The brachial plexus originates from the c5-t1 roots.
The brachial plexus may be a network of nerves within the shoulder that carries movement and sensory signals from the neural structure to the arms and hands. Injury to the present network of nerves usually happens once your arm is forcibly force or stretched or your head and neck are forcibly force off from your shoulder.
The brachial plexus passes from the neck to the axillary cavity and provides the higher limb. It's fashioned from the ventral rami of the fifth (C5)to eighth cervical nerves and therefore the ascending a part of the ventral os of the first spinal nerve (T1).
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the blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called
Blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called The A1C test which is also known as the hemoglobin A1C or HbA1c test.
What is the A1C test?A1C test is a simple blood test that measures average blood sugar levels of the past 3 months. It is commonly used tests to diagnose prediabetes and diabetes and is the main test to help you and your health care team manage diabetes.
A1C below 5.7% is normal, between 5.7 and 6.4% indicates you have prediabetes and 6.5% or higher indicates that you have diabetes.
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What actions should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube?.
The actions that should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube include:
monitor the patient for feeding tolerance.assess the abdomen by auscultating for bowel sounds and palpating for rigidity, distention, and tendernesslisten to the client in the case of complaints of fullness or nausea after feeding starts because they may have a higher gastric residual volume What is a gastrostomy tube?A gastrostomy tube is a tube that is inserted through the belly in order to deliver nutrition directly to the stomach, especially in conditions where oral feeding is not recommended.
Intermittent enteral feeding involves delivering at intervals to the stomach or the small intestine.
When a nurse is administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube to a client, it is important to monitor the client in order to avoid discomfort.
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Which intervention is a priority for a patient with a retinal detachment?.
Answer:
Immediate ophthalmologic referralYour WELCOME!!
what is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g
Attributable risk is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g.
Attributable risk is the concept that relates as to how much of an outcome can be related to the exposure caused or risk factor in a population which is exposed to that factor (In this case factor g). Attributable risk (AR) is the risk difference between exposed and unexposed groups. This method can be used to relate the cause and effect of any disease to the disease itself. For example, the attributable factor of lung cancer and smoking is 85% according to the expert research published. It is same as excess risk or risk difference. Attributable risk is the measure of with how much potential the disease can be prevented if the exposure is eliminated.
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which action does a nurse anticipate the health care provider will take regarding a patient with a baseline low-density lipoprotein of 130 mg/dl who was prescribed niacin and now has an ldl level of 99 mg/dl
Unless your LDL is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L), you probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low. Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is really high, such as if you've previously experienced a heart attack.
The majority of the cholesterol in your body is LDL (low-density lipoprotein), also referred to as "bad" cholesterol. Your risk of heart disease and stroke increases if your LDL cholesterol levels are high. You probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low unless your LDL level is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L). Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is very high, such as if you've had a heart attack in the past.
LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol, also referred to as "bad" cholesterol, makes up the majority of the cholesterol in your body. Heart disease and stroke risk are increased by high LDL cholesterol levels.
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What are two common treatments for retinal detachment?.
The two common treatments for retinal detachments are : Freeze treatment (cryopexy) or laser surgery.
what is retina ?
The light-sensitive layers of nerve tissue at the back of the eye that receive images and sends them as electric signals through the optic nerve to the brain
Cryotherapy is a treatment for repairing retinal detachments and retinal tears by freezing the retina back into its correct position. Cryotherapy creates an adhesive scar that seals the retina against the back wall of the eye so that the detachment or tear can begin healing.
The doctor will seal the retina around the tear by placing laser spots around the hole, which then forms scar tissue acting like a barrier to prevent the retina from detaching.
This procedure is called a laser retinopexy. It usually takes about 14 days for the scar tissue to develop.
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the nurse assesses a client who has received a tentative diagnosis of delirium and explains to the family about the major cause of the client's condition. which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
His diagnosis is based mostly on the sudden onset of his change in consciousness."
The primary diagnostic sign for delirium is impaired consciousness, which usually appears suddenly. Although illness may be the underlying cause, and other cognitive abnormalities such as memory, orientation, and language impairments may occur, the development of reduced consciousness over a short period of time is critical. (less)
A tentative diagnosis is a preliminary suspicion of a patient's condition that is frequently made by clinicians based on the patient's narrative at the time of admission. It is heavily reliant on physicians' expertise and professional knowledge.
If a Positive Diagnosis for Cancer or a Specified Disease is made within 12 months of a Tentative Diagnosis, benefits will begin 12 months after the Certificate Effective Date.
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a patient who experiences an attack of gout once every 1 or 2 years has been self-treating with over-the-counter (otc) drugs. which drug would the nurse expect to provide the least relief of gout pain?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) provide the least relief of gout pain.
Tylenol (acetaminophen) reduces temperature and soothes discomfort. Additionally, acetaminophen can be found in medications that also include other active components and are used to treat allergies, cough, colds, flu, and insomnia. Acetaminophen is a common constituent in prescription drugs that are used to relieve moderate to severe pain.
A typical and excruciating type of inflammatory arthritis is gout. One joint is often affected at a time (often the big toe joint). There are remissions and flares, or periods without symptoms. Flares are periods when symptoms worsen.
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TRUE/FALSE. experimental data suggests that chronic disease (e.g., diabetes, cancer) may partly be due to poor nutrition during and the nutritional environment in later stages of life.
True, According to experimental data, poor nutrition during adolescence as well as the nutritional environment in later life may contribute to the development of chronic diseases (such as diabetes and cancer).
What is chronic disease?
A disease or health condition that develops over time and is persistent or has other long-lasting effects is referred to as a chronic condition. When a disease has a longer than three-month course, the term "chronic" is frequently used. Diabetes, functional gastrointestinal disorders, dermatitis, arthritis, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, Ringworm, autoimmune diseases, genetic conditions, and some viral illnesses like hepatitis C as well as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome are examples of common chronic diseases. A terminal illness is one that lasts for the rest of one's life because it results in death. It is possible and not uncommon for an illness to change from being defined as terminal to being defined as chronic.
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the nurse is performing an assessment in the nursery on an infant with a developmental hip dysplasia. which findings should the nurse anticipate?
Asymmetrical gluteal folds findings should be anticipated by the nurse to performing an assessment of hip dysplasia.
What factors contribute most frequently to hip dysplasia?Although the specific origin is unknown, doctors think a number of things enhance a child's risk of hip dysplasia, including a parent or other close relative having the condition. Girls are more likely to have the disease than boys by a factor of two to four. babies who are born first, whose uterus fits them better than later babies do.
Hip dysplasia is a risk factor for who?Hip dysplasia is more prevalent in girls and frequently runs in families. Babies who are swaddled tightly with their hips and knees straight and those who are born in breech positions also have a higher risk of developing hip dysplasia.
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What does the ER do for a retinal detachment?.
The ER evaluates the patient with retinal detachment and treats any unstable vital signs. They prepare the patient for emergency surgery, if necessary.
what is retinal detachment?
Retinal detachment is an emergency situation. Herein, a thin layer of tissue (the retina) pulls away from it usual position at the back of the eye.
The retinal cells get separated from layer of blood vessels that are responsible for providing oxygen and nourishing the eye.
If Retinal detachment is left untreated for long, the risk of losing permanent vision is high.
The Retinal detachment itself is painless. However, warning signs do appear always before it has happened or after. They include:
Flashes of light in the eyeBlurry visionSudden appearance of many floatersCurtain like shadow over visionIf a person experiences any or all of the symptoms of Retinal detachment, they should seek immediate medical help. Retinal detachment can cause permanent vision damage, and hence it is important to treat it as soon as you find out.
Thus, the ER evaluates the patient with retinal detachment and treats any unstable vital signs. They prepare the patient for emergency surgery, if necessary.
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Which of the following is an indication using the ACR appropriateness criteria for obtaining a pre-op chest radiograph? Select all that apply.A. 37 year old woman with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently but a history of asthma pre-op breast implantsB. 73 year old asymptomatic man pre-op knee replacementC. 49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung baseD. 78 year old woman with COPD, normal CXR 5 months ago and no acute sypmtoms, pre-op for a hip replacementE. 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement
49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung base and 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement.
The ACR Appropriateness Criteria (AC) are evidence-based guidelines designed to help referring physicians and other providers choose the best imaging or treatment option for a specific clinical condition.
The primary goal of the ACR is to serve patients and society by empowering members to advance radiological care practice and science. The gold accreditation seal from the ACR represents the highest level of image quality and patient safety. After a peer-review evaluation by board-certified physicians and medical physicists who are experts in the field, it is only given to facilities that meet ACR Practice Guidelines and Technical Standards. Accreditation by the ACR is widely regarded as the gold standard in medical imaging.
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felicity's ldl cholesterol level is too high. to lower her cholesterol level, she took large doses of a certain vitamin supplement, but she experienced gastrointestinal ulcers and liver damage as a result. based on this information, which vitamin did she take?
According to this information, she took niacin as a vitamin.
Why is excessive consumption of water-soluble vitamins less likely to result in toxicity than excessive consumption of fat-soluble vitamins?While fat-soluble vitamins can be retained in tissues, water-soluble vitamins are easily eliminated from the body. Although water-soluble vitamins can also be poisonous, fat-soluble vitamins are more prone to do so.
Which of the following vitamins is most crucial for the production of red blood cells?Vitamin B12 is required by your body to produce red blood cells. In order to give your cells vitamin B12: You must consume vitamin B12-rich foods like dairy, meat, poultry, shellfish, eggs, fortified breakfast cereals, and shellfish.
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when educating a group of older adult clients, which teaching by the nurse is appropriate about preventing the development of cataracts?
When educating a group of older adult clients, the nurse should advise them to wear sunglasses while being outdoors in order to prevent the development of cataracts. Wearing sunglasses help in preventing or slowing down of cataract progression by protecting our eyes from ultraviolet (UV) rays, specially ultraviolet B rays.
What is cataract?The typically clear lens of the eye becomes clouded due to a cataract. Cataract patients find difficulty in reading, driving a car (especially at night), or noticing the expression on a friend's face due to clouded vision caused by cataracts.
The majority of cataracts occur when the tissue that makes up the eye's lens changes due to aging or trauma. The proteins and fibers of the lens start degrading thus leading to clouding or obscuring vision.
How to prevent cataract formation?1. Eye examinations should be conducted on a routine basis.
2. Smoking should be quitted.
3. A healthy diet including a lot of vegetables and fruits should be considered.
4. Wearing of sunglasses specialized in blocking ultraviolet B rays while being outdoors.
5. Avoiding alcohol consumption.
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a patient is receiving cisplatin. what creatinin clearance value indicates a dose adjustment is needed
The creatinin clearance value that indicates a dose adjustment is needed is option A: less than 50 ml/min.
In our hospital, the benchmark for evaluating renal function is creatinine clearance. Since creatinine clearance takes bodyweight into consideration, we believe it to be a more reliable predictor than blood creatinine levels. Reduced doses of cisplatin may be necessary if nephrotoxicity occurs during CCRT (Glomerular Filtration Rate [GFR] less than 50 mL/min). Thus, option A is the right choice.
Both serum creatinine levels and creatinine clearance are indicators of renal function. The ability of the kidneys to remove creatinine from the circulation for excretion in urine is measured by creatinine clearance. Creatinine levels in 24-hour urine samples and serum samples taken during the same time period are typically used to calculate creatinine clearance.
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Complete question is:
A patient is receiving cisplatin. what creatinin clearance value indicates a dose adjustment is needed
a. less than 50 ml/min
b. less than 80 ml/min
c. less than 30 ml/min
d. less than 10 ml/min
what type of immunoglobulin does the nurse recognize that promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine when a client is having an allergic reaction?
Type of immunoglobulin that the nurse recognizes, that promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine when a client is having an allergic reaction is : IgE.
What is the function of IgE?IgE promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals like histamine and bradykinin in allergic, hypersensitivity and inflammatory reactions.
Allergy blood test measures a substance called immunoglobulin E in your blood. IgE is an antibody that the body makes and if you have allergies then you may have more IgE in the blood than normal.
Blood usually has small amounts of IgE antibodies. Higher amounts of IgE is a sign that the body overreacts to allergens which can cause an allergic reaction.
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The nurse is assessing the moral development level of children being seen in the clinic according to Kohlberg's Conventional stage of moral development. Which child does the nurse determine have met this stage of development? Select all that apply- the 8 year old child who frequently asks the teacher if he is doing his math correctly
- The 10 year old child who visits his elderly neighbor 3x per week
- the 9 year old child who tell his friend they should not throw rocks because they will get in trouble
- the 7 year old child who yells at his mother "i dont understand why I cant go to the park"
- the 10 year old who state "I sure would not want to be my friend taking that bad report card home"
The nurse share with the parents:
-Describe how kids their age frequently lie to get out of getting punished.
-Suggest reading a story about the effects of lying to the child.
Who is nurse?
A nurse is someone who has received training in providing care to those who are ill or injured. Nurses collaborate with physicians and other healthcare professionals to treat patients and maintain their physical and mental health. Nurses also provide end-of-life care and support other family members during their grieving processes. Like medicine, nursing is a profession, but unlike medical school, nursing school has a different training schedule and curriculum. Before receiving their nursing licence in some states, nurses may train for up to three to five years.
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a patient who is reporting dizziness and nausea is found to have an inner ear infection. in addition to antibiotics, which drug will likely be recommended?
In addition to antibiotics, Meclizine (Bonamine) will likely be recommended
What is dizziness and nausea ?Frequently, dizziness and nausea coexist. They are typical signs of a number of ailments, such as stomach aches, infections, and migraines. Rarely, they may be signs of more serious illnesses, like a brain tumor.
Generally, you should visit your doctor if you experience any persistent, sudden, severe, or prolonged vertigo or dizziness. Seek immediate medical attention if any of the following occur along with sudden, severe vertigo or dizziness. Unexpectedly bad headache, a pain in the chest.
Meclizine is used to treat motion sickness symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Additionally, vertigo (dizziness or lightheadedness) brought on by ear issues is treated with it. An antihistamine is meclizine. It works by suppressing the brain signals that lead to nausea, vomiting, and light headedness.
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which instruction would the nurse provide to a client who has anxiety and depression and is prescribed venlafaxine er tablets? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A class of antidepressants known as serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, or SNRIs, includes venlafaxine. It is believed to function by raising the brain's concentrations of the mood-enhancing neurotransmitters serotonin and noradrenaline. It's used to treat anxiety, panic attacks, and occasionally depression.
When using this drug, do not take MAO inhibitors such as isocarboxazid, linezolid, metaxalone, methylene blue, moclobemide, phenelzine, procarbazine, rasagiline, safinamide, selegiline, or tranylcypromine.
An antidepressant drug that acts in the brain is called venlafaxine. Major depressive disorder (MDD), generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder are among the conditions it is licensed to treat (social phobia). A depressed mood - experiencing sadness, emptiness, or tears - is one of the signs of depression.
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the nurse notes that an older adult client sitting in the lounge is nodding off to sleep. in which stage of sleep is this client most likely entering?
The analysis of the client's sleep reports: A client may be asked to keep track of their sleep habits for a week or more in a sleep log or diary. The nurse will then evaluate and analyse this information to identify any sleep disruptions.
Which advice would the nurse give the patient to encourage sleep?Providing loose-fitting nightwear, promoting voiding before bed, encouraging hygiene practises, and ensuring bed linen is smooth, clean, and dry are a few interventions that can help people feel more at ease and relaxed.
Simple therapies that have shown potential for reducing adult insomnia include the use of eye masks and ear plugs. Walking and resistance exercise, together with social interaction, greatly improved nursing home residents' sleep.
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which nursing instruction is appropriate when teaching a patient with a trichomoniasis infection about prevention of genital tract infections?
People who have more partners are more prone to get the disease. The likelihood of infection may be higher in older women than in younger women. Perhaps the risk of infection is higher for black women. Low socioeconomic level and little educational attainment are potential additional infection risk factors.
Should trichomoniasis be treated?Even if you have no symptoms, you can still infect your partners if you don't get treated for trich. Trichomonasis also makes you more likely to get or transmit other STDs, such as HIV, which is the virus that causes AIDS.
It has traditionally been assumed that the illness is transmitted. However, a thorough literature search revealed that trichomonas can be spread in including via swimming pools and surfaces like towels and toilet seats.
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a patient was admitted for possible ruptured aortic aneurysm. ten minutes later, the nurse notes sinus tachycardia 138 beats/min, blood pressure is palpable at 65 mm hg, increasing waist circumference, and no urine output. how should the nurse interpret the findings?
The nurse evaluates the data. Abdominal bleeding is likely to occur.
Who should the nurse identify as having the greatest chance of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm?As mentioned (see Etiology), patients who are older than 65 and with peripheral atherosclerotic vascular disease are most at risk for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs). This results in a history of smoking, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and hypertension being frequently evoked.
What must you do if you think you have an aortic aneurysm?An abrupt and excruciating pain in the abdomen is the most typical symptom of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. Call 999 right away and request an ambulance if you believe you or someone else may have experienced an aneurysm rupture. Find out more about AAA symptoms.
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the nurse has attended a staff development conference about barriers to learning. which statement if made by the nurse requires follow up by the nurse preceptor? group of answer choices
The nurse requires follow up by the nurse preceptor "I never realized how many different types of learners there are."
What is preceptor?
An experienced practitioner known as a preceptor supervises clinical practise for staff and students learners and makes it easier for them to put theory into practise. For a predetermined amount of time, a preceptor works with learner to help them develop the new skills needed for safe, moral, and effective practise. They help the learner by establishing expectations, giving useful feedback on how they performed, and giving them the right opportunities to achieve their learning goals. Depending on the industry or institution, a preceptor may go by different names. Schools in the Faculty of Health Professions at Dalhousie University.
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Twin studies suggest that familial influence on major depressive disorders is due to _______________________.
According to twin studies, genetic factors (genes) inherited from parents, as well as some environmental influence, cause familial influence on major depressive disorders. So it caused by the combination of both.
What is depressive disorder?Depressive disorders are associated with mental conditions, and they can be influenced by both genetic and epigenetic factors. The children will have this disorder when their parents have it and it is passed on to them, but in epigenetic conditions, environmental factors influence this disorder. Because of stress, unavoidable judgments about one's appearance, and so on, the person is more likely to be affected by this. All these factors make someone feel depressed when they can't cope with the situation.
Hence, the familial influence on major depressive disorders is caused by genetic factors and by environmental factors too.
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symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically begin within what time period after the cessation or marked reduction of alcohol intake by the chronic alcohol drinker?
This is known as post-acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome, or PAWS. PAWS symptoms include emotional problems and chronic sleep problems.
Which clinical indicators support the diagnosis of Stage One mild alcohol withdrawal syndrome in a patient?Five to eight hours after the last drink, Stage 1 normally starts. Anxiety, agitation, moderate nausea, anorexia, sleeplessness, diaphoresis, slight tremors, fluctuating tachycardia and hypertension, and mild cognitive impairment are possible signs and symptoms.
How long does typical withdrawal last?After quitting drinking, withdrawal symptoms may start to appear in a day or two. Withdrawal symptoms may start only a few days after you stop drinking heavily and continuously.
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a client who is intubated on mechanical ventilation develops subcutaneous emphysema. which ventilator setting should the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client?
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is the setting of the ventilator the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client.
A ventilator is a piece of medical equipment that mechanically ventilates a patient who is physically unable to breathe or who is not breathing enough by transferring breathable air into and out of the lungs. However, patients can also be vented using a straightforward, manually operated bag valve mask. Ventilators are computerized, microprocessor-controlled devices. Ventilators are mostly utilized in anesthesia, home care, emergency medicine, and intensive care medicine (as independent devices) (as a component of an anesthesia machine).
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most health experts recommend only eating tuna a few times a week and only eating shark a few times a month. why would health experts have this view of eating these fish?
Most health experts recommend eating tuna a few times a week and eating shark few times a month because: eating these fish could result in the buildup of pollutants in fat tissue of humans.
Why health experts recommend tuna and shark to be consumed less?Large fish like sharks and tuna feed on smaller fish and can accumulate high levels of environmental pollutants like mercury and the risk also increases as off-shore pollution increases.
Shark meat is recommended only a few times a month because sharks are apex predators who accumulate high levels of toxic chemicals and heavy metals from both skin absorption and from consuming prey. This is called bioaccumulation.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. The nurse should assess the client for which complication commonly associated with the diagnosis?
Hemorrhage. The most common complication of peptic ulcers is hemorrhage, which manifests as hematemesis or melena in 10 to 20 percent of patients.
What causes melena and hematemesis?Hematemesis confirms Melena's strong suggestion that the bleeding is from the upper gastrointestinal tract. In this instance, look for previous symptoms to rule out common causes like peptic ulcer, cirrhosis with esophageal or gastric varices, gastritis, esophagitis, Mallory–Weiss tears, and cancer.
What causes melena most frequently?The most common cause of melena is peptic ulcer disease, which should be suspected in: active peptic ulcer disease that is known. Use of NSAIDs or steroids in the past.
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client who had surgery 3 days earlier is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection every 12 hours. in planning for the client's morning care, the priority nursing intervention is which action
When a patient is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection, the nurse should prioritize helping the patient shave using an electric razor.
Heparin recipients have the risk of bleeding. Shaving is done with an electric razor rather of a straight razor. It is neither suitable or required for nurses to let the client to do anything other than sit on the side of the bed and not allow them to clean their teeth. When the client is using subcutaneous injection by heparin, laboratory readings do not need to be checked every four hours. When the client is taking warfarin, the PT is watched.
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the nurse is assessing a 6-year-old child who witnessed the murder of the child's parents. the nurse suspects that the child has developed posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). which specific behavioral manifestation leads the nurse to interpret this?
The kid is extremely watchful and quickly startled. If the child has posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd).
How do you define post-traumatic stress disorder?Overview. Some persons who have experienced a stunning, terrifying, or deadly event may develop post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Fear is a common emotion both during and after a traumatic occurrence. Fear alters the body in various ways that take place in a split-second in order to protect against or escape harm.
An example of behavior manifestation.an indication of a psychiatric condition that is manifested by personality structure flaws and accompanying behavior, with little to no anxiety; Rarely, encephalitis or head trauma will provide a clinical picture that is more accurately indicative of a chronic brain illness.
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