in educating a mother of a two-year-old client, the health care practitioner explains the importance of vitamin d through diet and exposure to sunlight. what are some sources of vitamin d that the health care practitioner can share with the mother?

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Answer 1

Some sources of vitamin d that the healthcare practitioner can share with the mother are Fish oils and fortified food products such as cereal.

A fat-soluble vitamin is vitamin D. (soluble in lipids). When exposed to UVB light from the sun, it is a hormone from ergosterol, a cholesterol derivative.

It comes in two forms: D2 (ergocalciferol), which plants create, and D3 (cholecalciferol), which is found in some lichens and animal products. They are 9,10-secosteroids, these two chemicals. The human body also makes vitamin D3 in the skin under the influence of UV radiation.

Under the effect of PTH, vitamin D has a role in the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus and their subsequent reabsorption by the kidneys. The hormone calcitonin balances its effects. It participates in the mineralization and muscle tone of the skeleton and joints.

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Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons. List two

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Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons such as:

Excessive therapy or diagnostic procedure Services that are reimbursable by other organizations

What are Ambulatory Surgical Centers for?

Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASC) are modern health care facilities whose purpose is for providing surgical care on the same day as an incident which covers diagnostic and preventive procedures. Hospital owned outpatient facilities are an example of ASC.

For a procedure to be a non covered service, it would mean that the therapy or diagnostic procedure is excessive or that other organizations will reimburse the services.

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you are giving cpr and the first rescue breath does not cause the chest to rise. what should you do? group of answer choices begin the next set of compressions immediately. take a bigger breath and blow with more force for the second rescue breath. perform a finger sweep. re-tilt the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened and ensure that the nose and mouth are properly sealed before giving the second rescue breath.

Answers

You are giving CPR and the first rescue breath does not cause the chest to rise therefore the nurse should re-tilt the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened and ensure that the nose and mouth are properly sealed before giving the second rescue breath and is denoted as option D.

What is CPR?

This is referred to as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and it is a life saving technique which helps to revive a person who has a heart attack or the heart has topped beating.

In a situation where the individual gives CPR and the first rescue breath does not cause the chest to rise then it is best to re-tilt the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened and ensure that the nose and mouth are properly sealed.

After which the second rescue breath should be given and if the chest rises, then it should be followed by compressions and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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if a newborn does not pass meconium during the first 36 hours of life. what is the most appropriate priority action by the nurse?

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According to given statement neonatal intestinal obstruction is the most appropriate priority action by the nurse.

Why is meconium a problem, and what is it?

Meconium is the name for the first newborn's stool or excrement. When a newborn breathes amniotic liquid and secretions into the lungs soon after birth, it develops the meconium aspiration syndrome.

What can meconium do to a baby?

Right after birth, the meconium can sometimes obstruct the baby's airways. Due to swelling (infection) inside the newborn baby's lungs after birth, it may result in breathing issues. Risk factors that could put the unborn baby under stress before birth include the placenta "aging" if the pregnancy lasts much longer than expected.

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chlorinda travels with her work. she recently took a trip for work in which she worked 40 hours for the week, but had 6 hours of travel time. chlorinda cannot bill the 6 hours of travel time to overtime. group startstrue or false

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FALSE In the event that Chlorinda is unable to claim the 6 hours of travel time as overtime, Statement may raise the minimum pay rate based on the cost.

What's the process for the overtime?

The Fair Labor Standard Act includes provisions about federal overtime (FLSA). Employees covered by the Act shall receive overtime compensation, unless they are exempt, at a rate that is at least time and a half their usual rates of pay for hours worked beyond 40 in a workweek.

How valuable is overtime pay?

It is beneficial to put in extra time. While getting paid more for overtime doesn't always put you in a higher tax bracket, it does increase your taxable income for that tax year. Working more hours entails earning more money for non-exempt workers, regardless of your tax burden.

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a client with depression doesn't respond to drug therapy. at a team conference, staff members recommend electroconvulsive therapy (ect). the nurse knows that most people respond emotionally to the thought of an electric current passing through the brain. therefore, when discussing ect with the client, the nurse should:

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When discussing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) with a depressed client who has not responded to pharmacological therapy, the nurse should explain the technique in a factual, straightforward manner.

Why should a nurse be straightforward?

The nurse should address the client's concerns and provide accurate information about the treatment's risks, benefits, and alternatives. While discussing the procedure, the nurse must be helpful, sympathetic, and nonjudgmental.

The nurse should also include the client in the decision-making process, making sure they have all of the information they need to make an informed decision. The nurse should offer emotional support and answer any concerns the client may have regarding the treatment.

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while performing a routine history and pe on a 70-year-old male, you note a right carotid bruit. he denies any symptoms suggestive of a tia or cva. a carotid doppler us shows a 50% stenosis of the right common carotid artery. the next most appropriate step would be

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A carotid doppler us shows a 50% stenosis of the right common carotid artery initiate antiplatelet therapy with aspirin.

How serious is carotid artery?

Because carotid artery disease can cut off the blood supply to your brain and result in a stroke, it is a serious condition. A blockage may result from an artery with too much plaque. A blockage may also result from a blood clot or plaque fragment separating from an artery's wall.

Can carotid artery obstruction result from stress?

Stress speeds up the formation of plaque, which can build up in the arteries. It causes the platelets to become sticky and more prone to clotting, which might clog these arteries. Additionally, stress can narrow the arteries, depriving the heart of oxygen-rich blood and resulting in chest pain or a cardiac arrest.

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The order is for Cefazolin 0.5 g IM. How many milliliters of diluent will the nurse add to the cefazolin powder to reconstitute the medication?

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To reconstitute the cefazolin powder, the nurse adds 0.5 milliliters of diluent.

What we mean by reconstitution is:

The procedure of mixing a liquid (diluent) with a dry component to adjust the solution's concentration.

Reconstitution formula :

When doctors prescribe a drug, they usually specify its concentration, and the medicine itself comes in pre-packaged vials. So, all that is left to do is to add the correct amount of diluent. That is what the base formula is for figuring out the volume of the diluent:

Dose volume = dose / reconstitution concentration

Dose volume= 0.5mg/ 1mg/ml

Dose volume = 0.5 ml

where:

dose - The mass of the powdered or crystalline drug; and

dose volume - The quantity of diluent you need to add to the powder or crystalline drug.

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the nurse has entered the room of a client who is being treated with regular doses of morphine. the client is unresponsive to voice but responsive to touch, with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. in addition to informing the care team, what is a priority action?

Answers

Administration of naloxone as directed in addition to informing the care team.

What is a good respiration rate?

When evaluating respiration, it's critical to consider a person's breathing troubles. When at rest, adults normally breathe 12 to 16 times each minute. Slower respiration than is common for a woman's identity and activity level is a defining feature of bradypnea. For an adult, this would be less then 12 breaths. Slow breathing can be caused by a variety of illnesses, including cardiac problems, problems with brain stem, or drug overdose.

Why is respiratory rate significant?

The basic vitals of respiratory rate is sensitive to a variety of pathological disorders (such as unfavorable cardiovascular problems, pneumonia, and focus is to reduce) as well as stresses, such as emotional stress,

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a patient reports taking an over-the-counter laxative for constipation daily for the past 3 weeks. what is your best action?

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Every day, consume between 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids, and If you feel the need to go to the bathroom, do so soon away, and To avoid constipation, try to exercise regularly every day.

Where do you feel constipation pain?

Constipated patients may experience tightness in their abdomen or a severe cramping pain in the centre of their gut. They may continually feel like as if they have just finished a full meal even when they haven't fed in several hours.

What is the main cause of constipation?

Consuming insufficient protein in sources like fruit, veggies, and grains an alteration to your daily routine or way of life, such altering your eating patterns.

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the nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. the nurse assesses the patient and notes 3 pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?

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Oprelvekin (interleukin-11) taken by the patient causes the most concern

What is edema ?

Edema is a swelling of the tissues of your body brought on by fluid. It can affect the entire body, although it typically affects the feet, ankles, and legs. Causes of edoema include excessive salt intake

Edema can result from medication side effects, pregnancy, infections, and a host of other medical conditions. Small blood arteries in your body might leak fluid into adjacent tissues to cause edema. The tissue swells as a result of the excess fluid amassing. Almost anything in the body is a potential location.

Your skin may stretch due to edema, and if it is not addressed, swelling may worsen and result in major health issues. Depending on the source, edoema may be a temporary or chronic illness.

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incompetent valves in veins may cause . group of answer choices infarction varicose veins hypotension arteriosclerosis

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Incompetent valves in veins may cause varicose veins. Twisted, swollen veins are known as varicose veins.

Varicose veins can develop in any superficial (near the skin's surface) vein. Leg veins are the most frequently affected by varicose veins. This is due to the fact that standing and walking put more strain on the lower body's veins.

Varicose veins and spider veins, a typical, minor variety of varicose veins, are frequently only an aesthetic concern for many people. Others may have aching pain and discomfort from varicose veins. Varicose veins can occasionally result in more severe issues.

Self-care techniques or professional medical procedures to seal or eliminate veins may be used in treatment.

Varicose veins and spider veins are similar, although spider veins are smaller. Closer to the skin's surface, spider veins are frequently red or blue in color.

Spider veins can be present on the face as well as the legs. They come in different sizes and frequently resemble spider webs.

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after receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. the nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. what should the nurse do first?

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In these cases, all the nurse has to do is administer the epinephrine, as ordered, and prepare the client for intubation, if necessary.

Anaphylactic shock is a relatively severe allergic reaction. This condition can be life-threatening for someone who experiences it because it develops very quickly. Someone who experiences this condition generally feels nausea and pain in the stomach area. Anaphylactic shock appears in just a few minutes after the sufferer is exposed to an allergen which is the cause of anaphylactic shock.

The first treatment for anaphylactic shock is by injecting epinephrine, to reduce the severity of the allergic reaction. Epinephrine injections can be done when medical personnel arrives at the patient's location. Furthermore, when the patient arrives at the hospital, the doctor will provide further assistance.

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a child with spastic cerebral palsy receiving intrathecal baclofen therapy is admitted to the pediatric floor with vomiting and dehydration. the family tells the nurse that they were scheduled to refill the baclofen pump today but had to cancel the appointment when the child became ill. which action should the nurse take?

Answers

The nurse should arrange for the pump to be refilled in the hospital.

Pump refills are planned ahead of predicted low-volume warnings by several days in order to prevent baclofen withdrawal. Insisting that the pump be filled as soon as possible should be the nurse's top priority. Baclofen should never be abruptly stopped because it might cause serious side effects such as high fever, tight muscles, altered awareness, and even death.

A low dose or withdrawal may result from waiting until the child is discharged from the hospital for a refill. The client is put in danger if they wait for the low-volume alarm since sometimes the team members who can refill the pump and provide the medication are not immediately available.

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a 54-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of an inability to open his left eye. when he physically pries open his affected eye with his fingers (see photo), the gaze of his left eye is directed inferiorly and laterally, causing diplopia. his left pupil is also dilated in comparison to the right one. what nerve is most likely affected in this patient?

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The gaze of his left eye is directed inferiorly and laterally, causing diplopia and his left pupil is also dilated in comparison to the right one so the nerve is most likely affected in this patient is left oculomotor nerve.

The oculomotor nerve is that the third cranial nerve (CN III). It permits movement of the attention muscles, constriction of the pupil, focusing the eyes and also the position of the higher protective fold. It works with alternative bone nerves to manage eye movements and support sensory functioning.

Diplopia is that the medical term for visual impairment or seeing double. Vision defect is outlined as seeing 2 pictures of one object once you are looking at it. vVsual impairment is sometimes a brief issue, however it can even be a proof of additional serious health conditions.

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a client is having heart palpitations and, when the cardiac monitor reveals tachycardia, the nurse believes the client has an electrolyte imbalance affecting the heart. which lab result validates the nurse's thinking?

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A client is having heart palpitations and, when the cardiac monitor reveals tachycardia, the nurse believes the client has an electrolyte imbalance affecting the heart. Limit fluid intake.

Coronary heart palpitations (friend-pih-TAY-shuns) are emotions of getting a quick-beating, fluttering, or pounding heart. pressure, exercise, medicinal drug, or, rarely, a scientific circumstance can trigger them. even though coronary heart palpitations may be worrisome, they're usually harmless.

Coronary heart palpitations are a feeling like your heart is lacking heartbeats, racing or pounding. you can feel palpitations in your chest, throat, or neck. Palpitations can show up at any time, even if you're resting or doing regular activities. even though they'll be startling, palpitations commonly are not serious or harmful.

Those sensations are referred to as coronary heart palpitations. For the majority, heart palpitations are an as-soon-as-in-a-blue-moon occurrence. Others have dozens of these heart flutters an afternoon, on occasion so strong that they experience a heart assault. maximum palpitations are a result of a harmless hiccup inside the heart's rhythm.

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a new patient is completing your offices patient registration form. the patient tells you that she has insurance but does not have her card with her and does not know the effective date of coverage, the group plan number, or the identification number. explain one or more ways to obtain the insurance information right away.

Answers

The office barrier should ask for the patient's SS#, and CA ID, check the patient's medical record and ask what insurance she has to call her insurance for patient insurance information.

Patients can consult a doctor if they do not have an insurance card. You will need the following information:

1. Member ID:

This information could not be found in your Zenefits profile as it is Protected Health Information (PHI). You can use your SSN instead of your Member ID OR contact your insurance company directly to get it. Your specific insurance company contact information can be found in the Member Services and Claims Information link on your Medical Overview page. For dental and vision insurance, your SSN can be your Member ID.

2. Group/policy number:

This number can be found on the health, dental, or vision dashboard in the Plan.

3. Plan Name/Type:

You find this information on the Medical, Dental, or Vision Overview page in the Plan.

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what activity is the comprehensive collection of all patients' history recorded in epic? it will offer easy access to information ranging from the patient's test results to summaries of entire encounters for that patient.

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There are several tabs in the Chart Review activity that divide the patient's medical history and make it simpler to discover information.

Reviewing a patient's medical record or chart might provide information from the past that can help with clinical questions. Such a research enables relatively quick and less resource-intensive solutions to particular clinical concerns. However, the insufficiency of the data and the limited information that can be retrieved may restrict these investigations. Such assessments may use a variety of data sources (such as case charts, computerized registries, etc.), each with unique advantages and disadvantages.

The process typically entails developing the research topic, choosing the best data source, creating a strategy for data extraction, extracting the data, validating it for accuracy, analyzing the data, and properly archiving and disseminating the results. The concerns of informed consent and confidentiality are at the forefront of these investigations' ethical considerations.

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when planning care for multiple patients on the intensive care unit (icu), which common patient problems must the nurse address? select all that apply.

Answers

Pain, anxiety, and nutrition are major patient issues that nurses seek to address when providing care for a number of patients on the critical care unit.

What are nursing patient issues?

A problem-focused diagnosis refers to a patient issue that was discovered during a nursing assessment. Typically, the issue persists for a number of shifts or the duration of a patient's hospital stay. Nevertheless, based on the medical and nursing treatment, it might be cured during a shift.

Why is a patient challenging?

Up to 30% of the patients that primary care physicians classify as "difficult" 4–8 These individuals include those that exhibit hostile, manipulative, or irrational behavior, have ambiguous symptoms or conditions, are medically or psychiatrically unwell, have difficult social situations and limited assistance.

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a loading dose of digoxin is given to a client newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. the nurse instructs the client about side effects of the medication to monitor. which response indicates the client has understood the instruction?

Answers

If I miss a dose, I should just take 2 the next day response indicates the client has understood the instruction.

What does digoxin do to the heart?

A cardiac glycoside is a class of drug that includes digoxin. Their purpose is to lower your heart rate and enhance blood flow to your ventricles, which are two of the heart's chambers. A different amount of blood is pushed out every time the heart beats in persons with atrial fibrillation, when the heart beats erratically.

Why is digoxin no longer recommended?

Digoxin's limited therapeutic index and need for constant monitoring make its use restricted. Digoxin can result in toxicity, be involved in a number of drug interactions, and cause a number of adverse effects. Digoxin does, nevertheless, have a place in treatment despite its drawbacks.

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a patient who is postoperative day 2 following a coronary artery bypass graft (cabg) has been experiencing significant pain in the region of his sternal incision. what patient teaching should the nurse perform with this patient?

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"Try hugging a folded blanket across your chest once you move or breathe deeply," instruction should the nurse give to this patient.

How to Deeply Breathe

Take a regular breath first. After that, take a deep breath: Allow your chest and lower belly to rise as you inhale slowly through your nose. Allow your abdomen to expand completely. Exhale slowly through your mouth.

What is the advantage of taking deep breaths?

Deep breathing (also known as diaphragmatic breathing) is a technique that allows more air to enter your body while also helping to calm your nerves and reduce stress and anxiety. It can also help you develop your concentration and reduce pain.

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a client with left-sided heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath and is agitated and coughing up pink-tinged, foamy sputum. the nurse should recognize these findings as signs and symptoms of

Answers

The nurse should identify these findings as symptoms and signs of acute pulmonary edema.

What caused the unexpected pulmonary edema?

Heart disease is the leading cause of pulmonary edema. However, fluid can build up in the muscles for a variety of reasons. Pneumonia, exposure to specific toxins, medications, chest wall trauma, and travel to or exercise at high altitudes are also all examples.

Can acute pulmonary edema be reversed?

Pulmonary edema is fatal, but even the cause determines your prognosis. One year after being set free, roughly half of patients with cardiac hyperemia survive. Heart failure is a long-term disease that can be treated and is a leading cause of left ventricular hypertrophy respiratory failure.

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a 27-year-old client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dl and serum potassium level of 3.1 meq/l. which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse take first?

Answers

The health care provider should prescribe the nurse put the client who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis with a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dl and serum potassium level of 3.1 meq/l to place the client on a cardiac monitor.

In the question, it is stated that the client is dealing with diabetic ketoacidosis and has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dl and a serum potassium level of 3.1 meq/l. While dealing with the client, the health care worker should prescribe the nurse to place the client on a cardiac monitor so that the cardiac activities can be monitored.

Infusion of potassium will be done and in order to do so there should be a continous cardiac monitoring. Also insulin infusion should not be done without cardiac monitoring as it lowers potassium level.  

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when more than two physicians, with technicians and specialized equipment, work together to complete a complicated procedure and each physician has a specific portion of the surgery to complete, they are termed what?

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Organ system level of organization is the highest organization this physician is specialized in .

What is level of organization and with the given organs which level till this physician is specialized in?

Level of organization is the certain levels like cellular level, tissue level, organ level, and organ system level.

Here the level of organization given is mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestine , and this physician is specialized in organ level organization.

Since the question mention sin the very starting that the physician is specializing in surgery is the symptom of being highly specialized.

Hence the physician is organ system level of organization specialized.

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the american cancer society suggests which of the following steps: select one: 1. stay out of the sun and avoid consumption of saturated fats 2. take time each day to pray 3. take one aspirin per day 4. balance your vitamin and mineral intake

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The American cancer society suggests which of the following steps: 4. balance your vitamin and mineral intake

Minerals along with vitamins work to help boost the immune system. The application of the strength of the immune system to the possibility of producing long-term and long-lasting therapies is even expected in the future.

Living a healthy lifestyle and fulfilling nutritional and balanced nutrition are some of the best steps that cancer patients can take to support them in undergoing treatment. Fulfillment of nutrition during the therapy period aims to maintain ideal body weight and meet energy needs for the recovery and healing stages.

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50 POINTSSSSSS|> pls be honest. i have deep, and i mean deep dark spots.on my face. how do i getg rido f them ? i tried lemon, tried admire my skin, tried benzoyl, aztec clay, tried apple cider vinegar...more than that, i tried everyythinggg. Products simply dont work. what do i do ?

Answers

Answer: Chemical peels

Go to your doctor because they can be skin cancer

the nurse accompanies a client to an exercise stress test. the client can achieve the target heart rate, but the electrocardiogram indicates st-segment elevation. which procedure will the nurse prepare the client for next?

Answers

Answer: Cardiac catheterization

Explanation:

An elevated ST segment means an evolving myocardial infarction. A cardiac catheterization would be the logical next step.

a new ancillary staff member is assisting the nurse with a client diagnosed with parkinson's disease. the client needs assistance with eating but doesn't require thickened liquids to aid swallowing. which instruction should the nurse give the ancillary staff member about eating assistance?

Answers

The instruction given by the nurse to the ancillary staff about eating assistance is to make positive the purchaser is sitting at an angle of  ninety degrees called as fowler's position.

Fowler's function is a well-known affected person function wherein the affected person is seated in a semi-sitting function (30-ninety degrees) and might have knees both bent or straight. This is a not unusualplace function to offer affected person consolation and care. The semi-Fowler function, described as a frame function at 30° head-of-mattress elevation, has been proven to be useful in growing intra-stomach pressure. However, little is understood concerning its blessings in terms of reducing shoulder ache after LS. Positioning a affected person in mattress is a not unusualplace system withinside the hospital.

There are numerous positions viable for sufferers in mattress, which can be decided through their condition, preference, or remedy associated with an illness When shifting a affected person in mattress, carry out a affected person danger evaluation previous to the system to decide the level of help wanted for most appropriate affected person care. If a affected person is not able to assist with repositioning in mattress, comply with corporation coverage concerning “no affected person lifts” and using mechanical lifts for complicated and bariatric sufferers. See Checklist 25 for the stairs to transport a affected person up in mattress.

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a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged. the nurse explains that a patient with prolonged uncontrolled hypertension is at risk for developing what health problem?

Answers

Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of heart attack, heart failure, kidney disease, stroke, and cognitive decline

What is uncontrolled hypertension ?

The primary organs that are damaged by hypertension are the heart, kidneys, brain, and arterial blood vessels. Uncontrolled hypertension speeds up this organ damage, which eventually leads to organ failure, cardiovascular death, and disability.

Uncontrolled hypertension" refers to blood pressure that is not adequately managed as opposed to blood pressure that is unresponsive to therapy, as might be seen with secondary causes of hypertension like renal artery stenosis.

A blood pressure reading of 180/120 or higher results in an 80% chance of passing away within a year if untreated, with an average survival rate of ten months. Heart attack, stroke, blindness, and kidney disease can all result from persistent, untreated high blood pressure.

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A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged.

How does hypertension kill you?

High blood pressure can burst or block arteries that supply blood and oxygen to the brain, causing a stroke. Brain cells die during a stroke because they do not get enough oxygen. Stroke can cause serious disabilities in speech, movement, and other basic activities, and a stroke can kill you. The Kidneys.

What are the non modifiable risk factors for hypertension?

Non-modifiable risk factors include a family history of hypertension, age over 65 years and co-existing diseases such as diabetes or kidney disease.  Hypertension is called a "silent killer". Most people with hypertension are unaware of the problem because it may have no warning signs or symptoms.

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the nurse has conducted a comprehensive assessment of a new resident of a long-term care facility. which assessment data, collected by the nurse, indicate the most significant increase in a patient's risk for heart failure (hf)?

Answers

Score data collected by nurses show the most significant increase in the risk of heart failure (HF) in patients who are 65 years of age or older.

What is heart failure and its symptoms?Heart failure means that the heart cannot pump blood properly around the body. This usually happens because the heart has become too weak or stiff. It is sometimes called congestive heart failure, but that name is no longer widely used. Heart failure does now no longer suggest that the coronary heart has stopped working.Heart failure symptoms includes shortness of breath during activity or while lying down, fatigue and weakness, swelling of legs, ankles and feet, a fast or irregular heartbeat.Can heart failure be cured?

For most people, heart failure is a long-term condition that cannot be cured. However, treatment can help control symptoms. The main treatments are healthy lifestyle changes.

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the nurse is providing care for a client whose history of intimate partner violence has resulted in posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). the client has few friends and states that the client is estranged from the client's family. how can the nurse best enhance the client's social support?

Answers

Encourage the PTSD patient to join a support group.

A support group can provide valuable social support. If the client states that he or she is estranged from his or her family, the nurse should not approach this issue on their own. Making new friends is difficult for a (posttraumatic stress disorder) PTSD patient. Educational resources can be beneficial, but they are not a replacement for social support.

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition caused by witnessing or experiencing a terrifying event. Flashbacks, nightmares, and severe anxiety, as well as uncontrollable thoughts about the event, are some of the symptoms.

People suffering from PTSD have intense, disturbing thoughts and feelings about their traumatic experience that last long after the event has ended. They may relive the event in flashbacks or nightmares, experience sadness, fear, or anger, and feel detached or estranged from others.

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The total value of all bonds issued by the government of a country constitutes: 611.2 times 0.0061 with steps please a sequence is defined by a term to term rule iteration help please a government in which the people vote firsthand? Is it possible for a human to multitask, or cognitively focus on two things at the same time?. reactive oxygen species are? select one: a. produced in the mitochondria b. oxygen free-radicals c. found in antioxidant skin creams d. a and b e. a, b and c Question 4 of 10Which statement best describes Thomas Jefferson's contradictory views ofslavery?O A. Thomas Jefferson did not believe the federal government couldban slavery outright but opposed slavery in public.OB. Thomas Jefferson supported a gradual end to slavery in theUnited States but banned the international trade of enslavedpeople into the United States.OC. Thomas Jefferson supported an end to the international trade ofenslaved people into the United States but felt it was acceptableto continue slavery in the Louisiana Territory.OD. Thomas Jefferson considered slavery immoral but profited fromenslaved people's labor on his plantation.SUBMIT Besides indirect and direct objects, what else can objective pronouns be used as?objects of the prepositionownership over somethingthe subject of a verbobjects of the possession Please answer all (french) need asap If one of the organ systems were removed or stopped functioning, how will it affect the health and activity of a person? what volume (in ml) of 1.508 m h3po4 (aq) would be required to react completely with 11.73 ml of 1.006 m ca(oh)2? (aq) aleks Choose ALL answers that describe the quadrilateral UVWX if UV = 31,VW = 67, WX = 45, XU = 56, m/U = 146, m/V = 54, m/W = 95,and m/X = 65.Parallelogram QuadrilateralRectangleRhombusSquareTrapezoid You run a rflp analysis on two parents, both of whom are pure-breeding for a trait, and their child. The following gel has three lanes, one for each parent and one for their child. Which lane contains the childs dna?. the use of a quick, aggressively rhythmic theme rising from the low to the high register came to be known as the report found that the public: group of answer choices could not understand the medical terms being used by physicians, ill trained or rightly trained could easily assess if a physician was ill trained or rightly trained could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians could more easily figure out what was best for their health on their own How did emily geiger escape arrest and get her message to general washington despite having been captured?. masters, inc. prepares a budget that always includes 12 months of data. as each month ends, it is removed from the budget, and another month is added. masters uses which type of budget? the coordinates of point are (-3,5). what are the coordinates of point B, which is a reflection of point A across the x-axis? in what decade did increases in crime, technological advances, and changes in police management thinking lead to the reduction of police foot patrols and their resultant ties to the community? Rewrite the following equation in slope-intercept form.y 8 = 2(x + 6)