the nurse notices significant edema surrounding and proximal to the peripheral intravenous (iv) site where epinephrine is being infused. which action would the nurse anticipate first?

Answers

Answer 1

The action which would be taken by the nurse first when she notices edema would be prepare to administer phentolamine [Regitine], which means option A is the right answer.

Edema is the swelling which is caused due to collection of fluid in the spaces that surround the body tissues and other organs. Peripheral intravenous IV Sites are the area where the fluids are administered using short plastic catheter such that it enters directly into the vein after crossing the subsequent skin layers. If cases of swelling emerge in surrounding areas, then quick action must be taken to avoid bursting of veins due to undue pressure. Phentolamine is a anesthetic drug which helps in normalizing any sensation and also regulates the relaxation of veins and adjacent muscles.

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Refer to complete question below:

The nurse notices significant edema surrounding and proximal to the peripheral intravenous (IV) site where epinephrine is being infused. Which action would the nurse anticipate first?

Prepare to administer phentolamine [Regitine].Ensure that naloxone [Narcan] is available.Institute the protocol for congestive heart failure (CHF).Monitor the blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and potassium levels.

Related Questions

Which of the following actions should the CPCT take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher?

Answers

The actions that the CPCT should take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher is a. Elevating the bed to a position equal to the height of the stretcher.

Moving a patient from one flat surface to another is referred to as patient care transfer. Patient transfers from a bed to a stretcher and from a bed to a wheelchair are the most prevalent. During the transfer of patient care, the receiving health care professionals should be able to ask clarifying questions about the information that has been given.

Health care facilities should make every effort to obtain patient care transfer reports on time, allowing EMS units to return to service. Bed to stretcher, bed to wheelchair, wheelchair to chair, wheelchair to toilet, and vice versa are all examples of hospital transfers.

The complete question is:

Which of the following actions should the CPCT take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a chair?

A. elevating the bed to a position equal to the height of the stretcher

B. elevating the bed to a position lower than the height of the stretcher

C. reaching across the stretcher to assist the patient

D. elevating the bed to a position higher than the height of the stretcher

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What are some solutes, other than proteins, that are not filtered into the nephron?

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For some solutes, the nephron does not filter them. Protein and substance X are examples of them. This is the case because they are present in the glomerulus but not in the Bowman's capsule.

Large proteins like albumin and platelets as well as cells, platelets, and platelets do not freely enter the Bowman's capsule. The nephron, on the other hand, has the ability to filter out nutrients, nitrogenous waste, and blood components.

The nephron is the kidney's minuscule or microscopic structure and functioning unit. Both a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule make up this organ. The Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus, a tuft of capillaries in the shape of a cup, make up the renal corpuscle. From the capsule, the renal tubule protrudes.

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while reviewing a client's the record, the nurse sees that the client received a dose of interferon alpha-2b? for what disorder does the nurse suspect the client was being treated?

Answers

The nurse will suspect chronic hepatitis C after seeing a dose of interferon alpha-2b in a client's record. A is the correct answer.

Interferon alpha-2b is a medication used to treat chronic hepatitis C, a viral infection that affects the liver. It works by stimulating the immune system to fight the virus. The nurse, by seeing the client received a dose of interferon alpha-2b, can suspect that the client was being treated for chronic hepatitis C. Chronic hepatitis C can cause serious liver damage over time, and early diagnosis and treatment is important to prevent progression of the disease. Treatment options for chronic hepatitis C include antiviral medications like interferon alpha-2b, as well as combination antiviral therapies. The nurse should monitor the client's response to the medication and report any adverse effects to the healthcare provider.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

A) chronic hepatitis CB) asthmaC) bacterial pneumoniaD) ankylosing spondylosis

The correct answer is option A.

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which action would the nurse take in caring for a client after surgical placement of an external fixator on the client's leg?

Answers

Answer:

Below

Explanation:

1) Check pulses and oximeter readings in the distal limb

  check wounds for cleanliness/bleeding

       administer pain meds

which is a priority nursing intervention that the nurse should perform for a client who has undergone surgery for a nasal obstruction?

Answers

The nurse should ensure mouth breathing.

The inability to breathe and move air via the nasal passages is known as nasal blockage. The bulk of the time, this is caused by deviations from the nose's typical anatomy. These anomalies may result from anatomical changes brought on by trauma or normal development that restrict the nasal channel, or they may result from inflammatory changes that inflate and expand the tissues of the nose.

The majority of people with nasal blockage lament being unable to breathe from one or both sides of their nose, or having decreased ability to do so. Additionally, they frequently see snoring, mouth breathing, sleepiness, and frequent runny noses.

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a client comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing and feeling strange after eating a shrimp cocktail. the client is leaning forward with a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute. the nurse suspects anaphylaxis. what is the nurse's priority action?

Answers

The nurse's priority action should be maintaining an open airway.

Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that occurs suddenly after exposure to an allergen, such as food, medications, insect stings, or latex. Symptoms can include hives, swelling, difficulty breathing, wheezing, rapid or weak pulse, dizziness or fainting, abdominal pain, and nausea or vomiting.

In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, prompt recognition and treatment are essential to prevent severe morbidity or mortality. The nurse should follow institutional policy and the physician's orders for the management of anaphylaxis, which may include the administration of emergency medications, such as epinephrine (adrenaline), antihistamines, corticosteroids, and airway management.

Therefore, The nurse's priority action should be maintaining an open airway.

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administering an injectioin of phentalomaine to a paitnet experiencing extravastion while on dopamine therpahy will resul in which outcome ?

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When an injection of phentolamine is administered to a patient experiencing extravasation while on dopamine therapy, it will result in: vasodilation.

Extravasation is the leakage of any kind of fluid from a blood vessel into the tissues around it. The fluids leaking can be:  blood, lymph, or some drug. The leakage can be due to some piercing of the vessel wall or due to increased venous pressure.

Vasodilation can be defined as the widening or broadening of the blood vessels due to relaxation is the muscular walls of the vessel. Vasodilation is essential to increase the flow of blood into the target site. This ultimately results in decreased blood pressure.

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a client is admitted to the hospital with suspected liver disease, and a needle biopsy of the liver is performed. after the procedure, the nurse would maintain the client in which position? supine

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After a liver biopsy procedure, the client is usually maintained in a supine position.

This is to help prevent bleeding from the biopsy site and to allow the client to rest comfortably. The nurse would monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or complications, such as pain or tenderness at the biopsy site, and report any concerns to the healthcare provider immediately.

The client may also be instructed to avoid certain activities, such as heavy lifting, for a period of time following the procedure to minimize the risk of bleeding or other complications.

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the nurse is teaching a client who had a thyroidectomy to observe for symptoms of surgically induced hypothyroidism. which symptoms would be included in the teaching plan? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. dry skin

Answers

The symptoms associated with surgically induced hypothyroidism are: (2) Weight loss; (3) Tachycardia; (4) Restlessness and (6) Exophthalmos.

Hypothyroidism is the condition of lack of thyroid hormones in the body because the gland is unable to produce enough hormone. The condition can severely affect various aspects of metabolism. The condition is more prevalent on older women.

Exophthalmos is the protrusion of eyes outwards from the orbit. This can occur in any one eye or both the eyes. The condition is simply known as bulging eyes. Thyroid associated disorders are the most common cause of this condition. It can even lead to vision loss.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

The nurse is teaching a client who had a thyroidectomy to observe for symptoms of surgically induced hypothyroidism. which symptoms would be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

1 Dry skin

2 Weight loss

3 Tachycardia

4 Restlessness

5 Constipation

6 Exophthalmos

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which physiological factors help maintain blood pressure in the client with hypovolemia

Answers

Answer: In hypovolemia, aldosterone, angiotensin II, and sympathetic nervous system activation all increase blood pressure.

Explanation:

Release of aldosterone

Activation of angiotensin II

Sympathetic nervous system activation

What is hypovolemia ?

Hypovolemia is a condition of low extracellular fluid volume, usually brought on by simultaneous salt and water loss. To maintain homeostasis, all living things need to have a proper fluid balance.

Severe blood or other fluid loss renders the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body, resulting in hypovolemic shock, a life-threatening condition. A lot of organs could stop working as a result of this kind of shock.

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Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias?
A. Rouleaux
B. Positive DAT
C. Splenomegaly
D. Increased erythrocyte count

Answers

B. Positive DAT best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias

In immune hemolytic anemia, the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys its own red blood cells (RBCs), leading to a decrease in their count and resulting in anemia.

To diagnose this type of anemia, a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is performed, which detects the presence of antibodies or complement proteins that are attached to the surface of RBCs. If the DAT is positive, it indicates that the RBCs are being destroyed by the body's immune system, and immune hemolytic anemia is diagnosed.

On the other hand, other types of hemolytic anemias may be caused by genetic disorders, medications, or infections, and do not result in a positive DAT. For example, in non-immune hemolytic anemia, RBCs are destroyed due to structural abnormalities in the cells themselves, rather than an immune attack. So, the presence of a positive DAT distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other types of hemolytic anemias.

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after a subtotal gastrectomy, a client begins to eat more food in varied forms. after meals, the client experiences discomfort from cramping and a rapid pulse with waves of weakness, which often are followed by nausea and vomiting. the nurse concludes that the client is experiencing dumping syndrome. which process causes dumping syndrome? sluggish passage of food into the small intestine

Answers

The sudden passage of a hyperosmolar food solution into the small intestine is the process that causes the dumping syndrome.

Does dumping syndrome follow a gastrectomy?

Syndrome of the dump. Following a gastrectomy, a person may have a constellation of symptoms known as "dumping syndrome." It is brought on when extremely sweet or starchy food enters your small intestine suddenly. Your stomach normally processed the majority of the sugar and starch before a gastrectomy.

Why undergo a partial gastrectomy?

For middle and distal-third gastric cancer, subtotal gastrectomy is the preferred course of treatment because it offers comparable survival rates and superior functional outcomes when compared to total gastrectomy, particularly in cases of early-stage disease with a good outlook.

What is the duration of a subtotal gastrectomy?

The procedure may take two to six hours. Your stomach's sick area will be cut out during surgery, along with part of the nearby lymph nodes. If all of your stomachs are gone, the small intestine and esophagus are connected.

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the nurse is preparing a teaching plan for new parents about why newborns experience heat loss. which information about newborns would the nurse include?

Answers

In order to generate heat, newborns only have a small amount of voluntary muscular action.

As opposed to muscles that move regularly, like the heart, voluntary muscles are those that you chose move, such as those in the legs and the arms. Animals' muscles are the types of tissue that cause movement or motion. Voluntary refers to action taken of one's own free will or will.

Hundreds or even thousands of muscle fibers fire simultaneously when a muscle contracts voluntarily, as in arm wrestling. Additionally, intentional movement has a higher frequency of muscle fiber activation than reflex motion.

the skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle, often known as voluntary muscle, is the most prevalent of the five types of muscle found in vertebrates. Tendons connect skeletal muscles to bones, and these muscles control all of the movement of body components in the skeleton.

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the nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. administer intravenous (iv) levothyroxine.

Answers

The nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. The following interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care :

Administer intravenous (IV) levothyroxine.Give IV normal saline.

Myxedema coma is defined as severe hypothyroidism resulting in depressed mental status, hypothermia, and other symptoms associated with decreased multiorgan function. Emergency medical care with a high mortality rate.

Myxedema coma is the most severe form of hypothyroidism induced by acute stressors. Intravenous medication with levothyroxine (LT4) and perhaps liothyronine is used as treatment (LT3). Although the use of LT3 may be advantageous, an excess of LT3 may increase mortality.

Levothyroxine, also known as L-thyroxine, is the manufactured form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Used to treat thyroid hormone deficiency, including a severe form known as myxedema coma. It can also be used to treat and prevent certain types of thyroid tumors. It is Not applicable for weight loss.

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Complete question :

The nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. Which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Administer intravenous (IV) levothyroxine.

Avoid use of corticosteroids.

Give IV normal saline.

Wait for laboratory results before treating.

Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours.

true or false: any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.true false question.truefalse

Answers

It is true that Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.

The given statement "Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused." is True because sensitization is defined as a drug-induced decrease in resistance to a pharmacological action as a result of past drug exposure.

A drug is any chemical substance that, when eaten, induces a change in the physiology or psychology of an organism. Food and substances that provide nutritional support are frequently distinguished from medications. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed through a skin patch, suppository, or dissolved beneath the tongue.

A drug is a chemical substance having a well-defined structure that, when administered to a living being, has a biological impact. A pharmaceutical drug, often known as a medication or medicine, is a chemical compound that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease, or to improve health. Psychoactive medicines are chemical compounds that modify the central nervous system's function, affecting perception, mood, or awareness.

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The Physician of a 46-year-old premenopausal woman with breast cancer has prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex) beginning in the postoperative period following a lumpectomy. What should the nurse teach this woman regarding tamoxifen? A. It will help to relieve postoperative discomfort. B. She will take 100 mg of tamoxifen four times a day. C. Tamoxifen works by blocking the action of progesterone on the breast tissue. D. She may experience hot flashes and menstrual irregularities when taking tamoxifen. (D)

Answers

A 46-year-old premenopausal breast cancer patient was administered tamoxifen (Nolvadex) after a lumpectomy. "She may experience hot flashes and menstrual irregularities when taking tamoxifen" is the teaching that nurse should advise. Thus, option D holds the truth.

Tamoxifen is a type of hormone therapy used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by blocking the action of estrogen on breast tissue, which slows or stops the growth of cancer cells. The nurse should teach the patient that she may experience side effects while taking tamoxifen, including hot flashes and menstrual irregularities. These side effects are common and generally mild, but they can be managed with lifestyle changes and medication. Tamoxifen is not used to relieve postoperative discomfort and that the recommended dose and frequency of administration will depend on the patient's individual treatment plan.

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in which two ways can a family health tree help you improve your own health? multiple select question. by helping to identify potential risks by illustrating familial patterns of health and illness by eliminating the possibility of inheriting certain genetic disorders by improving knowledge of different occupations

Answers

Answer:

by helping to identify potential risks

by illustrating familial patters of health and illness

the parent of a 2-year-old toddler tells the nurse she needs to constantly scold the toddler for having wet pants. the parent says the toddler was potty trained at 12 months, but since starting to walk, the toddler wets the pants all the time. which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable?

Answers

The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the issue parents are having with the toddler would be one of inadequate parental knowledge.

A 2-year-parent old's informs the nurse that she must repeatedly chastise the child for wearing wet pants. The parent claims that their child was potty trained at the age of one year, but since learning to walk, the child has soiled their pants constantly. The lack of parental information of improper methods for toilet training should be brought up by the parents.

Lack of relevant knowledge or the psychomotor skills required for maintaining, restoring, or promoting health are referred to as knowledge deficits. To manage toddlers that require additional care, knowledge is essential.

When a patient lacks the knowledge or cognitive capacity to comprehend the information required to carry out their healthcare plan, it is a nursing diagnostic known as a knowledge deficit.

Knowledge is a crucial indicator utilized in a typical treatment plan. It takes into account the patient's existing knowledge of key components of their therapy, such as nutritional requirements, side effects, and disease prevention, and fills in the gaps to enable the patient to lead a better life.

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the earliest medical use for amphetamine was as a substitute for ephedrine in treating asthma.T/F

Answers

The statement is true that the earliest medical use for amphetamine was as a substitute for ephedrine in treating asthma.

Amphetamine had been created by Lazar Edeleanu in Germany in 1887, but it went unnoticed until 1929, when chemist Gordon Alles became aware of it. Alles were searching for an asthma prescription which was superior to the ones that were on the market at the time.

A central nervous system stimulant called ephedrine is frequently used to guard against low blood pressure when under anaesthesia. Although it has been used for overweight, insomnia, and asthma, it is not the recommended method of treatment. Its value in relieving nasal congestion is unknown.

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the nurse obtains daily stool specimens for a client with chronic bowel inflammation. the nurse recognizes that the stool examinations were prescribed for which reason? to evaluate fat content

Answers

The daily stool specimens obtained by the nurse for a client with chronic bowel inflammation are most likely being collected to evaluate for the presence of fat in the stool.

This information is important because chronic bowel inflammation, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, can cause malabsorption and decreased fat digestion. An evaluation of the fat content in the stool, also known as a steatocrit test, can help determine the extent of the malabsorption and the effectiveness of any treatment being used to manage the condition.

Other tests that may be performed on the stool specimens include a complete blood count, stool culture, and stool analysis for parasites and other pathogens.

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Answer:

to determine the presence of occult blood.

Explanation:

Occult blood in the stool may indicate active bleeding.

a multigravida woman with a history of cesarean births is admitted to the maternity unit in labor. the client is having excessively strong contractions, and the nurse monitors the client closely for uterine rupture. which finding is noted if complete rupture occurs?

Answers

The finding to be noted when a client has excessively strong contractions and if complete uterine rupture occur is: decreasing blood pressure.

Uterine rupture is a serious complication during pregnancy. This complication occurs during the childbirth and is more prominent in women who have had a cesarean in earlier pregnancy and then try for a normal birth in the other one.

Blood pressure is the force with which the heart pumps blood into the blood vessels, especially the arteries because they supply blood to the whole body. Blood pressure stability is essential during a suspected uterine rupture for hemodynamic stability.

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A nurse is monitoring a client being evaluated who has a potassium level of 7 mEq/L (mmol/L). Which electrocardiogram changes will the client display?
elevated ST segment
peaked T waves
prolonged T waves
shortened PR interval

Answers

A nurse is monitoring a client being evaluated who has a potassium level of 7 mEq/L (mmol/L) and the electrocardiogram changes which the client will display is peaked T waves.

Your body requires the mineral potassium to function properly. Additionally, it aids in the movement of nutrients into and waste out of cells. The blood potassium level ranges from 3.6 to 5.2 generally. Blood potassium levels more than 6.0 mmol/L can indeed be harmful and typically call for prompt medical attention.

The procedure of electrocardiography involves creating an electrocardiogram, a measurement of the the heart's electrical activity. It is a heart electrogram, which uses electrodes applied to the skin to create a graph of voltage vs time for the the heart's electrical activity.

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a client is admitted to the hospital after taking an overdose of aspirin. a nasogastric tube is inserted for lavage. which solution would the nurse obtain for the gastric lavage? normal saline

Answers

The solution that the nurse will do for gastric lavage due to an overdose of aspirin is to enter normal saline or intravenous fluids.

What is aspirin?

Aspirin is a medicine to relieve pain, fever, and inflammation. This drug, which is also known as acetylsalicylic acid, is also used to prevent blood clots from forming, thereby reducing the risk of heart attack or stroke in people with cardiovascular disease.

The use of aspirin must be in accordance with the doctor's instructions to prevent side effects from appearing.

If a person experiences an overdose of aspirin, gastric lavage will be performed. Gastric lavage is a medical procedure to clean and empty stomach contents. This action is usually performed as a treatment for cases of poisoning (such as food or drug poisoning), stomach bleeding, or gastrointestinal obstruction. This action is carried out by incorporating warm water or normal saline fluids or intravenous fluids.

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It is important that the veterinary technician, when completing veterinary medical records, enter the notation, _______________ for each treatment, drug, medication, or appliance ordered by the veterinarian

Answers

The notation that veterinary technicians need to enter when completing veterinary medical records is usually a short description of the treatment, drug, medication, or appliance that was ordered by the veterinarian.

For example, it could be something like 'IV Fluid Admin' or 'Rx Amoxicillin 500mg PO BID'. This notation helps to identify the treatments or medications that were ordered and also allows for easier tracking and record-keeping.

When completing veterinary medical records, the notation should contain enough information to accurately and clearly identify the treatment, drug, medication, or appliance that was ordered by the veterinarian. This means that the notation should generally include the name of the item, the dosage, the route of administration (if applicable), and the frequency of administration (if applicable).

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which instruction would be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy? take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.

Answers

The instruction to be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy is: (1) Take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.

Thyroidectomy is the removal of the thyroid glands of an individual by surgery. These glands are located in the front portion of the neck. The hormones released by thyroid gland are necessary for the body's accurate metabolism.

Thyroid replacement is the process of administering thyroid hormones from the outside source to maintain their normal levels in the body. The source usually are the thyroid medications. The most commonly used medication is Levothyroxine that replaces the thyroxine hormone.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Which instruction would be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy?

1) Take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.

2) Be aware of signs and symptoms of dehydration.

3) Avoid all over the counter medications.

4) Report signs of hypoglycemia.

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which statement would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager?

Answers

"If I get itchy around the cast, I'll rub the itchy area gently." would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager.

In general, the cast should be kept dry. A wet cast can cause skin irritation and infection. Plaster and fiberglass casts with traditional padding are not waterproof. Keep your child's cast dry while bathing or showering by covering it with two layers of plastic and sealing with rubber bands or tape.

After applying plaster, perform cast care. Support the exposed cast with your palms to avoid denting. Make sure the jersey is pulled over the rough edges of the cast.Elevate the cast leg above heart level. Provides coverage and warmth in non-fluffy areas.

It is important to take good care of the cast or splint to minimize the risk of potential complications such as skin infections.

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Complete question :

which statement would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager?

'If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll pat the area with an alcohol swab.

''If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll ask my doctor for a prednisone prescription.

''If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll sprinkle a layer of powder around the itchy spots.'

"If I get itchy around the cast, I'll rub the itchy area gently."

during a preadmission assessment, for what diagnosis would the nurse expect to find decreased tactile fremitus and hyperresonant percussion sounds?

Answers

The nurse would expect to find decreased tactile fremitus and hyperresonant percussion sounds during a preadmission assessment for a pneumothorax (collapsed lung).

A pneumothorax is a condition where air gets trapped in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lung and the chest wall. This trapped air exerts pressure on the lung, causing it to collapse. Decreased tactile fremitus is a sign of a pneumothorax because the normal vibration that is felt during speech is diminished.

Hyperresonant percussion sounds, which are loud, drum-like sounds that occur when the chest is percussed, are also signs of a pneumothorax. This is because the pleural cavity is filled with air, so there is less resistance to the percussive force. These physical exam findings, combined with the patient's symptoms, can help the nurse diagnose a pneumothorax.

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the first thing to check when patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is? mcq

Answers

The first thing to check when a patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is the occlusion, or the way the denture fits in the patient's mouth.

Improper fit and placement of dentures can cause discomfort, pain, and pressure on the gums, jawbone, and surrounding tissues. The occlusion should be evaluated to ensure that the denture is properly aligned and that the patient's bite is not causing any discomfort or pain.

In some cases, changes in the soft tissues of the mouth, such as the gums or tongue, may also contribute to discomfort or pain under the denture. The dentist should examine the patient's mouth for any changes in the soft tissues, such as redness, swelling, or sores, which could indicate an infection or injury.

If the denture is found to be in good condition and the occlusion is proper, the dentist may then consider other possible causes of the patient's pain, such as oral infections, oral cancer, or temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorder. The dentist may then order diagnostic tests, such as X-rays or an oral examination, to determine the root cause of the pain.

In conclusion, the first thing to check when a patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is the occlusion, or the way the denture fits in the patient's mouth. The dentist should evaluate the occlusion and examine the patient's mouth for any changes in the soft tissues that may be contributing to discomfort or pain. If the denture is in good condition and the occlusion is proper, the dentist may then consider other possible causes of the patient's pain.

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The full question was :

The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is

A. Occlusion B. Soft tissues changes

while establishing io access in a critically ill patient, you locate the appropriate anatomic landmark, cleanse the site, and insert the io catheter at a 45-degree angle. after attaching the iv line and turning the flow on, you note edema developing on the opposite side of the extremity. what has most likely happene

Answers

Extravasation due to an inappropriate angle of IO catheter insertion, while establishing io access in a critically ill patient.

Should you use the intramuscular route while giving medication?

Quickly drive the needle into the skin at a 90° angle. Use your thumb and index finger to apply pressure to the skin surrounding the injection site as the needle is being placed. It is not required to aspirate. The space between each injection delivered in the same extremity should be as large as possible—ideally, at least 1".

What is true about isotonic solutions according to the following statements?

The solvent and solute content in the isotonic solution is identical to that of the cytoplasm of the particular cell. In this situation, molecules can freely cross the membrane without affecting the solute concentration on either side.

Which of the following assertions is accurate when the cell is placed in an isotonic solution?

If a cell is submerged in an isotonic solution, there won't be any net water inflow or outflow, and the volume of the cell will stay constant. The solution is isotonic to the cell if the concentration of solutes inside and outside the cell are equal, and the solutes cannot cross the membrane.

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the nurse is caring for a group of clients in labor and delivery. which client is at greatest risk for placental abruption

Answers

The patient who is 28 y.o G1 at 30 weeks' gestation with a blood pressure of 150/94 and history of cigarette smoking, is at greatest risk for placental abruption (abruptio placentae).

Placental abruption (abruptio placentae), a potentially life-threatening condition that happens when the placenta separates from the uterus wall before birth, is significantly increased by smoking and high blood pressure. High blood pressure, or hypertension, can harm the blood arteries that supply the placenta with nutrients and oxygen, causing the placenta to separate from the uterus. Contrarily, smoking has been linked to reduced blood flow to the placenta and a higher chance of placental abruption. Smoking also raises the possibility of hypertension during pregnancy, which heightens the danger of placental abruption.

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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is as:

The nurse is caring for a group of clients in labor and delivery. Which client is at greatest risk for placental abruption (abruptio placentae)?

A: 28 y.o G1 at 30 weeks' gestation with a blood pressure of 150/94 and history of cigarette smoking

B: 42 y.o G7P6 at 42 weeks' gestation who had limited prenatal care and has a BMI of 24

C: 30 y.o G2 at 32 weeks' gestation and a history of infertility. Her first pregnancy resulted in a stillbirth at 38 weeks

D: 25 y.o. G4P3 at 38 weeks' gestation with a sedentary life style, BMI of 34, and a placenta previa

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