in terms of responsibility centers, a large corporate division would be considered a(n)

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Answer 1

In terms of responsibility centers, a large corporate division would be considered a(n) investment center.

An investment center is a division or segment within a corporate structure that is responsible for its own revenues, expenses, and investments, and whose performance is evaluated based on its return on investment (ROI) or other financial metrics.

There are several types of investment centers, including:

1.Profit centers: These centers are responsible for generating profits for the company. They have control over both revenues and costs, and are evaluated based on their ability to generate a profit.

2.Cost centers: These centers are responsible for managing costs within the company. They do not generate revenues, but instead focus on controlling expenses. They are evaluated based on their ability to reduce costs and operate efficiently.

3.Revenue centers: These centers are responsible for generating revenue for the company, but do not have control over costs. They are evaluated based on their ability to generate revenue and increase sales.

4.Composite centers: These centers are responsible for both generating revenue and managing costs. They are evaluated based on their ability to balance revenue generation with cost control.

5.Investment centers are an important part of many companies, as they allow for greater accountability and transparency in the management of business operations. By evaluating these centers based on their performance, companies can make informed decisions about how to allocate resources and improve profitability.

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Related Questions

Division A of Teltriton produces a product that can be sold to outside customers or sold to Division B for further processing. If the performance of managers is evaluated based on division profitability, what transfer pricing method will the manager of Division A request?
Hybrid transfer pricing
Cost-based transfer pricing.
Market-based transfer pricing.
Standard transfer pricing.

Answers

In this scenario, the manager of Division A of Teltriton would likely request a Market-based transfer pricing method for evaluating their performance based on division profitability.

Market-based transfer pricing uses the prevailing market price for the product when it is sold to outside customers as a basis for setting the transfer price between divisions. This method ensures that Division A's profitability is more accurately reflected and comparable to external sales.

Using a market-based approach would create a fair and transparent transfer pricing system, enabling Division A to be evaluated appropriately. Moreover, it provides an incentive for the manager of Division A to focus on improving efficiency and reducing production costs, since their performance is measured against the external market.

The other methods, such as cost-based or standard transfer pricing, may not accurately capture the market value of the product, making it difficult to assess the true profitability of Division A in comparison to selling to external customers.

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If the demand curve for energy is at first inelastic, then changes over time and becomes increasingly elastic, then the demand curve is

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The demand curve for energy becomes increasingly elastic over time. Initially, when the demand curve for energy is inelastic, it means that the consumers are not very responsive to changes in the price of energy.

However, over time, as consumers become more aware of the various alternatives available to them and start adapting to more energy-efficient technologies, the demand for energy becomes increasingly elastic, indicating that customers are more sensitive to fluctuations in energy prices. This shift towards a more elastic demand curve is a natural result of changes in consumer behavior and technology, and it has important implications for energy producers and policy makers.

A dynamic demand curve refers to a situation where the elasticity of the curve changes over time. In this case, the demand curve for energy starts as inelastic (price changes have a minimal impact on the quantity demanded), but as time passes, the curve becomes more elastic (price changes have a larger impact on the quantity demanded).

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121) A company uses FIFO for internal recordkeeping but LIFO for reporting ending inventory. Ending inventory under FIFO is $80,000, and ending inventory under LIFO is $60,000. What is the company's LIFO reserve?
A) $20,000.
B) $60,000.
C) $80,000.
D) $140,000. ,

Answers

Option A) $20,000 is the correct answer.A company uses FIFO for internal recordkeeping but LIFO for reporting ending inventory. Ending inventory under FIFO is $80,000, and ending inventory under LIFO is $60,000.

The LIFO reserve is the difference between the ending inventory valuation under LIFO and the ending inventory valuation under another inventory costng method, such as FIFO.

In this case, the ending inventory under FIFO is $80,000, and the ending inventory under LIFO is $60,000. Therefore, the LIFO reserve is:

LIFO reserve = Ending inventory under FIFO - Ending inventory under LIFO

LIFO reserve = $80,000 - $60,000

LIFO reserve = $20,000

So, the company's LIFO reserve is $20,000. This means that the company's reported inventory value would be $20,000 higher if it used FIFO instead of LIFO.

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In a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.

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In a Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.

This type of contract is used when the scope of work cannot be clearly defined, making it difficult to estimate the project's total cost. The predetermined fee covers the supplier's profit margin, while the incentive bonus is a financial reward for achieving or surpassing specified performance targets.

The main advantage of a CPIF contract is that it promotes collaboration between the buyer and supplier to achieve project objectives while controlling costs. It provides an incentive for the supplier to improve efficiency, since the better they perform, the higher their bonus. At the same time, it protects the buyer from cost overruns by only reimbursing allowable costs and setting a maximum incentive for the supplier.

However, CPIF contracts require careful management, as they rely on accurate cost and performance reporting from the supplier. The buyer must closely monitor the project to ensure that the supplier is meeting performance goals and that costs are properly documented.

Overall, Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contracts strike a balance between the flexibility of cost-reimbursement contracts and the cost-control mechanisms of fixed-price contracts, making them a popular choice for complex projects where risks and uncertainties are high.

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You have a goal of having $180,000 four years from today. The return on the investment is expected to be 8% and will be compounded semi-annually. The amount that needs to be invested today is closest to: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)

$132,226.

$90,000.

$131,526.

$120,000.

Answers

$131,526

the closest amount that needs to be invested today is $131,526


To calculate the present value of the investment, we need to use the formula: PV = FV / [tex](1 + r/n)^(n*t)[/tex], where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year, and t is the time in years. Plugging in the given values, we get:

PV = 180,000 / ([tex]1 + 0.08/2)^(2*4)[/tex]
PV = $131,526

Compound interest: It refers to the interest that is calculated not only on the principal amount but also on the accumulated interest of previous periods. In other words, it is the interest earned on interest.
Semi-annually: It means that the interest will be compounded twice a year, i.e., every six months.

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in the second step taken to convey the message, what do marketers do?

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In the second step of conveying a message, marketers typically choose the appropriate channels to deliver the message.

After defining the message and identifying the target audience, marketers need to decide on the best channels to reach their audience effectively.

This can include various forms of advertising, such as television, radio, print, or online advertising. It can also involve promotional activities like events, sponsorships, or public relations efforts.

The key is to choose the channels that will best resonate with the target audience and deliver the message in a compelling and memorable way.

A successful marketing campaign often involves a multi-channel approach that uses a combination of tactics to achieve the desired results.

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what is a special type of flowcharting tool that is used in lean processes?

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A special type of flowcharting tool used in lean processes is known as Value Stream Mapping (VSM).

It is a visual representation of the entire process from beginning to end, which helps to identify areas where waste can be eliminated and value can be added.

VSM is used to identify inefficiencies in the production process, such as overproduction, waiting time, defects, and excess inventory. The goal is to streamline the process, eliminate waste, and improve efficiency and quality.

VSM is an important tool in the Lean methodology, which is a systematic approach to continuous improvement.

By using VSM, organizations can optimize their processes, reduce costs, and improve customer satisfaction.

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A person successfully completed her real estate examination requirement on November 1, 2015. What is the latest date on which she may apply for a salesperson's license?
A) December 31, 2012
B) May 31, 2012
C) November 1, 2016
D) November 1, 2013

Answers

The latest date on which a person may apply for a salesperson's license after successfully completing her real estate examination requirement on November 1, 2015 is November 1, 2016. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

The reason for this is that most states require that individuals pass the real estate examination within a certain period of time before they can apply for a salesperson's license. This period of time can vary by state, but it is typically one year.

In this case, the person completed the real estate examination requirement on November 1, 2015. Typically, examination results are valid for one year from the date of completion. Therefore, the person has until November 1, 2016, to apply for a salesperson's license before the examination results expire which corresponds to option C. The other options (A, B, and D) refer to dates prior to the completion of the examination requirement, which is not applicable in this case.

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In order from beginning to end, the major steps in the SDLC are:
A) systems analysis/planning; systems design; building the system; testing; and implementation.
B) systems design; testing; building the system; and implementation.
C) systems analysis/planning; systems design; building the system; implementation; and testing.
D) systems analysis/planning; implementation; building the system; and testing.

Answers

The correct order of the major steps in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is: OPTION A) systems analysis/planning; systems design; building the system; testing; and implementation.

The SDLC is a structured approach to developing and implementing information systems. It consists of several sequential phases that guide the development process from the initial planning and analysis stage to the final implementation and maintenance of the system. The correct order of the steps is as follows:

Systems analysis/planning: This phase involves gathering requirements, analyzing existing systems, identifying problems or opportunities, and defining the objectives and scope of the new system.

Systems design: In this phase, the detailed design of the new system is created. It includes designing the system architecture, database structure, user interfaces, and other system components.

Building the system: Also known as the development phase, this step involves coding, programming, and building the actual system based on the design specifications.

Testing: Once the system is built, it undergoes testing to ensure that it functions as intended, meets the requirements, and is free from errors or bugs. Testing includes various types such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and user acceptance testing.

Implementation: The final step is the implementation of the system, which involves deploying it in the production environment and making it available to the end-users. This includes data migration, training, and transition from the old system to the new one.

Therefore, option A is the correct sequence of steps in the SDLC.

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Which of the following is a characteristic of a product trade-name franchise:
a. The franchisee has unlimited liability.
b. The franchisee can choose the name of the business.
c. It is not open to the public.
d. It is owned by shareholders.

Answers

The characteristic of a product trade-name franchise is that the franchisee can choose the name of the business.

So, the correct answer is B.

What's product trade-name franchise

This type of franchise allows the franchisee to use the trademark or trade name of the franchisor in exchange for payment of fees and royalties.

The franchisee is granted the right to use the franchisor's established business model, brand name, and operating system to sell a particular product or service.

However, the franchisee is still responsible for the financial success of the business and may face certain restrictions on how they operate the franchise. Unlimited liability is not a characteristic of this type of franchise, and it is typically open to the public.

Shareholders may be involved in the franchisor's business, but they do not necessarily own the franchise itself.

Hence, the answer of the question is B.

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A qualified intermediary handles
A) delayed 1031 tax deferred exchanges
B) homeowners association disputes
C) the resolution of inequities in taxation
D) federal fair housing complaints

Answers

A qualified intermediary primarily handles a) delayed 1031 tax deferred exchanges.

In a 1031 exchange, also known as a like-kind exchange, a taxpayer can defer capital gains taxes on the sale of an investment property by reinvesting the proceeds into another property of similar value. The qualified intermediary acts as a neutral third party to facilitate the exchange process, ensuring that all legal requirements are met, and holding the proceeds from the sale in a separate escrow account until the purchase of the replacement property is completed.

The QI does not handle homeowners association disputes (Option B), the resolution of inequities in taxation (Option C), or federal fair housing complaints (Option D). These matters are typically managed by other professionals, such as attorneys or regulatory agencies, depending on the specific issue at hand. It is essential for a QI to have expertise in tax laws and regulations pertaining to 1031 exchanges in order to provide accurate and professional assistance in this area.

Therefore, the correct answer is  a) delayed 1031 tax deferred exchanges.

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________ is an arrangement in which a contractor supplies managerial know-how to operate a hotel, hospital, airport, or other facility in exchange for compensation. Group of answer choices Build-operate-transfer Management contract Leasing Exporting

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The answer to the question is "Management contract." A management contract is an arrangement between a contractor and a facility owner, in which the contractor provides their managerial expertise and know-how to operate and manage the facility on behalf of the owner.

In exchange for their services, the contractor receives compensation. This type of arrangement is commonly used in the hospitality industry for hotels, resorts, and restaurants, as well as in the healthcare industry for hospitals and medical facilities, and in the transportation industry for airports and other transportation facilities.

A management contract typically outlines the terms and conditions of the agreement, including the scope of the contractor's responsibilities, the compensation structure, the duration of the contract, and any performance metrics that must be met. The contractor is responsible for managing the day-to-day operations of the facility, including staffing, training, marketing, and financial management. The owner retains ownership of the facility and is responsible for providing the necessary capital investments and maintenance to keep the facility in good condition. A management contract can be a beneficial arrangement for both the contractor and the facility owner, as it allows the contractor to leverage their expertise to generate revenue, while the owner benefits from improved operations and profitability.

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______ stimulated the emergence of an internationally integrated trading system stretching from Asia to the Mediterranean and Africa.

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The Silk Road stimulated the emergence of an internationally integrated trading system stretching from Asia to the Mediterranean and Africa.

The Silk Road was a network of trade routes that connected the East and West, stretching from China to the Mediterranean Sea. It was named after the valuable silk that was traded along it, but many other goods were also exchanged, including spices, textiles, and precious metals. The Silk Road was not a single road but rather a network of paths that connected different regions and cultures. Along the way, ideas and religions were also exchanged, making the Silk Road not only a route for trade but also a cultural exchange. The Silk Road played a significant role in the development of civilizations and trade between the East and West for centuries.

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When a licensed broker changes his or her place of business
A) a new license will be issued by the board immediately
B) the division must be notified within ten days
C) a new license will be issued for a full term
D) the new address must be approved by the commission

Answers

When a licensed broker changes his or her place of business, the broker is required to notify the division within ten days. The correct option is B) the division must be notified within ten days.

The division will then update the broker's information in its records and provide a new license reflecting the change in address. This ensures that the broker's information is up to date and that any regulatory communication will be sent to the correct address. The broker is not required to obtain a new license, and the new address does not need to be approved by the commission.

However, it is important that the broker update any other relevant agencies or organizations with their new address, such as the National Association of Realtors or the state's real estate association.

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If the government spending multiplier is 9 and government spending increases by $10 billion, output will ________ by $________ billion. A) increase; 90

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If the government spending multiplier is 9 and government spending increases by $10 billion, output will increase by $90 billion.

The government spending multiplier is a measure of how much additional output is generated by each additional dollar of government spending. In this case, the multiplier is 9, which means that for every additional dollar of government spending, output increases by 9 dollars.

Therefore, if government spending increases by $10 billion, output will increase by 9 times that amount, or $90 billion. This is because the increase in government spending will lead to increased demand for goods and services, which in turn will lead to increased production and employment.

It is important to note that the government spending multiplier is not fixed and can vary depending on a number of factors, including the state of the economy and the composition of government spending. For example, if the economy is in a recession, the multiplier may be higher as there is more slack in the economy and more room for increased production.

Similarly, if government spending is targeted towards productive investments such as infrastructure, the multiplier may be higher as these investments can lead to long-term increases in productivity and output.

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.Which of the following ratios shows the relationship between gross income and money saved?
A. Debt ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Liquidity ratio
D. Debt payments ratio
E. Savings ratio

Answers

The ratio that shows the relationship between gross income and money saved is the Savings ratio. The correct answer is option e.

The Savings ratio, also known as the Savings-to-Income ratio, measures the proportion of gross income that an individual or entity saves or sets aside for future use. It indicates how much of the income is being saved rather than spent.

The formula for calculating the Savings ratio is:

Savings ratio = Money Saved / Gross Income

By comparing the amount of money saved to the total gross income, the Savings ratio provides insights into an individual's or entity's saving habits and financial discipline. A higher Savings ratio indicates a higher proportion of income being saved, which is generally considered favorable for financial stability and long-term planning.

The other ratios mentioned (Debt ratio, Current ratio, Liquidity ratio, Debt payments ratio) are not specifically related to the relationship between gross income and money saved. They measure different aspects of a company's financial health, such as debt levels, liquidity, and debt payment capabilities.

The correct answer is option e.

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When a firm offers a very low price on a product to attract customers to a store, and once in the store, the customer is persuaded to purchase a higher-priced item, the practice is referred to as Group of answer choices predatory pricing. bait and switch. price discrimination. deceptive pricing.

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The practice that you have described is known as "bait and switch".

Bait and switch is a sales tactic where a company will advertise a product at an incredibly low price to lure customers into their store or website.

Once the customer is there, they are presented with a different, more expensive product that the company is trying to sell.

This tactic is generally considered deceptive and unethical because it involves misleading customers into thinking they are getting a good deal when, in reality, they are being tricked into spending more money than they intended.

Bait and switch are illegal in many jurisdictions, and companies found using this tactic can face significant penalties and legal action.

In summary, while offering a low price to attract customers is a common practice, the practice of bait and switch is not only unethical, but it is also illegal in many cases.

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When an applicants is moved to the "Rejected - Did Not Meet MERs" status, how long does it take for correspondence to be sent to the applicant indicating their status?

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When an applicant is moved to the "Rejected - Did Not Meet MERs" status, it typically takes around 1-2 weeks for correspondence to be sent to the applicant indicating their status.

However, the exact timing may vary depending on the organization's processes and workload.

It's always a good idea to reach out to the organization directly if you have any concerns about the status of your application or the timing of correspondence.

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When an applicant is moved to the "Rejected - Did Not Meet MERs" status, the time it takes for correspondence to be sent to the applicant indicating their status can vary depending on the policies and procedures of the organization.

Step 1: The applicant is evaluated and deemed as not meeting the Minimum Eligibility Requirements (MERs).

Step 2: The organization's human resources or recruitment team updates the applicant's status to "Rejected - Did Not Meet MERs."

Step 3: The team prepares the correspondence, which is typically an email or letter, to inform the applicant of their rejection.

Step 4: The correspondence is sent to the applicant, which can take anywhere from a few hours to a few days, depending on the organization's processing time.

In summary, the time it takes to send correspondence to an applicant who has been rejected due to not meeting MERs depends on the specific organization and their communication procedures.

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Which type of service challenges the traditional classifications of services as either a business or consumer service

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A hybrid service is one that challenges the conventional categorization of services as either commercial or consumer services.

Hybrid services combine elements of both business-to-business (B2B) and business-to-consumer (B2C) services, making it difficult to classify them as either one or the other. These services typically involve a combination of digital and physical components, and are often provided by companies that operate in both the B2B and B2C markets. Hybrid services may include offerings such as cloud-based software platforms, mobile apps, and online marketplaces that cater to both businesses and consumers.

Prosumer services blur the line between business and consumer services by allowing consumers to both consume and produce services. This typically involves collaboration between businesses and consumers, enabling individuals to actively participate in the service process and create value for themselves and the business.

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The ______ is a performance appraisal checklist form on which a manager simply rates performance on a continuum such as excellent, good, average, fair, and poor. a. critical incidents method b. graphic rating scale form c. management by objectives method d. narrative method or form

Answers

The graphic rating scale form is a performance appraisal checklist where a manager rates an employee's performance on a continuum such as excellent, good, average, fair, and poor.

Understanding graphic rating scale form

This method allows for a clear and concise evaluation of an individual's performance in various aspects of their job, making it easier to identify strengths and areas for improvement.

Unlike other methods, such as critical incidents method, management by objectives method, and narrative method or form, the graphic rating scale form provides a standardized and straightforward approach to evaluating employee performance.

This can help managers make more consistent and fair decisions regarding promotions, salary increases, and employee development opportunities.

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In controlling the nation's money supply, the Fed is obligated to seek the advice of Group of answer choices the Congress. the Treasury. the President of the United States. none of the choices are correct

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In controlling the nation's money supply, the Federal Reserve (the Fed) is not obligated to seek the advice of the Congress, the Treasury, or the President of the United States. Option c: "none of the choices are correct".

The Federal Reserve is an independent central banking system in the United States and operates with a certain level of autonomy from the other branches of government. While the Federal Reserve maintains regular communication and coordination with these entities, its decision-making processes, including those related to monetary policy and the control of the money supply, are largely independent.

The Federal Reserve's primary objectives are to promote price stability, maximize employment, and maintain the stability of the financial system, and it carries out its responsibilities based on its own analysis, expertise, and mandates established by law.

Option c: "none of the choices are correct".

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Due to competition and demand in the marketplace, ______ and ______ are not always related.

Answers

Due to competition and demand in the marketplace, price and cost are not always related.

Price refers to the amount of money that customers are willing to pay for a product or service, while cost represents the expenses incurred by a company to produce or provide that product or service. While it may seem logical for price and cost to be directly linked, various factors in the marketplace can decouple them.

Competition plays a significant role in shaping prices. In a highly competitive market, businesses may engage in price wars or offer discounts to attract customers. This can lead to lower prices for consumers despite the underlying costs remaining relatively constant or even increasing.

Demand dynamics also influence pricing. If the demand for a product or service is high and exceeds supply, businesses may increase prices even if their costs have not significantly changed. Conversely, in a situation where demand is low, businesses may reduce prices to stimulate sales, regardless of their costs.

Overall, the relationship between price and cost is influenced by market forces, competition, and demand, which can cause price and cost to deviate from each other.

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Those activities that focus on getting right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost are known as

Answers

The activities that focus on getting right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost are known as supply chain management.

Supply chain management refers to the coordination and integration of various processes involved in the production, procurement, transportation, and distribution of goods and services. It encompasses activities such as sourcing materials, managing inventory, planning production schedules, coordinating logistics, and optimizing the flow of products from suppliers to customers.

The primary goal of supply chain management is to ensure that the right amount of the right products reaches the right place at the right time, while minimizing costs throughout the entire supply chain network. This involves effective coordination and collaboration among suppliers, manufacturers, distributors, retailers, and other entities involved in the supply chain to achieve efficient and cost-effective operations.

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Which of the following would not be classified as an operating activity?
a) Interest income
b) Income tax expense
c) Dividend income
d) Payment of dividends

Answers

Dividend income is not classified as an operating activity. The correct option is c).

Dividend income is not classified as an operating activity because it is related to investments in other companies rather than the primary operations of the business. Operating activities typically involve the production, sales, and delivery of goods and services, whereas dividend income is derived from owning shares in another company.

The statement is asking which of the four options would not be classified as an operating activity. Operating activities are those that are directly related to a company's core business operations and generate revenue or expenses. Based on this definition, option C, dividend income, would not be classified as an operating activity.

Dividend income is income received by a company from its investments in other companies. It is not directly related to the company's core business operations and does not generate revenue. Therefore, it is classified as an investing activity in a company's statement of cash flows.

On the other hand, options A, B, and D would be classified as operating activities. Interest income and income tax expense are both directly related to a company's core business operations and generate revenue or expenses. Payment of dividends is also an operating activity as it represents a cash outflow to the company's owners or shareholders.

In summary, dividend income would not be classified as an operating activity as it is not directly related to a company's core business operations and does not generate revenue.

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Look at practice test for figure; what is the area that represents consumer surplus after imposition of the ceiling?
a) A + B + C + D
b) A + B + C
c) A + B + C + D + E + J
d) A + B + D

Answers

In the context of the given figure, the area that represents consumer surplus after imposition of the ceiling is option (c) A + B + C + D + E + J.

Consumer surplus refers to the difference between the maximum amount that a consumer is willing to pay for a product and the actual amount paid. In this case, the imposition of the ceiling on the price of the product results in a reduction in price, which leads to an increase in the quantity demanded by consumers.

As a result, the consumer surplus increases, and the new consumer surplus is represented by the areas A + B + C + D + E + J. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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building positions in selected stages of the industry value chain is referred to as a
1. tapered integration strategy.
2. full integration strategy.
3. partial integration strategy.

Answers

Building positions in selected stages of the industry value chain is referred to as a partial integration strategy. The correct answer is option 3.

A partial integration strategy involves a company selectively integrating backward or forward into certain stages of the industry value chain while maintaining relationships with external partners for other stages. This approach allows a company to focus on and control specific activities that are critical to its competitive advantage or core competency.

Unlike a full integration strategy, which involves complete vertical integration across the entire value chain, or a tapered integration strategy, which involves a gradual and strategic integration process, a partial integration strategy enables a company to leverage its strengths and resources in specific areas while still benefiting from the expertise and capabilities of external partners in other areas.

By strategically choosing which stages to integrate, a company can optimize its operations, enhance efficiency, gain better control over key activities, and potentially achieve cost savings or differentiation advantages. It allows for a more flexible and tailored approach to value chain management, leveraging both internal and external capabilities to drive business success.

The correct answer is option 3.

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How do firms measure the amount of profit they expect to make from a specific customer based on purchases made overâ time?
A.
Consumer equity
B.
Customer lifetime value
C.
Discount rate
D.
Sentiment analysis
E.
Customer prioritization
b


Answers

Answer:

I think C is right answer

Problem-______-solution is the organizational pattern that identifies a problem, the problem's source, and a solution to the problem.

Answers

Problem-cause-solution is an organizational pattern used in writing and speaking that identifies a problem, the source of the problem, and a solution to the problem.

This pattern is commonly used in persuasive speeches, essays, and reports, where the goal is to convince the audience that a particular problem exists and to propose a solution to that problem.The first part of this pattern involves identifying the problem and presenting evidence to support its existence. The second part involves identifying the source or cause of the problem, which is important for developing an effective solution. The third part involves presenting a solution to the problem and explaining why it will be effective.This pattern can be used for a wide range of topics, including social issues, business problems, and environmental concerns. By presenting a clear problem-cause-solution structure, writers and speakers can help their audiences understand the problem, its underlying causes, and the proposed solution.

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The Easy Electronic Company has a wireless headphone that has been successful and made them a lot of money. Now, there is a substitute for their product. In which stage is The Easy Electronic Company currently in?

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The Easy Electronic company is in the decline stage of product cycle as there is substitute available for their product.

The product can lose market share and start to deteriorate as competition rises as other businesses try to replicate its success. Due to market saturation and the availability of substitute products, product sales start to decline, and the company may decide not to pursue further marketing initiatives since clients may have have made up their minds about whether or not to remain loyal to the company's products.

If a product is completely retired, the corporation stops developing support for it and stops all marketing efforts. As an alternative, the business might elect to redesign the item or release an entirely new model for the following generation. The corporation may decide to reenter the product life cycle by releasing the new version to the market if the upgrade is significant enough.

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If a pure monopolist is producing more output than the MR = MC output:
A. the firm may, or may not, be maximizing profits.
B. it will be in the interest of the firm, but not necessarily of society, to reduce output.
C. it will be in the interest of the firm and society to increase output.
D. it will be in the interest of the firm and society to reduce output.

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If a monopolist is producing more output than the MR = MC output, it indicates that the firm is not currently maximizing its profits.

So, the correct answer is A.

In this situation, it would be in the interest of the firm to reduce output, as the additional cost of producing extra units outweighs the revenue gained .

This would move the firm closer to the MR = MC output level. However, this reduction in output may not align with society's interests, as monopolists tend to restrict output to maintain higher prices.

Thus, while the firm benefits from reducing output in this scenario, it doesn't necessarily mean that it's in the best interest of society .

In summary, when a monopolist produces more than the MR = MC output, the firm should reduce output to maximize profits, but the impact on society may be different depending on other factors.

Hence, the answer of the question is A.

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