By Pythagoras' theorem, the other two sides are 5 inches and 12 inches long.
What is Pythagoras' theorem?The Pythagorean Theorem demonstrates how the side lengths of a right triangle can be calculated from the sum of the areas of three intersecting squares.
This theorem is a very helpful tool that serves as the foundation for more intricate trigonometry ideas like the Pythagorean theorem's opposite. According to this statement, the areas of the squares on the other two sides add up to the size of the square whose side is the hypotenuse.
When the hypotenuse length is 13 inches in a right-angled triangle, then the length of the two other sides will be 5 inches and 12 inches.
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a nurse is caring for a client with a pneumothorax who has a chest tube attached to a closed chest drainage system. if the chest tube and closed chest drainage system are effective, which type of pressure will be reestablished
A pleural space under negative pressure.
The potential between the two visceral and parietal (visceral-parietal) of the lungs is known as the pleural cavity. The peritoneum is a thin membrane that forms a two-layered cell membrane by folding back on itself.
The visceral pleura, the inner layer, coils around the lung and is affixed to them so firmly that it can't be removed. The inside of the chest wall is lined with the outermost surface (parietal pleura). The pleural gap refers to the incredibly thin void between the layers. The pleural space contains a fluid known as pleural fluid.
The pleural space in a healthy person has a small volume (10–20 mL) and a low total protein (just under 1.5 g/dL). The anterior pleural level filters pleural fluid.
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ms. simmons was asked to follow simple commands while she was a patient in the emergency room as part of the glasgow coma scale (gcs). this instrument is a type of assessment known as
The instrument that is supporting the execution of the Glasgow coma scale (gcs) is known as the neuropsychological assessment.
Ms, Simmons is asked to follow the commands as a patient in the emergency room as a part of the GCS. Here, the instrument used to asses the execution functioning of the assessment is knows as the neuropsychological assessment.
A neuropsychological assessment is a test that determines how well a person's brain functions. Reading, language usage, attention, learning, processing speed, reasoning, memory, problem-solving, mood and personality are among the talents examined.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to describe the level of consciousness in all sorts of acute medical and trauma patients objectively. The scale rates patients on three dimensions of responsiveness: eye-opening, movement, and vocal responses.
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a client with cancer of the pancreas has a pancreaticoduodenectomy (whipple procedure). the nurse expects that the client will have which type of tube after surgery? chest
The nurse would expect the client to have a nurse after the pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). This chest tube is used to help drain fluid from the chest cavity and to help prevent air from building up.
After the pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure), the nurse would expect the client to have a chest tube. This tube is placed in the chest cavity near the incision and is used to drain any fluid that may have accumulated in the chest, such as blood or lymphatic fluid. The chest tube also helps to prevent the buildup of air in the chest cavity, which can cause a tension pneumothorax. The chest tube remains in place until the fluid output has decreased to a safe level and the doctor is confident that the client is recovering adequately.
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the nurse is reviewing drugs on the emergency cart with regard to their therapeutic action. which medications can help initiate heart contraction during a cardiac arrest?
The medication that can help initiate heart contraction during a cardiac arrest is Intravenous epinephrine.
When a beta1 agonist is required, intravenous epinephrine is the treatment of choice. This is due to the stimulation of cardiac contraction caused by beta1 receptor activation.
During a cardiac arrest, epinephrine, which is maintained on the emergency cart, can be injected right into the heart. The effects of alpha1 agonists include hemostasis, relief from nasal congestion, vasoconstriction, and dilated pupils.
When used to treat severe pain, alpha-2 agonists lessen the sympathetic output to the heart and blood vessels. Beta2-agonists bring on Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation. Nasal congestion is treated with topical phenylephrine; preterm labor and asthma are treated with terbutaline; and asthma is treated with albuterol.
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a client who has an altered level of consciousness is receiving a tube feeding. clients receiving tube feeding should be placed in which position?
The client receiving the feeding tube must be placed in an upright position so that the head is higher than the stomach.
What is a feeding tube?A nasogastric tube or feeding tube is a soft plastic tube that is placed through the nose (nasal) to the stomach (gaster). In order not to move positions, the tube will be affixed to the skin near the nose with adhesive tape.
Inserting a nasogastric tube aims to help provide food and medicine to patients who cannot take these substances by mouth, for example in premature babies or comatose patients. In addition, a nasogastric tube can also be used to remove gas or liquid from the stomach.
When using a feeding tube, the body position must be upright so that the head is more upright than the stomach.
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the nurse is caring for a prenatal patient diagnosed with a placenta previa. what is the best position for this patient?
In the case, when the nurse is caring for a prenatal patient diagnosed with a placenta previa, the best position for the patient is on her side to prevent supine hypotension.
A pregnancy issue known as placenta previa occurs when the placenta blocks the cervix's opening entirely or partially. It can result in excessive bleeding during pregnancy and delivery, which is risky for both the mother and the child. Abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester are signs of placenta previa. Multiple pregnancies, prior uterine surgery, smoking, and advanced maternal age are all risk factors for placenta previa. Resting in bed, having a caesarean section, or having the pregnancy closely monitored are all possible treatments for placenta previa. In extreme circumstances, an early delivery might be required to stop bleeding and guarantee the well-being of both the mother and the foetus.
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the nurse auscultates lung sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together. the nurse would be correct in documenting this finding as
If a nurse hears a harsh and cracking sound from a client's lung during a routine assessment, the nurse should document the finding as pleural friction rub.
Pleural friction rub is an audible medical sign from the lungs. The sound is caused by the movement of inflamed and roughened surface linings of the lungs against one another. It can be described as harsh, grating, or cracking; kinda similar to the sound that you make when walking on fresh snow.
Pleural friction rub often occurs when a victim is suffering from lung-related diseases, such as pneumonia, pleurisy, or pulmonary embolism. It causes pain when the victim is breathing in and out.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version should be as follows:
The nurse auscultates the lung sounds of a client during a routine assessment. The sounds produced are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together. The nurse would be correct in documenting this finding as...
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a morbidly obese man called 9-1-1 because of difficulty breathing. when you arrive, you find the 39-year-old patient lying supine in his bed. he is in marked respiratory distress and is only able to speak in two-word sentences. he has a history of hypertension, but denies any respiratory conditions. what should you do first?
Firstly we should put him on his side or raise him up as he has difficulty in breathing.
What are the symptoms of hypertension?The majority of people with hypertension are unaware they have a problem because there are no symptoms or warning signs. Because of this, it is critical to check your blood pressure on a regular basis.
Early morning headaches, nosebleeds, irregular heart rhythms, vision problems, and ear buzzing are just a few of the symptoms. Severe hypertension is characterised by fatigue, nausea, vomiting, perplexity, anxiety, chest pain, and muscular trembling.
Hypertension can only be diagnosed by having a medical expert take your blood pressure. Taking your blood pressure is a simple and painless procedure. Individuals can monitor their own blood pressure using automated devices, but a professional examination is required to determine risk and treatment options.
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the nursing instructor is preparing a class discussing the role of the nurse during the labor and birthing process. which intervention should the instructor point out has the greatest effect on relieving anxiety for the client?
(B) Provide care under the supervision of an RN.
When you start to experience regular contractions, labor, and delivery enter their initial phase. Over time, these contractions became stronger, more regular, and more frequent. To allow a baby to enter the birth canal, they stimulate the cervix will open (dilate), soften, and shorten (efface).
In a vaginal delivery, there are four phases of labor: the first stage sees the cervix shorten and open; the second stage sees the baby descend and be born; the third stage sees the placenta delivered.
And the fourth stage is the recovery stage, which lasts for two hours following the delivery. The gradual opening of your cervix marks the beginning of labor. The arrival of your child is the second stage.
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Complete question:
The nursing instructor is teaching a group of nursing students about the various responsibilities of the labor and delivery medical team. Does the instructor determine the session is successful when the students correctly choose which function is the primary role of the LPN/LVN members of the team?
(A) Observatory to assist the RN
(B) Provide care under the supervision of an RN
(C) Assist the providers in the delivery room
(D) Provide direct independent care to the client
a nurse is caring for a client on the unit who is attempting to manipulate the staff. which description of the client made by a nurse demonstrates strength-based communication?
A nurse demonstrating strength-based communication would describe the client as, "An individual who is resourceful and resilient in their efforts to advocate for their needs."
What is strength-based communication?Strength-based communication is a type of communication that focuses on highlighting the strengths, skills, and assets of individuals and groups. It is based on the idea that everyone has unique talents and abilities that can be used to overcome challenges and achieve success. Strength-based communication encourages individuals to recognize and build on their own strengths, as well as those of others, to create a positive and supportive environment.
This approach differs from traditional forms of communication that focus on fixing weaknesses or problems. Strength-based communication seeks to empower individuals by encouraging them to take an active role in their own development and to use their strengths to overcome challenges and achieve their goals. It also fosters positive relationships and creates a sense of community, as individuals work together to build on each other’s strengths. Strength-based communication is effective in a variety of settings, including education, health care, and the workplace.
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which critical thinking skill was used when the nurse responded to a intravenous pump that was larming
Problem-solving was the critical thinking skill used when the nurse responded to an intravenous (IV) pump that was alarming, checked for air in the tubing, and then flushed the patient's intermittent lock, which resulted in the IV bag to infuse as prescribed.
Problem-solving and critical thinking refer to the ability to effectively solve problems using knowledge, facts, and data. This doesn't mean you have to find answers quickly, but you should be able to think quickly, assess problems, and find solutions.
Problem solving entails critical thinking. Once you have identified the problem, you can think critically and take steps to solve the problem. To be successful in your life, it is very important to know how to solve problems to help others and yourself wherever you are.
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Complete question:
Which critical thinking skill was used when the nurse responded to an intravenous (IV) pump that was alarming, checked for air in the tubing, and then flushed the patient's intermittent lock, which resulted in the IV bag to infuse as prescribed?
a client complains of general malaise and fatigue and has a mild fever. the nurse would evaluate this stage of disease as the:
a client complains of general malaise and fatigue and has a mild fever. the nurse would evaluate this stage of disease as the Prodromal stage
The time following incubation but prior to the onset of an infection's signature symptoms is referred to as the prodromal stage.
During the prodromal stage, people can still spread infections.
The immune system reacts to the infectious agent during this stage, which also results in mild, non-specific symptoms. Some of these signs include:
low-grade fever exhaustion
Depending on the virus kind, the prodromal stage's duration varies.
For instance, the incubation period for the flu is only 2 days Trusted Source. The prodromal stage could therefore coincide with the incubation stage and the development of sickness.
The virus may spread to others up to a week after falling unwell, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Trusted Source.
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When following recipes, Candice wants to use fats that are not solid fats. Which of the following fats should she use?a. Safflower oilb. Shorteningc. Lardd. Unsalted butter
When following recipes, Candice wants to use fats that are not solid fats. The fats should she use is safflower oil.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Safflower seed oil is used to reduce stroke and atherosclerosis, two conditions that are associated with heart disease. Additionally, it is used to treat traumatic injuries, fever, tumors, coughing, breathing issues, clotting issues, and pain.
Safflower oil generally has no side effects when used in the recommended daily doses by most people. Safflower can thin the blood, which could decrease the blood's clotting process and raise the risk of bleeding in those with bleeding disorders. those undergoing surgery.
Unsaturated fats, a type of fat that is good for the heart and has been associated with decreased cholesterol levels, are abundant in safflower oil. They contain particularly high levels of monounsaturated fats, which have been demonstrated to lower total and harmful LDL cholesterol levels, two important risk factors for heart disease.
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the nurse is preparing to administer a diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis vaccine to a 3-year-old child. which version of the formulation of the vaccine should be administered?
The version of the vaccine that should be administered to the 3-year-old child is the DTaP vaccine.
The DTaP vaccine is specifically formulated for children aged 3 and over and is the recommended vaccine to protect against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
This vaccine is specifically formulated for young children, offering protection against these potentially fatal diseases. It is recommended to be administered at multiple points during childhood, specifically at 2, 4, and 6 months of age, then again at 15-18 months and 4-6 years of age. It is important to ensure that the 3-year-old child has received all the necessary doses of the DTaP vaccine in order to be adequately protected against these diseases.
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margo is reading an online story about the potential health benefits of multivitamins. what key question should she ask in order to determine whether it is from a reliable source?
Margo is reading about multivitamin health benefits online. She should questioning "Who wrote the story?" to determine its credibility. Thus, option B holds the truth.
The question "Who wrote the story?" is important in determining the reliability of an online article, particularly in the context of health information. The author's credentials, expertise, and affiliations can provide insight into their qualifications and potential biases. For instance, if the author is a well-respected researcher in the field of nutrition, or if they work for a reputable organization, this suggests that the information they provide is likely to be reliable.
On the other hand, if the author is affiliated with a supplement company or has a vested interest in promoting multivitamins, this may indicate a potential bias, and their information should be evaluated with caution. It's important to critically evaluate the source of information and consider multiple perspectives before making decisions about health.
The following options should be provided along with the question:
A. How many people contributed to the story?B. Who wrote the story?C. Where was the story published?D. Does the story appear on the first page of Go.ogle's search results?Learn more about multivitamin here: brainly.com/question/17872984
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why is it important for healthcare systems and provides to measure sdoh? what could be potential consequences? g
Measuring Social Determinants of Health (SDOH) is important because it helps healthcare systems and providers better understand the social and economic factors that impact a patient's health and well-being.
SDOH, such as poverty, lack of education, food insecurity, and limited access to healthcare, can greatly affect a patient's health outcomes. If not taken into consideration, this can lead to disparities in health outcomes and decreased quality of care. In addition, failure to address SDOH can result in increased healthcare costs due to repeated hospitalizations and more complicated health issues. Addressing SDOH requires collaboration between healthcare providers, public health organizations, and social service agencies to provide comprehensive and effective care to patients.
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the nurse comes into an infant's room on the pediatric floor. the nurse wants to try to feed the infant for the first time since her surgery. how does the nurse know what state the infant is in by what the mother says, and that it's fine to try and feed the infant?
The nurse will know what state the infant when the mother says that she has always been a chatterbox and shares her brother's smile.
What do we understand by infant?Infant is most commonly used to refer to a very young human, but it can also apply to a baby animal. People are considered infants from the moment they are born until they are about one year old, when many newborns begin to walk and talk. At this period, kids are more commonly referred to as toddlers rather than infants. Infant, the Latin term for "infant in arms," also means "unable to talk" when used as an adjective.
At first, it may appear like your infant does nothing except feed, sleep, cry, and change diapers. Your baby, on the other hand, is growing. She can speak with others about her desires and interests, as well as see and hear what is going on around her. Playing with their infants can help them learn.
Infants can discriminate between faces and objects of varying sizes, colours, and shapes. They can tell the difference between their parents' and other people's sounds.
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immediately after assisting a patient with diabetes to take her nitroglycerin, she states that she feels weak, dizzy, and nauseated. what should the emt do next?
The EMT should first assess the case's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation.
The EMT should call for an ambulance and begin furnishing introductory life support if demanded, If any of the vital signs are abnormal or the case is in torture. The EMT should also ask the case about any other symptoms or conditions she may be having. Once the case's condition has been assessed.
The EMT should give applicable medical care grounded on the case's symptoms. This may include administering oxygen, furnishing IV fluids, or administering specifics. The EMT should also give emotional support and consolation. Eventually, the EMT should validate the case's condition and the care handed, and also communicate the case's croaker to report the case's condition and any treatment handed.
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what is the term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion?
The term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion is "flagella."
Flagella are whip-like appendages that are found on the surface of some bacterial cells and are used for motility and navigation. They are made up of a protein called flagellin, which is assembled into a long, flexible structure that rotates like a propeller to propel the bacterium through its environment.
In bacilli, flagella are usually located at one or both ends of the cell, while spirilla have flagella that are arranged in a spiral pattern around the cell. The number and arrangement of flagella can vary among different bacterial species, and the presence or absence of flagella can be used as a criterion for classifying different types of bacteria.
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a nurse is using the picot model to generate an ebp question about how virtual health education, as compared to face-to-face health education, affects information retention and recall in patients ages 5 to 8 years. which component of picot does information retention and recall represent?
Patient/Problem, Intervention, Comparison, and Outcome for the specific circumstance are called PICOT. Outcome of interest has information retention and recall represent.
The words "Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, and Time" (PICOT) are formed from the components of a clinical research question.
The Picot model is utilized by the nurse to create a question regarding how information recall and retention are affected by face-to-face health education versus virtual health education in patients between the ages of 5 and 8. The four picot components of problem, intervention, comparison, and outcome are necessary for this procedure.
A PICOT inquiry has one straightforward goal: It is a mechanism for determining the terms to employ in a search for the best data to address a pressing clinical inquiry. In other words, the search approach is determined by the PICOT query.
Types of picot are:-
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which of the following statements is true? answer: the curing practices of any medical system may be effective in relieving pain and curing minor illnesses. the curing practices of any medical system may be effective in relieving pain and curing minor illnesses. folk medicines and curing practices have no curative powers and are based purely on superstition. ill people rarely get well without the help of a medical doctor or folk curler. folk medicines and curing practices have no curative powers and are based purely on superstition.
"Curing practices of any medical system will be effective in relieving pain as well as curing minor illnesses" is true. Option 1 is correct.
Different medical systems, including traditional or folk medicines, have been used for centuries to treat the various ailments and have been shown to have therapeutic effects in some cases. However, it's important to note that not all traditional medicines have been scientifically proven to be safe as well as effective, and some may even be harmful. It's always best to consult with a medical professional before trying any new treatment, especially if it's a serious or in chronic condition.
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--The given question is incorrect, the complete question is
"which of the following statements is true? 1) The curing practices of any medical system may be effective in relieving pain and curing minor illnesses. 2) The curing practices of any medical system may be effective in relieving pain and curing minor illnesses. 3) Folk medicines and curing practices have no curative powers and are based purely on superstition. 4) ill people rarely get well without the help of a medical doctor or folk curler. 5) Folk medicines and curing practices have no curative powers and are based purely on superstition."--
what are two or three physiological symptoms that seem to be the most common complaints?
The two or three physiological symptoms that seem to be the most common complaints are fever, constipation and vomiting.
The most common causes of constipation are when waste or stool goes thru the digestive tract too slowly or cannot be efficiently evacuated from the rectum, which can result in the stool being hard and dry. Immobility and less fibers are some causes of chronic constipation.
There are several reasons why someone could vomit besides an underlying illness. Instances are motion sickness, pregnancy, binge eating, and hangovers. Schedule a visit with your physician if Vomiting lasts more than two days in adults, 24 hours in toddlers, and 12 hours in newborns.
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on average, how long does it take for the development of clinical resistance to an antibiotic?
On average, it takes several months to several years for the development of clinical resistance to an antibiotic.
Clinical resistance to antibiotics occurs when bacteria that were once sensitive to a particular antibiotic become resistant to it, making treatment with that drug less effective or ineffective.
The rate at which clinical resistance to antibiotics develops depends on various factors, including the type of antibiotic, the bacteria it is targeting, and the environment in which the bacteria are present.
In general, clinical resistance to antibiotics can develop relatively quickly, often within a few months of starting treatment with a particular drug. This occurs because bacteria can rapidly evolve and acquire genetic mutations that make them resistant to antibiotics.
Once these resistant bacteria are established in a population, they can spread rapidly and continue to evolve, leading to the development of increasingly drug-resistant strains.
It is important to note that not all antibiotics are equally susceptible to resistance. Some antibiotics, such as penicillin, are more prone to resistance because they have a simple chemical structure that is easily altered by bacteria.
Other antibiotics, such as carbapenems, have a more complex structure that makes it more difficult for bacteria to evolve resistance.
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the nurse manager in a public health department is implementing a plan to reduce the incidence of infection with hiv in the community. which nursing action will be delegated to the uap?
Nursing actions that will be delegated to UAP to reduce the incidence of HIV infection in the community are supplying injection drug users with sterile injection equipment such as needles and syringes.
Early in the AIDS pandemic, it was recognized that sharing needles and syringes could be risky, as it could lead to HIV transmission. This is called "needle sharing". It can happen when two or more people use the same needle to inject drugs, such as heroin, cocaine, amphetamines, or buprenorphine.
People who pass needles often do so because they feel comfortable around each other and see no risk of contracting HIV. If someone is not aware of how dangerous it is to share needles, they may do so without thinking about the risks.
So that equipping injecting drug users with sterile injecting equipment such as syringes is one way to reduce HIV infection in the community.
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a client with chronic bronchitis is admitted to the health facility. auscultation of the lungs reveals low-pitched, rumbling sounds. what breath sound should the nurse document?
Rhonchi are low-pitched, rumbling sounds that are heard during auscultation of the lungs; they are indicative of airway obstruction.
The nurse should document the breath sound as "rhonchi."Rhonchi are low-pitched, rumbling sounds that are heard during auscultation of the lungs and are indicative of airway obstruction. In the case of a client with chronic bronchitis, rhonchi may indicate the presence of mucus or inflammation in the airways, leading to partial blockage and associated breath sounds. It is important that the nurse document the presence of rhonchi in the patient's medical record to ensure that the patient's condition is closely monitored and managed appropriately.
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After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, which nursing intervention would help prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound?
After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, the nursing intervention which would help to prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound is cleaning the wound from the center to the surrounding skin.
You can wet gauze pads by immersing them in wound cleaning solution and wringing away the extra, or you can use a spray bottle to administer the solution to the gauze while washing the wound from the centre to the surrounding skin. Utilize a clean gauze pad for each wipe as you move from the least polluted area to the most contaminated area.
Debridement of wounds is the process of eliminating dead tissue. The dead tissue could be white, tan, yellow, grey, black, or grey. The wound may potentially have foreign objects on it. It might have to be taken out. If dead tissue needs to be removed from your wound, your doctor who treats wounds will inform you of this.
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dr. smith performed surgery on a patient. the planned surgery was an appendectomy, but dr. smith performed a second procedure as well, which the patient had not consented to. the most likely successful cause of action resulting from the second procedure is
The most likely cause of action upon Dr. Smith due to performing a second surgical procedure without patient's consent apart from appendectomy will be: (b) Battery.
In law, battery refers to the touching to an individual without his or her permission or consent. In this case, the victim does not need to prove if any harm has been caused or not. It is considered as a violation of the patient's bodily integrity.
Appendectomy is the surgical process of removal of a person's appendix when it gets infected. Appendix is a small pouch like structure that is attached to the large intestine. It is an emergency procedure because otherwise it may increase the risk of infection.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Dr. Smith performed surgery on a patient. the planned surgery was an appendectomy, but dr. smith performed a second procedure as well, which the patient had not consented to. the most likely successful cause of action resulting from the second procedure is:
a. Defamation
b. Battery
c. Strict liability
d. No possible successful cause of action
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patient is to receive 5 mg/kg of medication. patient weighs 80 kg. how much would you administer
If the patient weighs 80 kg, then the medication dosage for the patient would be 400 mg .
This can be calculated by multiplying the weight of the case( in kg)
(5 mg x 80 kg = 400 mg ) by the dose of the drug specified( in mg/ kg). It's important to use the case's weight to duly calculate the dose due to the fact that the dose of the drug varies according to the case's weight.
It's also important to insure that the case is entering the correct dose in order to avoid any implicit side goods of taking too important or too little drug. It's important to note that the case's weight should be calculated directly and the dose should be given in agreement with the tradition.
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the nurse is defibrillating a patient in ventricular fibrillation with paddles on a monophasic defibrillator. how much paddle pressure should the nurse apply when defibrillating?
The best position in which to place the patient is on their side (lateral recumbent position).
This position allows the airways to remain open, while also helping to prevent aspiration. Positioning a Patient in Postictal Phase Following a Generalized Tonic-Clonic SeizureThe best position in which to place a patient in the postictal phase following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the patient to remain comfortable while keeping their airways open and preventing aspiration. It also helps maintain the patient's circulation and comfort. This position allows the nurse to closely monitor the patient's progress, as it is important to be aware of any changes in the patient's condition. This position also helps to prevent the patient from rolling onto their back and choking on their own saliva or vomit.
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a patient with a history of hypertension is to start drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. which drug(s) would be contraindicated, or used cautiously, for this patient? (select all that apply.
Drugs that will be contraindicated, or used with caution for rheumatoid arthritis patients who have a history of hypertension are NSAID class of pain medications.
What is hypertension?Hypertension is the medical understanding of high blood pressure. This condition can cause various kinds of life-threatening health complications if left unchecked. In fact, this disorder can lead to an increased risk of heart disease, stroke, and death.
A person can experience high blood pressure when more blood is pumped by the heart due to the narrowing of the blood vessels in the arteries.
Patients with hypertension must be careful in using NSAID-class drugs because NSAIDs can cause an increase in blood pressure through the mechanism of action of prostaglandin and prostacyclin inhibition.
Your question is not complete, maybe the meaning of your question is ;
A patient with a history of hypertension is to start drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. which drug(s) would be contraindicated, or used cautiously, for this patient? (select all that apply)
NSAID class of pain medications.NSAIDs class of pain medications.Learn more about hypertension is known as a silent killer here :
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