Cortisol and androgens are released by the adrenal cortex in response to ACTH. A negative feedback mechanism is provided by the rise in cortisol to lessen the quantity of CRH secreted by the hypothalamus.
What occurs if ACTH is elevated?Having an elevated level of ACTH might mean: Insufficient cortisol production by the adrenal glands (Addison disease) inadequate hormone production by the adrenal glands (congenital adrenal hyperplasia)
The anterior pituitary gland produces a hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which largely influences the production of glucocorticoids and adrenal androgens by the adrenal gland and, to a much lesser extent, also promotes the release of aldosterone.
Your adrenal glands, especially your adrenal cortex, are then stimulated by ACTH to produce cortisol and androgens. Your hypothalamus responds to the resultant rise in cortisol by lowering CRH levels, closing the feedback loop.
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true or false. most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin.
Most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin is true statement.
Vertebrates have skin, which is a soft outer tissue. It is the biggest organ in humans, with a total surface area of around 20 square feet. It uses a multi-layered system of cushioning, a cellular barrier, and protective oils to shield our internal organs from the environment.
Skin serves as more than simply a barrier between our internal organs and the outside world; it also actively contributes to preserving our health by regulating body temperature, such as through sweating and flushing in hot weather and causing goosebumps in cold weather. It may also generate Vitamin D from sunshine, which is crucial for the well-being of our bones.
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What are the 4 types of biological contamination?.
Biological contamination is defined as the contamination of food caused by microorganisms.
The microorganisms which cause contamination are called contaminants. The different types of contaminants are bacteria, fungi, parasite and virus. These are transferred to food through various sources such as people, raw food, pest and refuse.
Bacteria are single celled organisms which have a rigid cell wall. They cause spoilage and consuming food affected by them causes illness. Bacteria produces spores that help them survive in high temperature areas. They are difficult to multiply.
Viruses are microscopic pathogens which are smaller than bacteria which can multiply in living cells. They cannot reproduce on their own and hence require a host for the same. Parasites are organisms which live and feed on a host. In most cases it is a one way relationship where at the end the host dies.
Fungi are biological contaminants which are found naturally. They can be small single celled organisms or multicellular organisms. Examples are mould and yeast.
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Which type of virus can use all host polymerases for transcription and replication?.
Answer:
DNA Viruses
Explanation:
drag the labels to complete each of the sentences that discuss the relationship between mhc molecules and endogenous and exogenous antigens.
MHC class II molecules present both extracellular (exogenous) and internally synthesized (endogenous) antigens to the CD4 T cells subset of lymphocytes.
What is the relationship between an MHC Class 1 protein and a cytotoxic T cell?The relationship between the MHC class one protein and the cytotoxic T cell, is that the cytotoxic T cell interacts with a virally infected cell via its T cell receptor and the MHC class one protein on the virally infected cell. The CD4 T cells subset of lymphocytes receives both external (exogenous) and internally produced (endogenous) antigens from MHC class II molecules.
What type of MHC is endogenous?When discussing cross-presentation, the endogenous pathway of antigen processing often plays a role in MHC I antigen presentation, whereas the exogenous pathway plays a role in MHC II antigen presentation .MHC I antigen presentation typically (considering cross-presentation) involves the endogenous pathway of antigen processing, and MHC II antigen presentation involves the exogenous pathway of antigen processing.
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during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . acetyl coa ... intermembrane space nadh and fadh2 ... mitochondrial matrix nadh ... mitochondrial matrix nadh and fadh2 ... intermembrane space nadh ... intermembrane space
During electron transport, energy from NADH is used to pump hydrogen ions into the FADH2.
So the correct option is (e)
The energy produced by NADH and FADH2-provided electrons is transported along the electron transport chain and used to force hydrogen ions over the intermembranous gap.
These systems, which are reminiscent of the electron transport systems employed during photosynthesis, allow for the passage of high-energy electrons produced by NADH and FADH2. On the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are the electron transport chains. Some of the high-energy electrons' energy is caught as they go down the chains. Hydrogen ions (from NADH and FADH2) are propelled beyond the inner membrane and into the intermembranous space using this energy. A higher concentration of hydrogen ions forms when hydrogen ions are forced over the inner membrane.
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estimating the age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. when did the tree die from which the charcoal came? use 5600 years as the half-life of carbon 14.
The age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. 1 × 10⁻⁴ years ago tree die from which the charcoal came.
Percentage of charcoal = 30%
Half-life of carbon 14 = 5600 years
Calculate the rate of decay of the tree by using the following formula
K = 0.693 ÷ T 1/2
T 1/2 is the half-life of carbon-14
K = 0.693 / 5600
K = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ y⁻¹
Now calculate the age of the tree by using the following equation.
A(T) = A0e^-kt
A(T) = 0.3 A0
Where
0.3 A0 = A0e^-( 1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)
0.3 = e^-(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)
ln 0.3 = -(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)
T = ln 0.3 / (-1.2 × 10⁻⁴)
T = 1 × 10⁻⁴ Y
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there are six different codons that all specify the amino acid leucine. what is the term that refers to this phenomenon?
Answer: Degeneracy of Codons
Explanation:
It means that there is more than one codon that specifies the single amino acid. The phenomenon in which several of the amino acids, each coded by more than one codon is called codon degeneracy.
What 4 factors can affect gene expression?.
The 4 elements that can affect gene expression: food plan, temperature, oxygen ranges, humidity, mild cycles, and the presence of mutagens can all impact which of an animal's genes are expressed, which ultimately impacts the animal's phenotype.
Gene goes with the flow is anticipated to be a decrease in species that have low dispersal or mobility, that arise in fragmented habitats, in which there are long distances among populations, and while there are small population sizes. control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells happens at epigenetic, transcriptional, publish-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational degrees.
Epigenetic processes, consisting of DNA methylation, histone change, and numerous RNA-mediated techniques, are ideal to persuade gene expression mainly at the level of transcription; however, different steps within the procedure (for instance, translation) may also be regulated epigenetically.
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after a plasmid has been digested into linear fragments in a restriction endonuclease assay, dna fragments may be resolved using migration through an agarose gel matrix. the largest linear fragments will travel the
DNA fragments may be resolved using migration through a gel matrix called agarose. The largest linear fragments will travel the slowest while the smallest ones will travel the fastest.
A technique to separate DNA fragments (including other macromolecules like proteins and RNA) based on their charge and size is called gel electrophoresis. The molecules, based on their size and charge, will travel through the gel in different directions or at different speeds, which allows them to be separated from one another. Larger/longer pieces of DNA will travel through the pores of the gel matrix slower than the shortest/smallest ones.
Gel electrophoresis involves a gel, as the name suggests. For DNA separation, the gel is made out of a polysaccharide called agarose.
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hich of the following statements is predicted if a population of fruit flies were fed a chemical that blocked the function of the SXL protein? A) The mRNA produced from the doublesex (dsx) gene would not be spliced. B) The transformer (tra) gene would be maximally expressed. C) The progeny in the next generation would be approximately 50% male and 50% female. D) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly female. E) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.
The correct statement is the progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.
Male dominators frequently take the reins in both loves and in daily life. They frequently are the self-starters who succeed in business. Their aura of inherent confidence exudes a sense of urgency. You've certainly heard about how women are drawn to "bad boys." This would be comparable.
Males were often bigger than females throughout most animals, especially humans, and were therefore sometimes regarded as being more domineering.
containing more men than women, especially in influential positions; being dominated as well as controlled by men.
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In mammals, mature red blood cells do not have mitochondria. How would red blood cells produce atp?.
Red blood cells use anaerobic respiration to make ATP .
What do you mean by Red blood cells and how did this occur ?
Red blood cells are the most common type of blood cell which are used to deliver oxygen to the body tissues—via blood flow through the circulatory systemRBC or red blood cell do not contain mitochondria.They produce energy by utilizing glucose molecules for glycolysis through anaerobic respiration to produce energy in form of Adenosine triphosphate or ATP.It then undergoes hydrolysis to generate free energy for the functioning of red blood cells.Hence, in the given question RBCs undergoes anaerobic respiration.
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starch and glycogen are both polymers of which of the following? sucrose l-fructose glucose-6-phosphate d-galactose d-glucose
Both glycogen and starch are polymers of: A) fructose. B) glucosamine 1-phosphate sucrose, a. D) D-glucose E) glucose.
What are the polymers of both starch and glycogen?In plants, starch serves as a kind of energy storage. It includes the glucose-based polymers amylose (linear) and amylopectin (branched). In animals, glycogen serves as a kind of energy storage. It is a polymer with branches made of glucose units.
Are both glucose polymers found in glycogen and starch?Glycogen is a polymer of glucose monomers, much like starch, and it has even more branched molecules than amylopectin. Typically, liver and muscle cells store glycogen.
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Is flea treatment every 4 weeks?.
Effective flea manipulation will suggest the use of a specific flea treatment (adulticide) every 4 weeks for as a minimum the three months, ideally on your puppy's lifestyle.
Fleas can nonetheless jump onto your pup in the iciness, and your warm domestic might be the proper surroundings for triggering flea eggs to hatch. So, in case you're asking your self “how often ought I deliver my puppy flea remedy?”, the solution is each 4 weeks for surest protection – 12 months round, leaving no gaps.
Commonplace symptoms of toxicity from flea merchandise containing organophosphates are diarrhea, vomiting, problem breathing, small scholars, muscle tremor, weakness or falling over, and drooling. Organophosphate toxicity may be swiftly deadly, relying on the components and dose the puppy is uncovered to.
The fastest options for killing fleas with prescription medicinal drugs are Comfortis or Trifexis, which also work as powerful preventative medicinal drugs. “both merchandises incorporates the active element spinosad, so as to start killing fleas within 30 minutes of consuming the pill.
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which process(es) increase genetic variation? group of answer choices genetic drift founder effects mutation natural selection
Meiosis boosts genetic variation. Because of recombination and independent assortment occurring during meiosis, each gamete has a distinct DNA set.
What are the three types of genetic variation?The genetic variety is the result of three distinct processes: mutation, recombination, and gene immigration. Mutation drives genetic diversity and evolution.
Why does genetic variety occur?Genetic variations can result from gene variants, often known as mutations, or they might result from a normal process in which genetic material is reorganized when a cell gets ready to reproduce. Genetic differences that alter gene activity or protein function can impart different features on an organism.
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A state of joyful activity in which the subject performs an action effortlessly and skillfully is known as a(n) __________. a. ability b. flow state c. peak experience d. meditative state
A state of joyful activity in which the subject performs an action effortlessly and skillfully is known as a flow state.
Flow state, popularized by positive psychologists Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi and Jeanne Nakamura, defines a state in which you get completely involved in whatever you are doing given the correct conditions.
When you commit your full attention to an activity or work that you are immensely passionate about, utterly focused on, and completely involved in, you may find yourself establishing the circumstances for experiencing a flow state of mind.
The mind's regular chatter begins to fade, placing us in a state of non-distraction. Under normal conditions, the sensations that might overwhelm you (inhibition, hunger, exhaustion, or aches and pains) go away, and all that counts is your devotion to your craft.
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in 1988, richard lenski subjected 12 genetically identical populations of e. coli to the same conditions: a period of growth followed by starvation. after several years, all strains had adapted to the conditions in similar ways. however, their genetic sequences were very different. which of the following conclusions from this experiment is correct?
Convergent evolution, evolution by natural selection, similar selective pressure can have different effects, all these conclusion is correct from Richard Lenski's experiments.
The 12 genetically identical populations of E. Coli underwent convergent evolution resulting from similar environmental conditions.
From a variety of underlying genotypes, similar phenotypes may result.
Evolution by natural selection can be observed directly in organisms with short generation times.
On genetically identical organisms, similar selective pressures can have different effects at the level of the genome.
All of the above are correct conclusions which are drawn from Richard Lenski's experiments.
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What are 5 ways to prevent the spread of germs?.
5 ways to prevent the spread of germs.
Nose, mouth, or eyes to arms to others:
hands to meals: ...
food to palms to food: ...
infected baby to palms to different children:
Animals to humans
Handwashing. preserving our arms clean is one of the maximum crucial steps we are able to take to keep away from getting ill and spreading germs to others. it's pleasant to scrub your hands with soap and easy jogging water for 20 seconds.
Infectious illnesses are caused by microscopic germs (which include bacteria or viruses) that get into the body and purpose trouble. some — but not all — infectious diseases spread at once from one individual to any other. Infectious diseases that unfold from character to man or woman are said to be contagious.
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the infectious dose of neisseria gonorrhoeae, the causative agent of the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea, is 1,000. this means
Because Vibrio bacteria need to be present in much higher numbers to cause sickness, interaction with far fewer Neisseria bacteria will do so.
Vibrio bacteria can be swallowed and result in watery diarrhea, which is frequently accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and chills. These signs often appear within 24 hours after intake and remain for around 3 days. Rare cases of severe disease often affect immune-compromised individuals.
Meningococcal disease is brought on by Neisseria meningitides bacteria. Without being unwell, one in ten people carry these germs in the back of their nose and throat. Being a carrier is what we refer to as. Meningococcal disease is the term for a number of ailments that are occasionally brought on by the bacterium invading the body.
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What are the 5 bases of RNA?.
There are 5 bases present in DNA and RNA combined. However, each have 4 bases of which 3 are common and one varies.
RNA, Ribonucleic Acid consists of 4 nucleobases which are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Uracil. The are represented as A, G, C and U respectively. They form the backbone of RNA. they are made up of alternating phosphate groups and ribose sugar.
DNA, Deoxyribonucleic Acid consists of 4 nucleobases which are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine. The are represented as A, G, C and T respectively. These nucleotides are the fundamental bases of the genetic code of organisms. They form the backbone of DNA.
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exam if your right visual cortex stopped functioning, what parts of your visual field would be messing
Visual field cuts, trouble seeing objects or colors, trouble reading or writing, blindness, an inability to distinguish written words, an inability to detect moving things, and poor processing of visual information are all symptoms of occipital lobe damage.
Damage to the primary visual cortex, also known as V1, in the area of vision, but not to any other cortical region, eliminates visual awareness and causes persistent blindness. issue, known as anosognosia, which is when you are unaware that you are unaware of something. Even though they may be blindness, many patients believe that they can see.
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amino acids found in the amino acid pool . amino acids found in the amino acid pool . must come from animal products help to synthesize essential amino acids require protein supplements to maintain their resources can be used for protein synthesis
The amino acid pool contains amino acids that can be used to create proteins.
Does our body keep an amino acid reserve for the production of proteins?The body retains a significant amount of free amino acids in the blood (approximately 35-65 mg/deciliter) even when one is fasting; this ensures that cells and tissues always have access to individual amino acids for the synthesis of proteins and essential amino acid derivatives.
The cellular pool of amino acids is derived from both dietary protein and the breakdown of cellular proteins. Since amino acids are used to produce new proteins, energy, and other biological molecules, this pool needs to be refilled with them.
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which accurately describes development?changing while growinggrowing larger over timedecreasing the number of cellsincreasing the sizes of cells
A). Changing while growing in development is the exact correct discription.
Change pushes you to grow to be a greater advanced person. You discover ways to adapt to new circumstances, think about particular processes and paintings to simply accept yourself. These adventures come collectively to sell non-public growth. Change happens. And whilst we will not manage a lot of the sector converting round us, we will manage how we respond.
We can select to expect and include modifications, or withstand them. Resisting alternate is like looking to push water upstream. Generally we’re short to factor to others who withstand alternate. It’s a lot tougher to understand or admit to our personal alternate resistance. Some human beings name alternate “progress” and rejoice the enhancements that it brings. Others curse the ones equal modifications and want for the coolest antique days. Same modifications, specific responses.
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Correct Question:
Which accurately describes development?
A) Changing while growing.
B) Growing larger over time.
C) Decreasing the number of cells.
D) Increasing the sizes of cells.
How can you tell if a passage is chronological?.
Chronological order is the order in which the events happened, from first to final.
Chronology is a text shape that describes activities in the order they occur. words consisting of first, subsequent, for the duration of, and sooner or later sign this article structure, as do dates that inform whilst the occasions took place.
This text shape gives readers a chronological of events or a list of steps in a method. example an e-book approximately the Yankee revolution would possibly list the events leading to the warfare.
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which enzyme is involved in branch migration during recombination? group of answer choices ruva recb/c/d ruvc ssb reca
These enzymes, known as RuvAB, catalyse branch migration, which pairs two homologous DNA strands. Due to the DNA helicase activity of RuvAB, a crossover branch will migrate in a way that will prolong the DNA heteroduplex.
In multicellular animals, DNA recombinases are frequently utilized to modify genome structure and regulate gene expression. These bacterial- and fungal-derived enzymes (bacteriophages) catalyse DNA exchange events between short (30–40 nucleotide) target site sequences that are unique to each recombinase. Excision/insertion, inversion, translocation, and cassette exchange are four fundamental functional modules that are made possible by these events and have been utilized singly or in combination to control the expression of many different genes.
Hence, recombinase is enzyme brings up recombination of DNA.
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The stages of mitosis were originally defined by cellular features observable through a light microscope. The six micrographs below show animal cells (lung cells from a newt) during the five stages of mitosis, plus cytokinesis. (Note that interphase is not represented in these micrographs.) In these images the chromosomes have been stained blue, microtubules green, and microfilaments red. Drag each micrograph to the target that indicates the stage of mitosis or cytokinesis it shows. ► View Available Hint(s) Reset Help prophase prometaphase metaphase anaphase telophase cytokinesis Micrographs by Conly L. Rieder, Division of Molecular Medicine, Wadsworth Center, Albany, New York 12201-0509
Prophase is the initial phase of mitosis, during which the nuclear chromatin begins to arrange and condense into thick strands that eventually become chromosomes visible under an optical microscope.
How can the different stages of mitosis be seen?These are the phases of mitosis:
In prophase, the chromosomes get shorter and thicker.
In the middle of the cell, during the metaphase, the chromosomes align.
Chromatids separate during the anaphase process and travel to the opposing poles. Telophase: Two nuclei are produced when nuclear envelopes have reformed around each chromosomal group.
Can you actually see mitosis?The division of a cell nucleus' chromosomes into two identical sets of chromosomes occurs during the cell cycle process known as mitosis. It is a division of cells by equations.
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what was a necessary experimental step used by meselson and stahl that allowed them to conclusively determine that dna replication occurred in a semiconservative manner?
Meselson and Stahl concluded from these experiments that DNA replication was semi-conservative: the DNA strands split off and each replicated themselves, resulting in each daughter molecule having one "old" and one "new" strand.
Density would be a defining characteristic between the old and new DNA. Meselson and Stahl created an approach called equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to gauge a density difference in the DNA. With this procedure, a cesium chloride solution is added to a tube where the DNA is centrifuged.
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You’re investigating inheritance of two traits – size (the g gene) and design (the f gene) – of the leaves of the coleus plant. In this story, giant size and striped design are the dominant phenotypes. You’ve completed a mating experiment where you crossed a dihybrid with an individual who is homozygous recessive for both traits; offspring data are listed here.
phenotype
# of offspring
giant, striped
32
giant, solid
112
small, striped
115
small, solid
29
a) List all of possible the genotypes of the offspring from this cross.
b) Are these genes linked? How did you know?
c) Sweet. So, if you can determine it, which phenotypes are parental and which are recombinant?
A) The possible genotypes of the offspring from this cross are:Giant, striped: GGFF, GgFF, GgFf , Giant, solid: GGFf, GgFf , Small, striped: ggFF, ggFf and Small, solid: ggFf.
B) Yes these genes are linked.
C) The parental phenotypes are giant and striped, and small and solid. The recombinant phenotypes are giant and solid, and small and striped.
These genes appear to be linked because the data shows that they are inherited together more often than would be expected if they were unlinked. This can be seen in the fact that there are no offspring with the genotype GgFf for giant and solid, which would be expected if the genes were unlinked.
This can be determined by looking at the proportions of the different genotypes in the offspring. For example, the giant and striped phenotypes have three possible genotypes (GGFF, GgFF, GgFf), while the small and solid phenotypes have only one possible genotype (ggFf). Therefore, the giant and striped phenotypes are more likely to be parental and the small and solid phenotypes are more likely to be recombinant.
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All of possible the genotypes of the offspring from this cross are Gf/gF (Dihybrid) x gf/gf ----Testcross gf/GF
Gf/gF (Dihybrid) x gf/gf ----TestcrossgfGFGF / gf ---Giant, stripedGfGf/ gf---giant, solidgFgF/ gf---small, stipedgfgf/ gf---small, solidDihybrid X homozygous recessive ---TestcrossExpected testcross progeny of dihybrid go might be 1:1:1:1 ratio consistent with Mendel experiments. But the given numbers of the progeny aren't just like 1:1:1:1 ratio. So, the genes aren't in diverse independently and they're linked.Giant, striped = RecombinantGiant, solid = ParentalSmall, striped = ParentalSmall, solid = RecombinantRead more about genotypes:
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the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense than those in humans are located more superiorly than those in humans are relatively larger than those in humans
The olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense are relatively larger than those in humans.
The ability to smell is one key way that sheep and human brains vary from one another. The olfactory bulb in a sheep's brain is two to three times bigger than a human's. It gives sheep a keen sense of smell, which is essential for survival.In comparison to the human brain, a sheep's brain has a larger olfactory bulb. The sheep's ability to smell better thanks to its bigger olfactory bulb is essential to its survival.Despite the sheep brain being significantly smaller overall, the olfactory bulb in sheep is two to three times the size of the human olfactory bulb. This illustrates how significant the sense of smell is to sheep.
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today, a sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base. what must be modified in order for this to work?
Due to A unique dye that must be used on each dideoxynucleotide, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base.
Genome sequencing is done using the Sanger method. It's also referred to as the chain termination approach. In 1977, Frederick Sanger and his associates created this procedure.
The nucleotide base in a section of DNA can be identified using this technique. Typically, the DNA segment employed is fewer than 1,000 base pairs long (bp).
The "gold standard" for validating DNA sequences is Sanger sequencing, which must be carried out with a base accuracy of 99.99%. The Human Genome Project employed Sanger sequencing as its primary sequencing technique. It uses a unique dye that must be used on each dideoxynucleotide, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base.
The complete question is:
Today, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base. What must be modified in order for this to work?
a) A different polymerase must be used.
b) A unique dye must be used on each dideoxynucleotide.
c) A primer is used that is more specific to the template DNA.
d) The final product is filtered to separate the dideoxynucleotide terminators after the reaction occurs.
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according to research, when compared with children in heterosexual families, children of lesbian or gay parents
Lesbian, gay, and bisexual parents are equally likely to have children as heterosexual parents, contrary to scientific evidence to the contrary.
When someone experienced their parents' divorce as children, they were more prone to?According to research, children whose parents divorced during the previous 20 years were more likely to commit crimes, rebel by engaging in harmful conduct that threatens their health, or admit to starting to smoke or use prescription medication.
Which of the following is a benefit to parents who start their families young (in their 20s)?There will be more physical vitality in parents. The mother is more likely to experience less health issues. Parents are less inclined to give their kids strict expectations.
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