tissues may become damaged or die, leading to serious health problems. Therefore, assessing the adequacy of perfusion is crucial in evaluating the overall health of the cardiovascular system.

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The double coiled, "staircase" shape of DNA is called a double helix.A. helix
B. double helix
C. triple helix

Answers

The double coiled, "staircase" shape of DNA is called a double helix.

DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is a long, thread-like molecule that contains the genetic information that is passed down from parents to offspring.

The double helix refers to the specific shape of the DNA molecule, which consists of two long strands that wind around each other in a twisted ladder-like structure.

The individual strands of the DNA molecule are made up of nucleotides, which are composed of a sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous bases, which include adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine, are the specific chemical units that carry the genetic information in the DNA molecule.

The double helix structure of DNA is important because it allows the molecule to be tightly packed into the cell nucleus, while still remaining accessible for processes such as replication and transcription. The discovery of the double helix structure of DNA is considered one of the most important scientific discoveries of the 20th century, and it has had a profound impact on fields such as genetics, medicine, and biotechnology. In summary, the double coiled, "staircase" shape of DNA is called a double helix.

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Provide two unique facts about each of the planets in the Solar System.

Answers

Answer:

Mercury:

a. It is the smallest planet in the Solar System.

b. It rotates very slowly, taking about 59 Earth days to complete one rotation on its axis.

Venus:

a. It is the hottest planet in the Solar System, with surface temperatures reaching up to 864°F.

b. It is the brightest object in the night sky after the Moon, due to the reflection of sunlight by its thick atmosphere.

Earth:

a. It is the only known planet to support life as we know it.

b. It is the only planet in the Solar System with a moon of roughly equal size relative to its own size.

Mars:

a. It has the largest volcano in the Solar System, Olympus Mons, and the deepest canyon, Valles Marineris.

b. It has a thin atmosphere and experiences significant temperature swings, with temperatures dropping as low as -140°F at the poles.

Jupiter:

a. It is the largest planet in the Solar System, more massive than all the other planets combined.

b. It has a massive and complex system of 79 moons, the largest of which is Ganymede.

Saturn:

a. It is famous for its stunning and complex system of rings, composed of millions of ice and rock particles.

b. It has the lowest density of any planet, with a density less than water, meaning it would float in a large enough ocean.

Uranus:

a. It is the only planet in the Solar System that rotates on its side, with its axis tilted at an angle of 97.77°.

b. It has a unique and complex system of 27 moons, including Miranda, which has one of the most varied and strange surface features in the Solar System.

Neptune:

a. It is the farthest planet from the Sun and the smallest of the gas giants.

b. It has the fastest winds of any planet in the Solar System, with winds reaching speeds of up to 1,600 km/h.

Explanation:

ALLLEN

if 24% of a dna sample is made up of thymine, t, what percentage of the sample is made up of adenine, a?

Answers

There are two complementary sets of 4 potential nucleotides. If cytosin makes up 24% of the DNA, the complementary guanin must make up the remaining 76%. With 48% GC and 52% AT remaining, 26% are adenine and 26% are thymine.

Two purine residues and two pyrimidine residues make up the nitrogenous bases found in DNA molecules. Adenine and guanine are the pyrimidine bases found in DNA, while cytosine and thymine are purine bases. The chemistry of the bases shows how purine and pyrimidine bases differ from one another. Purine bases have two cyclic ring structures, whereas pyrimidine bases only have one, which results in a distinct chemical structure. The chemistry of nitrogenous bases is what really determines how DNA works. It enables a process known as complimentary base pairing.

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if an egg were weighed halfway between being laid and hatching, how would you expect that weight to compare to the weight of the newly laid egg?

Answers

If an egg were weighed halfway between being laid and hatching, it would be expected to weigh more than the weight of the newly laid egg.

This is because, during the developmental process, the egg undergoes significant changes, and various structures develop inside the egg, leading to an increase hatching in the overall weight of the egg. As the egg develops, the yolk and albumen serve as a nutrient source for the developing embryo, and they increase in size and weight. Additionally, the developing embryo also adds to the overall weight of the egg. The eggshell also thickens and hardens, which contributes to the increase in weight. Therefore, by the time the egg reaches hatching the halfway point of development, it is expected to weigh more than the newly laid egg.

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which bone type is shaped like a cube with similar height, width, and length?

Answers

Short bones of the human body is a bone type shaped like a cube with similar height, width, and length.

Short bones are the bones of the body that are the same in length, width and height. They include carpal and tarsal bones. Carpal bones include the movement of the wrist joint and tarsal bones include the movement of the ankle joint. Short bones are those that provide stability and support. They are also involved in limited motion too. They are located in the hands and feet. It also includes patella. As the patella generally serves as an anchor point for ligaments and tendons, doctors  generally classify it as a sesamoid bone. However, the patella is constant, although the development of the sesamoid bones varies from person to person.

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The human gut is home to about how many microorganisms?

Answers

Answer: Between 30 trillion and 400 trillion microorganisms

Explanation:

due to their shape, muscle cells are also called muscle ___

Answers

Muscle fibers are another name for muscle cells because of their form.

What are called cells?

There are countless billions of cells in the human body. They not only take in nutrients from food and turn them into energy, but they also provide the body structure and carry out certain functions. A cell is made up of cytoplasm and is surrounded on all sides by a cell membrane.  All living things are made up of cells, which are the smallest structural units of living matter and are typically microscopic in size. The majority of cells have one or more nuclei as well as other organelles that perform a range of functions.

What is the importance of cell?

All living things—from bacteria to people—rely on cells for their structure and activity. They are regarded by scientists as the tiniest form of life. Cells contain the biological machinery which produces the proteins, chemicals, or signals necessary for all body functions. The presence or cells is one of the characteristics we use to assess whether an item is alive or not. Therefore, all the things we consider to be "living things," from the smallest to the largest animals and plants, are made of cells.
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birds have reduce the energetic cost of flying. this example best illustrates which major theme in biology?

Answers

Birds have reduced the energetic cost of flying. This example best demonstrates Evolution which is a major theme in biology.

Evolution is the modification in heritable traits of biological populations over successive generations. Evolutionary processes give drift to diversity at every biological organization level. Many morphological and behavioral characteristics of birds have evolved which lessen the energy expenditure of the flight. Examples are wing shape, the usage of thermals and tail winds, geographic lift, and V-formation flight. Instead of heavy jaws and teeth, they have light beaks. And instead of fur, they have feathers.

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what baseball catcher replaced mel allen as tv announcer for the new york yankees in 1964? Question:Imagine you are one of the slaves on the way North with Harriet. Write a detailed account of your journey. Use Chapter 14 for five (5) examples to describe your journey.(this is just to anyone who read Harriet Tubman by Ann Petry). in the sense of alternation of generations, how many generations are included in a mature pine seed? What is your opinion of "The Ribbons" so far? Work with partners or in a small group to practice sharing and discussing your opinions, using the speaking frames. Then use the self-assessment rubric to evaluate your participation in the discussion.1. In my opinion, "The Ribbons" is because 2. Why do you think Elizabeth is? 3. I think said that 4. I agree / dont agree with that Los verbos. The verbs. Fill in the blanks to complete the sentences about people doing each activity as much as other people.1. Beto trabaja2. Mateo y Diego juegan al ftbol3. Victoria y Carolina estudian4. Kevin toca el pianosu hermano.sus primos.sus compaeros de clase.su novia. choose the answer. a corporation issued 1000 shares of $100 preferred stock for $90. what was the amount of the discount? 11.When a consumer has previous experience with a product or brand, it is likely the level of involvement would _______.a. decreaseb. become more complicatedc. increased. remain the same12.A consumer who has an ongoing interest in a product or category experiences which type of high involvement?a. Shopping involvementb. Emotional involvementc. Product involvementd. Enduring involvement13.The goal for marketers in the consumer decision journey is to _______.a. eliminate the consumer's research and evaluation stages of the decision-making processb. reduce cognitive dissonance by providing after purchase services and benefitsc. simplify the buying process by offering automatic reorderingd. provide consumers with more information after they recognize an unmet need14.Advertising is(select//free/paid/decoded/publicized) ,(select /adia/personal/one-on-one/non personal) communication through various mass media.15.Which of the following are true about the effects of advertising on market share? (Select two)a. Advertising helps establish brand awareness.b. Advertising does not affect brand awareness.c. Any amount of exposure to ads will affect purchase habits.d. A certain minimum level of exposure is required to affect purchase habits.e. As market share increases, advertising continually shows a greater return. Gramatica B the verb ir level 1 pp 120-122 answers The first 5 books of the Bible cover several fundamental questions, such as who are we, where did we come from, and why are we here. a. True b. False. sara is making punch. she has 15 cups of sugar. each batch of punch needs 1.25 cups of sugar. how many batches of punch can sara make? A bag contains 4 white marbles, 3 red marbles, and 5 blue marbles. Miko takes one marble from the bag, replaces it, and then takes another. Find P(red, then white). who were the buffalo soldiers small rna-containing particles for the synthesis of proteins In martian metropolis how does author's use numbers and stats contribute to the article Given that P=1.80 and Q=2.91, find ghe relative error in the computation of 1/P-1/Q 1. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.Because of the fact that paralegals time is charged at lower rates, paralegals may be employed by law firms and corporations to perform tasks previously performed by lawyers.2. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.With specificity, paralegals may be asked to perform legal research of case and statutory materials in the event that a client requests an answer to a problem of a legal nature and is concerned about saving money.3. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.It is important to note that some states are considering allowing paralegals to practice independently.4. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.Try this schedule; shower, eat breakfast, drive to the train, go to work, and come home.5. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.The prosecutor will attempt to within the course of the trial persuade you that the defendant committed the crime.6. Edit the following sentence. Name the grammar mistake (e.g., misplaced modifier, faulty parallelism, and so forth). Then correct the error by rewriting the sentence.The substance of Walter Mondales speeches is more similar to Jimmy Carter. which statement best describes how inflation affects the value of investment overtime ?A erases the value of investments B it increases the value of money C it decreases the value of money D it controls the value of investments Help solve please !! what is your response to mcwhorter's argument? what is your visceral response, that is, how does it make you feel? We promote access to communication resources and opportunities as necessary to fulfill human potential and contribute to the well being of individuals