No, because Investigator B cannot readily ascertain the research the source individual and Investigator B has agreed not to attempt re-identification of the specimens.
Any procedure that re-establishes the connection between data and the subject to which the data refers is referred to as re-identification. Human DNA from biological specimens, which may be maintained and used in numerous research investigations, is needed for genetic and genomic research. Because understanding genetic variation and its relationship with common and complicated illnesses on a genome-wide scale necessitates large sample sizes to attain sufficient power, access to stored bio specimens is essential for genetic and genomic research. The most valuable biospecimens are those that are associated with clinical and other phenotypic data about the sample source. National biobanks have been established in certain nations to achieve this.Along with the growth of population-based biobanks, a large number of research, pharmaceutical firms, and universities are gathering and archiving biological samples, clinical data, and genetic data in local and regional repositories. Cell lines are frequently created to prolong the study of the specimens, and the associated DNA data are widely made accessible for secondary analysis through open or password-protected databases.
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drag the measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations (bins) to describe what happens during the sliding filament mechanism of sarcomere shortening.
The measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations are: length decreased (Length of H zone, Length of I band, Distance between Z discs) and no change in length ( Length of A band, Length of thick filament, Length of thin filament)
Putting the measurements of the various areas linked with the sliding filament process of sarcomere shortening into their appropriate categories, based on whether or not the length of those regions increases, decreases, or stays the same.
When the distance/length decreases
Length of H zoneLength of I bandDistance between Z discsWhen the distance/length remains the same as previous
Length of A bandLength of thick filamentLength of thin filamentThe complete question is attached.
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how does transcription inhibition differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? drag the appropriate items to their respective bins.
Prokaryotic repressor proteins:
Bind to operator sequences that overlap promoters.Can block the action of the enhancerInvolve in the formation of DNA loops containing enhancers and their intended promoter targets.Eukaryotic repressor:
Binds to silencer sequences.Prevent enhancer-mediated transcription.Block transcription initiation by RNA polymerase.Eukaryotic insulators:
Block transcription initiation by RNA polymeraseWhat are regulatory gene?Regulatory genes or regulators are genes involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes. Regulatory sequences that encode regulatory genes are often located at her fifth end of the transcription start site of the genes they regulate. Regulatory elements are sequences of DNA that are recognized and bound by specific transcription factors to recruit or exclude RNA polymerase. Promoters regulate gene transcription together with nearby transcription factor binding elements.
Operons are controlled by regulatory genes that produce small protein molecules called repressors. The repressor binds to the operator gene and prevents it from initiating the synthesis of proteins required by the operon.
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enzymes degrade proteins, lipids, and large carbohydrates to smaller building blocks in the digestive tract. why must these macromolecules be broken down? which smaller building blocks can be absorbed?
Amino acids, which serve as the "building blocks" of proteins, are disassembled. These tiny molecules can be absorbed through the stomach wall after being released.
Describe how the macronutrients in your diet are digested and then put back together to form the cell structure.The principal macromolecules, from which all life is derived, are macrounits in our diet. The smaller subunits of these macromolecules must be broken down in order to be released. The circulatory system carries the digestively released components to the body's cells. These subunits serve as the building blocks for the macromolecules required for cellular structure and function, which are then put together by cells.
Proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates are examples of macromolecules.
The fact that all three macromolecules are hydrocarbons means that the majority of their atoms are made up of hydrogen and carbon.
Nitrogen atoms are found in proteins and in lipids.
Carbon atoms make up carbohydrates.
Simple carbohydrates are formed when complex carbohydrates are hydrated (by adding hydrogen and oxygen ions).
Dehydration of simple carbohydrates causes them to bind together in chains to create complex carbs. This can be reversed.
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heritability is one key criterion for natural selection, but for memes to evolve and adapt what factor is necessary to be in the population? and in what environments they can evolve?
The factor that is necessary to be in the population is the presence of genetic variation in the memes and they can evolve in an environment that selects individuals for this trait due to differential survival and reproduction.
What is the evolutionary mechanism of natural selection?The evolutionary mechanism of natural selection refers to the differential rate at which organisms can survive and reproduce in the presence of variation, which affects a given trait in particular environmental conditions.
Moreover, heritability is due to genetic factors that may be selected by the evolutionary process of natural selection.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the evolutionary mechanism of natural selection acts to select individuals on the bases of genetic factors that exhibit a certain level of heritability, which is a fundamental issue associated with differential survival rates and reproduction.
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during a fear conditioning experiment a light flash is paired with a shock, one animal freezes in place when seeing the light flash alone while a second animal does not. you were told the second animal had a brain lesion and assumed the lesion to be in the .
The second animal had a brain injury and thought it was in the amygdala.
What is the test for conditioning fear?One of the most frequently employed paradigms to measure memory and learning is the contextual and cued fear conditioning test. A context or conditioned stimulus (here, an auditory cue) is linked to an unpleasant stimulus in this test, which is a type of Pavlovian conditioning (electric footshock).
Examples of Conditioning Fear
In typical fear conditioning studies, the aversive stimulus is not presented to the rat or rodent in the cage at home. The animal is then placed in a new environment, exposed to unpleasant stimuli, such as a slight electrical shock to the foot, and then taken away.
Animals are put in a novel conditioning cage where they hear an auditory tone and then experience a brief foot shock in the most widely used version of the fear-conditioning paradigm. The animal can therefore connect the tone and new context with the unpleasant stimulus.
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all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the above are part of the cycle. regeneration of atp. regeneration of rubp. carbon fixation. synthesis of g3p. note: clicking any button other
During the Calvin cycle, plants fixate CO₂, and use ATP and NADPH to produce sugar molecules G3P, while regenerating RUBP to keep the cycle going. Option A. regeneration of ATP.
What is the Calvin cycle?
The Calvin cycle is the series of chemical reactions that occur during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
During the Calvin cycle, sugars or carbohydrates are synthesized.
Carbón dioxide -CO₂- enters the leaves through stomas, and diffuses to the chloroplast stroma. These molecules are used to produce 3-C sugars.
The whole process is impulsed by ATP and NADPH coming from light-dependent reactions.
1) During the carbon fixation phase, the CO₂ molecule combinates with a ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (5-C molecule) to form 6-C molecules, which will divide into two 3-phosphoglycerate molecules, 3-PGA (3-C molecules).
CO₂ + ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate ⟶ 6-C molecule ⟶ 2 3-PGA
2) During the reduction phase, ATP and NADPH are used to produce the sugar molecule glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) from 3-PGA molecules.
NADPH donates its electrons to turn 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, G3P.
3-PGA + ATP + NADPH ⟶ G3P + ADP + NADP⁺
3) During the regeneration phase,
some glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules leave the cycle and go to the cytosol to form glucose.Other G3P get recycled to regenerate the RuBP acceptor. This last reaction needs ATP and a series of other reactions.When three CO₂ enter the cycle, 6 G3P are produced. One of them leaves the cycle, and the remaining five are recycled and generate three RuBP.
According to this framework, the only option that is not part of the Calvin cycle is regeneration of ATP. Option A.
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the brains of people who suffer from depression tend to have low levels of: epigenetic marks. glucose. serotonin. molecular genetic tags.
The brains of people who suffer from depression tend to have low levels of serotonin.
Why is serotonin responsible for depression?Depression is а common аnd serious medicаl illness thаt negаtively аffects how we feel, the wаy we think аnd how we аct. The mаin cаndidаte genes аnаlysed in relаtion to trаumаtic stress аre those with the instructions to produce the glucocorticoid receptor аnd the serotonin trаnsporter. The glucocorticoid receptor binds steroid hormones, mаinly cortisol, аnd is involved in responses to stress аnd, in mice, in the regulаtion of аnxiety, аggression аnd cognitive performаnce. The serotonin trаnsporter is involved in the function of serotonin, а neurotrаnsmitter, which hаs been relаted to depressive disorders.
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Describe the significant events of glycolysis. Include which reactants and products (if any) are involved. Highlight what will be released as a product and what will move on to the next stage. Be sure to include where the process occurs in the Mitochondria.
Glycolysis is the first stage in cellular respiration where glucose is broken down. It splits glucose (6 C molecule) in half into 2 pyruvate (3 C molecules). Produces ATP and pyruvate. Occurs in the Cytoplasm.
During the first phase of cellular respiration, glucose is metabolised. It divides six-carbon glucose into two pyruvate molecules (3 C molecules). generates pyruvate and ATP. finds a home in the cytoplasm.
What constituents and byproducts of glycolysis are there? How does it happen?During the first phase of cellular respiration, glucose is metabolised. It divides six-carbon glucose into two pyruvate molecules (3 C molecules). generates pyruvate and ATP. finds a home in the cytoplasm.
A six-carbon glucose molecule is partially broken down during glycolysis into two, three-carbon pyruvate molecules, 2NADH + 2H+, and 2 net ATP molecules as a result of substrate-level phosphorylation. In the cell's cytoplasm, glycolysis takes place.
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What are the 7 properties that all living things share?.
Order, sensitivity or response to the environment, reproduction, growth and development, regulation, homeostasis, and energy processing are all shared by all living organisms.
A one-of-a-kind ability to reproduce, grow, metabolize, respond to stimuli, adapt to the environment, move, and, finally, breathe.
Living things can grow and change. Energy is obtained and used by living beings. They adjust to their surroundings. Every living thing is made up of one or more cells. Living things react to their surroundings or stimuli. All living things excrete waste material from their bodies.
Growth, reproduction, the ability to sense the environment, and appropriate response to something are all considered distinct characteristics of living organisms. Some characteristics that can be added to the list include metabolism, the ability to self-replicate, self-organized interaction, and emergence.
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Diagram the entire anatomical pathway of the reaction response starting from the stimulus at the contralateral hammer strike all the way to the response at the ipsilateral limb. Include names of muscles involved, tracts involved, and brain regions involved.
A reflex is an uncontrollable movement that happens almost instantly in response to a stimuli. Before an impulse reaches the brain, reflex arcs respond to it.
The reflex, which happens through a reflex arc, is an automatic reaction to a stimuli that doesn't require or receive conscious cognition. examines descending motor pathways, motor nerves, synaptic connections in the spinal cord, and afferent nerves. Reflexes are suppressed by lower motor neuron lesions (such as those that damage the anterior horn cell, spinal root, or peripheral nerve) and are increased by upper motor neuron lesions. The target muscle group needs to be in a neutral position (i.e. neither stretched nor contracted).
It is important to identify the tendon that connects the muscle(s) being evaluated.
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the electron transport chain (etc), or respiratory chain, is linked to proton movement and atpatp synthesis. select the statements that accurately describe the electron transport chain.
Following Statements Accurately describe the electron transport chain (ETC)
Proton transport from the matrix to the intermembrane space is connected with electron transfer in the electron transport chain (ETC).Prosthetic groups, like iron-sulfur centers, are directly engaged in the transport of electrons. Small molecules and hydrogen ions can easily pass through mitochondria's outer membrane.Four complexes of proteins and prosthetic groups make up electron carriers.Ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) and cytochrome c are electron carriers in the electron transport chain (ETC).The oxidative phosphorylation process, also known as the electron transport chain (ETC), is a collection of four protein complexes that combine redox events to produce an electrochemical gradient that results in the production of ATP. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place in mitochondria.
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If a mutation has a visible effect at 26°c, but no visible effect at 20°c, then 20°c is the _______ temperature and 26°c is the _______ temperature.
If a mutation has a visible effect at 26°c, but no visible effect at 20°c, then 20°c is the permissive temperature and 26°c is the restrictive temperature.
The majority of temperature-sensitive mutations damage proteins and result in loss of protein function when temperatures are too high. The permissive temperature is that at which the protein can usually fold correctly or continue to fold correctly. The protein becomes unstable and loses its ability to function at higher temperatures. In diploid organisms, these mutations are frequently recessive. Changing the growth temperature is a simple way to diminish specific gene products in temperature sensitive mutants, which have a reversible mechanismand can do so at different phases of growth.
A temperature-sensitive mutant gene product's permissive temperature is the point at which it develops a typical, useful phenotype. Even when a mutant allele is present, when a temperature-sensitive mutant is grown in a permissive environment, the mutated gene product operates normally (i.e., the phenotype is not shown). As if it were a wild type strain, the cell or organism survives as a result of this. The temperature at which the mutant phenotype is seen, in contrast, is the nonpermissive temperature or restrictive temperature.
Missense mutations are frequently temperature-sensitive mutations because they carry the function of a specific required gene at the typical, permissive low temperature. At a rather high, inadmissible temperature, it will instead not perform the function and show a Middle, semi-permissive temperature and hypomorphic (partial loss of gene activity).
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Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells, and the test for it helps to diagnose it.
Coagulation testing aids in the diagnosis of Staphylococcus aureus because it generates coagulase, an enzyme that causes a buildup of fibrin surrounding the bacterial cells.
Coagulases are polypeptides secreted by clinical isolates of Staphylococcus aureus that bind to and activate prothrombin, converting fibrinogen to fibrin and facilitating blood or plasma coagulation.Species of staphylococci are known as coagulase-negative staphylococci because they do not. On the skin of every healthy person, these microorganisms are typically present.
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which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? science philosophy of the vsc
The fact that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect. T cells can stimulate B cells to make antibodies, but they cannot make them by themselves.
What is cell-mediated immunity?
Cell-mediated immunity includes B cells and T helper cells, both of which are important components of the adaptive immune system. Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) first activate helper T cells by showing them the antigen that is carried by them. After T-helper cell activation, it secretes some cytokines that further stimulate the cell differentiation of T cells and activate B cells. The B cell, after activation, makes antibodies that are required to kill the particular pathogen in the body.
Hence, the option that mentions that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect.
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The question is incomplete. The complete question is below
1) which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? (select one)
a) They can stimulate B cells.
b) They are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
c) Helper T cell can secret cytokines.
d) They require an antigen presenting cell.
e) They produce antibodies.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in that they both __________; however, they are different in that only chloroplasts, and not mitochondria, __________.
have a double membrane ... carry out photosynthesis
Both have a double membrane but chloroplast carry out photosynthesis.
What are the similarities and differences between mitochondria and chloroplast?They each feature many membranes that divide the innards of each into distinct sections. The innermost membranes, known as cristae or infoldings of the inner membrane, are found in both organelles. Both organelles play a role in energy conversion: chloroplasts participate in photosynthesis and mitochondria in cellular respiration. Both are semi-autonomous, producing tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA from their own DNA. Each one has ribosomes. Both can produce a few proteins on their own. The mitochondria, also referred to as the "powerhouse of the cell," are in charge of cellular respiration and energy metabolism. Chloroplast It is where photosynthesis occurs, and it is bigger and more complex than a mitochondrion. Mitochondria present in every form of aerobic organism's cell, including those of both plants and animals. Green plants and green algae both include chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are Disc-shaped, whereas mitochondria are Bean-shaped. While chloroplasts are green in color, mitochondria are an organelle that lacks color. The two chambers of a mitochondrion are the matrix and cristae, while the two chambers in a chloroplast are the stroma and thylakoid. While chloroplast releases oxygen, mitochondria consume it. Chloroplasts include pigments like chlorophyll, carotenoids, and pigments involved in photosynthetic processes, whereas mitochondria lack any pigment. In contrast to chloroplast, which stores energy and converts it to glucose by using carbon dioxide and water, mitochondria release energy by converting organic food into carbon dioxide and water.
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Which of the following is NOT a product of the citric acid cycle?
NAD
FADH2
ATP
CO2
NAD
The Citric acid cycle results in the production of carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2, and GTP (which is comparable to ATP). Throughout this cycle, no water is produced.
What results from the citric acid cycle?Each cycle's turn results in the production of three NADH molecules and one FADH2 molecule. In order to produce ATP molecules, these carriers will be involved in the final phase of aerobic respiration. Each cycle additionally yields one GTP or A.
Of these, which is not a byproduct of the citric acid cycle?The Citric acid cycle results in the production of carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2, and GTP (which is comparable to ATP). Throughout this cycle, no water is produced. Consequently, 3. water is the right response.
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in pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds is dominant to the allele for green seeds. if a plant that has heterozygous yellow seeds is crossed with on
Cross between heterozygous yellow seeded plant and green seeded plant will produce 50% yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.
In general the cross between two heterozygous plants , the resulting progeny may result in the dominant phenotype. But, the recessive phenotype will also reappears in the generation . The cross between heterozygous yellow seeded plant and green seeded plant will produce 50% yellow seeded plants and 50% green seeded plants.
Hence, Mendel's experiments using pea plants, state that yellow color is autosomal dominant to green and round seeds are autosomal dominant to wrinkled seeds.
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Microscope differential count Complete the following steps: Focus slide at 4x using the coarse focus, then the fine focus MICROSCOPE CONTROLS Rotate 40X nosepiece Coarse focus Fine focus SLIDE POSITION -1227 Turn objective to 10x and focus again al- Stage horizontal Stage vertical 1 1 Turn objective to 40X and focus again METHODS Lab Data - X LABELS Move to upper-left corner of slide Count Percentage Neutrophils . + 33.3 5 + 1 33.3 Lymphocytes Monocytes Open Lab Data. Count each type of WBC in each region of slide by clicking corresponding buttons in Lab Data. + 0 0.0 Eosinophils + 0 0.0 Basophils - + 1 33.3 6 Total 3 100 Count 50 WBCs in total by using arrow buttons to move through regions of slide. How to Identify WBCS
In this case, a total of 50 WBC must be counted, so the findings are:
Neutrophils → 32 (64%)Lymphocytes → 13 (26%)Monocytes → 3 (6%)Acidophils → 2 (4%)Basophil → 0 (0%)This question is about differential leukocyte practicum, we have to look for the type and number of leukocytes found on the prepared slide. (For complete questions, see the picture)
White blood cells have a nucleus so they are blue, there are 5 white blood cells namely:
Lymphocytes have a large nucleus that almost fills the cell with a thin rim of cytoplasm around it.Basophils have a bilobed nucleus and are finely granular and therefore have a pale stain in the cytoplasm.Neutrophils have a segmented nucleus with granules in the cytoplasm and are the size compared to others.Monocytes have a kidney-shaped nucleus with an invaginated vacuole and thin cytoplasm at the periphery and are relatively in sizeEosinophils have a bilobed nucleus with large eosinophilic granulesAfter knowing the characteristics of the types of white blood cells, we can identify white blood cells in a given area.
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one of the first steps in obtaining a karyotype (such as that shown below of a cancer cell) is treating cells with a drug that stalls cells in mitosis. why must cells arrest in mitosis for karyotype analysis?
Mitotic chromosomes are the only ones that are highly condensed and visible under a light microscope.
What is a Mitosis?Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which the nucleus of a cell is divided into two nuclei, each with an equal amount of genetic material. It follows the G2 phase and is followed by cytoplasmic division following nucleus separation. Mitosis is required for cell growth and the replacement of worn-out cells. Abnormalities in mitosis can cause DNA to be altered, resulting in genetic disorders.
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What are the 3 most important things about storage areas?.
Storage areas fall into three categories: mechanized warehouses, manual warehouses, and storerooms.
Garage centers are very beneficial when you want to preserve gadgets in a scientific way. So, manipulate your garage unit and make it prepared. The business enterprise and making plans are very crucial factors when you have a business, too. a terrific and reliable garage facility is needed for retaining vital documents or goods.
A garage area community (SAN) is a devoted, impartial excessive-velocity network that interconnects and offers shared swimming pools of storage devices to multiple servers. every server can get entry to the shared garage as if it were a drive immediately connected to the server.
Not unusual storage regions (CSA) are used by VTAM® and other sources in your network to hold buffers and manage blocks inside the CSA for MVS™ structures. For overall performance motives, VTAM offers you a few manage over its use of commonplace storage regions with the begin options. these alternatives are described in the following sections.
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This spice is obtained from stigmas and the spice plant is propagated by corms. This spice is derived from plants in the speciesA.Curcuma longa.(Turmeric)B.Capsicum annuum.(Sweet and chili peppers)C.Myristica fragrans.(Nutmeg)D.Zingiber officinale.(Ginger)E.Crocus sativus.(Saffron)
The stigmas of the Crocus sativus plant, a member of the Iridaceae family, are used to make saffron, a significant spice.
What spice is made from flower stigmas?The Crocus sativus flower's dried stigma is what is used to make saffron. The word "saffron" comes from an Arabic verb that means "to become yellow," alluding to the spice's use as a vibrant yellow dye. Most likely, the Sanskrit term for saffron that gave rise to the Latin word "crocus" in the first place.
Is saffron an instance of corm?The cormose triploid geophyte saffron (Crocus Sativus L.) is not found in the wild. Due to the multiple benefits associated with its stigmatic lobes, it has been grown since ancient times. Corm propagation is the only method of reproduction; seeds do not exist.
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TRUE/FALSE. transmission is a type of vertical transmission of disease that occurs when parasites are acquired during one life stage and passed on to the next life stage of an insect.
Transmission is a type of vertical transmission of disease that occurs when parasites are acquired during one life stage and passed on to the next life stage of an insect. This is a true statement.
Vertical transmission refers to the transmission of the virus from parent to child across generations. HIV-1 is, for example, B. intrauterine (by disruption of the placental barrier or transcytosis of cell-associated viruses), intrapartum (intrapartum) or during lactation.
Transmission routes include direct contact, droplets, vectors such as mosquitoes, vehicles such as food, or the respiratory tract. Vulnerable hosts have multiple entry points, such as mouths and syringes.
Vertical transmission is an indirect, vector-mediated biological transmission process in which the pathogen infects the offspring from the female parent via the egg. Only the ovarian sheath and fallopian tubes are infected. Eggs become infected when they pass through the fallopian tubes and are inseminated.
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which of the following is not considered biomass? group of answer choices charcoal animal manure coal crop residues wood
c) Coal is not considered biomass.
In the field of science, biomass can be described as such kind of fuel that is obtained from living organisms such as plants and animals. When the dead plants and animals are burned, fuel is produced which is biomass.
Coal is a resource that does not come from living organisms. Coal is a natural resource that is present in the earth in the form of coal rocks. Although coal is also an excellent fuel used for many purposes, it is not biomass because it is not obtained from the burning of living organisms.
The energy obtained from coal as well as biomass is considered to be a non-renewable resource because it cannot be recycled.
The question will correctly be written as:
which of the following is not considered biomass? group of answer choices
a) charcoal
b) animal manure
c) coal
d)crop residues
e) wood
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which key property of the bronchi increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases? (hint: it also occurs in the arterial vasculature.)
Total cross-sectional is a key property of the bronchi that increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases.
The lungs' entryways are called bronchi and are the plural form of bronchus. The right and left major bronchi are the first bronchi that emerge from the trachea. The largest bronchi are those that enter the lung. The bronchi continue to branch after entering the lungs, first becoming tertiary (segmental) bronchi, then into secondary bronchi known as lobar bronchi.
Up until the sixth generation of bronchi, segmental bronchi continue to branch. The cartilage in its wall provides support for every generation, beginning with the primary. The passageways are known as bronchioles after the sixth generation because they are too narrow to be supported by the cartilage.
Hence, cross section area maximized to avail required air volume.
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anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
People with this form of SCD (sickle cell disease) inherit two of their genes (one from each parent) that code for hemoglobin 'S'. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal form of hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to harden and sickle. This is commonly known as sickle cell anemia and is usually the most serious form of the disease. By blocking blood flow to organs, sickle cells deprive affected organs of blood and oxygen. During sickle cell anemia, the blood is also chronically depleted of oxygen. This lack of oxygenated blood can damage nerves and organs such as the kidneys, liver, and spleen, which can be fatal.
Stem cell or bone marrow transplantation is the only treatment for sickle cell disease, but it is not done very often because it carries significant risks.Stem cells are spongy tissue found in the center of some bones. It is a special cell produced by the bone marrow that is They can turn into different types of blood cells.
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The complete question is as follows:
Anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
Identify the types of Anemia given the symptoms below:
1) A form of this anemia, called pernicious anemia, occurs when inadequate intrinsic factor is secreted into the stomach.
2) This type of anemia is caused by a recessive mutation that causes hemoglobin molecules to fold incorrectly.
3) Treatment may involve injections of vitamin B12.
4) Red blood cells may abnormally formed into half-moon shapes.
5) A deficiency of vitamin Bs or iron may cause this type of anemia.
6) Treatment often involves supplementation with iron and vitamin C.
7) This may be caused by a deficiency of folate.
8) Red blood cells are smaller than normal.
The three factors that regulate glycolysis include all of the following except: A)Concentrations of key glycolytic enzymes; B)Carbon dioxide; C)Oxygen; D)Levels of fructose 1,6-disphosphate
It is the procedure through which a glucose molecule is split into two pyruvate molecules. Animal and plant cells' cytoplasm's are where the process occurs.
The process involves six enzymes. Two pyruvate, two ATP, and two molecules of NADH are the reaction's final byproducts.
Regulation of Glycolysis It's a general principle of metabolic control that pathways are controlled at the committed step. The committed phase is the one when there is just one possible outcome for the substrate. The regulation of glycolysis takes place at various points because glycolytic intermediates are a source of energy for numerous different routes.
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Which of the following is not a point mutation?.
The right answer is (A) deletion.
Point mutations are defined as changes to a single nucleotide base inside a DNA segment. Deletion is the process of removing one or more nucleotide bases from a DNA segment. Point mutation results from single nucleotide deletion. An inverted chromosome is one that has had a portion of its ends switched around. A relatively big chromosome is disrupted by inversion, which also causes chromosomal abnormalities but not point mutations.
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Explain how this experiment models a cell membrane. Use the following terms in your explanation: selectively permeable, hypertonic, diffusion, indicator.
The cell membrane is considered the outer boundary of the cell and is selectively permeable, allowing diffusion of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, water and micronutrients.
How can cell membranes ensure a certain permeability?Cell membranes are said to be selectively permeable because only certain molecules can pass through them. Only certain types of molecules, such as water and gas molecules, can pass directly through cell membranes.
Model membrane system:
The properties of lipids in membranes have been demonstrated in detail using a membrane model system. Multilamellar liposomes are one of the most commonly used model membrane systems.
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The maximum number of organisms of a particular species that can be supported by an environment is called.
Carrying capacity.
This will often be marked by a plateau in a graph of a species' population.
Which of the following has the greatest potential as a cancer treatment?Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in normal cells, so that the normal cells would soon outnumber the cancer cells.Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since they will be unable to divide if their telomeres are too long.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in all cells in embryos, so that they never develop cancer.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since the cells would stop dividing when the telomeres were gone.
Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy are the most often used conventional treatment techniques, while hormone therapy is one of the more recent modalities.
How can telomerase production be boosted?These findings demonstrated that in men, telomerase activation in response to high-intensity cycling exercise is diminished with age [78]. A 30-minute treadmill exercise was sufficient, according to another study, to boost the PBMC telomerase activity in 22 young, healthy subjects—11 men and 11 women—[79].
How is telomerase suppressed?oligonucleotides related to antisense. Antisense DNA oligonucleotides are one of the oldest and most widely utilized families of telomerase inhibiting drugs. Since the 1990s, antisense compounds have frequently been utilized to prevent the translation of mRNA into a useful protein.
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