The wide evolutionary gap between echinoderms and chordates could be filled by a small and infrequently seen group of worms known as acoelomates.
Acoelomates are a group of worms that are believed to fill the evolutionary gap between echinoderms and chordates. They are considered to be a missing link between the two groups, as they share certain characteristics with both echinoderms and chordates. Acoelomates are small, flat, and often have a simple body plan without a proper body cavity, making them distinct from both echinoderms and chordates. Despite their significance in understanding the evolutionary history of animals, they are not well-known or frequently studied due to their small size and elusive nature. Nevertheless, the discovery of new species and the advancement of molecular techniques are shedding new light on this enigmatic group of organisms.
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hat structure in the liver permits chylomicron remnants to access the membrane of hepatocytes?
The liver is a vital organ that performs numerous functions in the body, including the regulation of lipid metabolism. One of the ways the liver does this is through a structure called the hat structure, which allows chylomicron remnants to access the membrane of hepatocytes.
Chylomicrons are particles made up of lipids and proteins that are formed in the small intestine and transported to the liver for processing. The hat structure, which is composed of a specialized group of proteins, forms a gateway between the chylomicron remnants and the membrane of hepatocytes, which are the liver cells responsible for lipid metabolism.
The hat structure acts as a receptor, binding to the chylomicron remnants and allowing them to be internalized by the hepatocytes. Once inside the hepatocytes, the lipids and proteins are separated, and the lipids are processed and used for energy or stored for later use.
The hat structure plays a crucial role in the liver's ability to regulate lipid metabolism and maintain healthy levels of lipids in the body. Without the hat structure, the liver would not be able to effectively process and utilize the chylomicron remnants, leading to a buildup of lipids in the bloodstream and potentially contributing to the development of cardiovascular diseases.
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Jocelyn Smith is an excellent singer. In fact, she has a band called Jocelyn Smith and
Friends that play often on the local music scene. She has a gig in two days at the County Fair where several talent scouts will be present. Jocelyn feels this may be her big break.
She wakes up two days before her event with what feels like a head cold. You know the symptoms—cough, runny nose, headache, chills, and muscle aches. As the day progresses, Jocelyn begins to feel worse. The day before her gig she wakes with a fever of 103˚F, a severe sore throat, and all of the same symptoms as yesterday.
Our job is to discover why Jocelyn is feeling so ill. Is it because of the infectious agent or is it her own body that is making her sick? To discover the answer, we will go through the steps of the immune response.
We will assume that Jocelyn has Influenza A virus.
Upon initial infection, the innate immune system responds with _______.This process involves the infected area of the body becoming very warm. The warmth comes from physiologic responses that are triggered to combat the infection. When a breech occurs in the physical barriers of the body (i.e. skin or mucus membranes), the innate immune response follows a set of steps to contain the infection.
Step 1. Increase the amount of white blood cells that will get to the area of infection.
How can this be done?
What physiologic response, if increased, will allow more white blood cells to get to the area of infection?
Step 2. Now that the cells are at the site of infection, they need to migrate to the specific area. We increased heart rate to get the cells to the area (by pumping the heart faster, more white blood cells will be able to get to the site of infection faster through the vasculature).
How do cells get out of the vessels?
Step 3. The cells that were initially infected are releasing immune chemicals called chemokines. These specialized immune chemicals are designed to create a trail for white blood cells to follow. The greatest concentration of these chemokines are at the site of infection and the concentration tapers off as the molecules move to the vessels.
Using this information, how do you think white blood cells move to the site of infection?
The innate immune response helps recruit and direct white blood cells to the site of infection, allowing them to combat the infectious agent and initiate the immune response.
The innate immune system inflames upon infection. This procedure heats the diseased region. When the skin or mucus membranes break, the innate immune response kicks in to confine the infection.
Step 1: Increase white blood cell flow to the infection.
Increase blood flow to the diseased region. Blood flow brings additional white blood cells to the infection location. Vasodilation—widening blood vessels—can improve blood flow.
Step 2: Cells must move from vessels to the target.
Diapedesis (extravasation) lets cells leave blood arteries. White blood cells enter contaminated tissue through blood vessel walls.
Step 3: Chemokines guide white blood cells to the infection. Chemokines secreted by infected cells form a gradient with the highest concentration near the infection site. White blood cells follow this gradient to the infection site.
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A group of tudent i propoing an experiment to tudy the impact of wavelength of light on plant. They hypotheize, "When we grow plant in green light and blue light and compare the height, we expect the one grown in blue light to be taller. " What’ miing from thi hypothei?
They postulate, "We predict the plant grown in blue light to be higher when we compare the height of the one grown in blue light to that grown in green light.
Plants' vegetative growth is strongly influenced by light with a wavelength of 400–520 nm, which includes light violet, blue, and green. Far red/infrared light with a wavelength of 720–1000 nm is used for germination, however very little absorption happens in this wave band. Plants may do a variety of tasks with the aid of various coloured light. For instance, blue light aids in promoting vegetative leaf growth. Plants can blossom when exposed to red and blue light. Indoor plant growth thrives under cool fluorescent lighting.
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Cerebral spinal fluid is produced in which structure(s)?
Choroid Plexus
Correct, cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the choroid plexus.
The choroid plexus is a network of blood vessels and ependymal cells found within the ventricles of the brain.
The ependymal cells secrete CSF, which circulates throughout the central nervous system and provides a cushion for the brain and spinal cord, helps regulate the chemical environment of the brain, and helps to remove waste products from the central nervous system.
The choroid plexus is responsible for the majority of CSF production in the body and continuously produces and renews the fluid.
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What are the functions of signal transduction pathways?
Signal transduction pathways allow different types of cells to respond differently to the same signal molecule.
Signal transduction pathways convert a signal on a cell's surface to a specific cellular response.
Signal transduction pathways amplify the effect of a signal molecule.
Signal transduction pathways are a series of molecular interactions that occur within a cell, allowing it to respond to external signals and transmit information from one part of the cell to another.
The functions of signal transduction pathways can be summarized as follows:
Convert a signal on a cell's surface to a specific cellular response: Signal transduction pathways allow a cell to respond to a signal molecule, such as a hormone or neurotransmitter, by converting the signal into a specific cellular response. This can involve the activation of specific enzymes, the release of intracellular signaling molecules, or changes in gene expression.
Amplify the effect of a signal molecule: Signal transduction pathways can amplify the effect of a signal molecule, making the response of the cell more robust and effective. This amplification can occur through a variety of mechanisms, including the activation of multiple signaling pathways in response to a single signal molecule, the sequential activation of multiple signaling molecules, or the recruitment of multiple effector molecules to a single signaling molecule.
Allow different types of cells to respond differently to the same signal molecule: Different types of cells can have different types of signal transduction pathways, allowing them to respond differently to the same signal molecule. This diversity of signaling pathways allows cells to perform different functions in response to a given signal, allowing the organism as a whole to respond to a wide range of signals in a flexible and adaptive manner.
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in horses, the gene for white hair (w) is dominant to the gene for non-white hair (w). a horse with genotype (ww) was crossed with a horse with genotype (ww), as shown in the punnett square. what percentage of the offspring should be expected to have white hair? a. 100% of the offspring will display the dominant trait. b. 100% of the offspring will display the recessive trait. c. 50% of the offspring will display the dominant trait and 50% will display the recessive trait. d. 75% of the offspring will display the dominant trait and 25% will display the recessive trait. 6. for a particular trait, the allele c is dominant over the allele c. the punnett square shows the genetic cross of two parents, each with genotype cc. what percentage of the offspring will show the phenotypes of the dominant allele and the recessive allele? a. 50% will show the phenotype of the dominant allele and 25% will show the phenotype of the recessive allele. b. 75% will show the phenotype of the recessive allele and 25% will show the phenotype of the dominant allele. c. 75% will show the phenotype of the dominant allele and 25% will show the phenotype of the recessive allele d. 100% will show the phenotype of the dominant allele and 0% will show the phenotype of the recessive allele.
25% will display the phenotype of the recessive allele, and 75% will display the dominant allele's phenotype.
A Punnett square is a representation of the possible genotypes of an offspring resulting from a certain cross or breeding event. To construct a Punnett square, the genetic makeup of the parents must be known. They have tabular representations of all the many ways their gametes could be combined. The essential premise is that each trait is determined by a distinct gene locus and that different qualities assort independently from one another. Even though this is typically true for many positive traits, there are many exceptions, especially when choosing traits for plant or animal breeding. In the 20th century, many years after Mendel's ground-breaking genetics experiments, this apparatus was created.
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use the example of dna damage to explain why there is a strong selection pressure
DNA damage can have severe consequences for an organism, potentially leading to mutations and a higher risk of disease. As a result, there is a strong selection pressure for organisms to have efficient mechanisms for repairing DNA damage.
This is because organisms that are better equipped to repair DNA damage are more likely to survive and reproduce than those that are not. Over time, this results in the evolution of increasingly efficient DNA repair mechanisms in the population.
For example, consider a population of cells that are exposed to a DNA-damaging agent, such as radiation. Some of these cells may have better DNA repair mechanisms than others. The cells with more efficient DNA repair mechanisms are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their genes to the next generation. Over time, the proportion of cells with efficient DNA repair mechanisms increases in the population, as cells with less efficient mechanisms are gradually weeded out by natural selection.
In this way, selection pressure can drive the evolution of complex and sophisticated biological systems, such as DNA repair mechanisms, that help to maintain the stability of an organism's genome and prevent the accumulation of harmful mutations.
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what expenses does a farmer spend money on when growing his or her crop.
Most notably, livestock and poultry farm-origin expenses have increased 46% and marketing, storage and transportation expenses have increased 59%. Overall, the intermediate expense category, which includes the majority of the farm production inputs, has increased 18% since 2013.
Fertilizer and rent are most likely the two largest costs for all grain farms. Undoubtedly, input costs will be higher in 2022.
The largest expenditures for crop farms are labor at $27.0 billon (13.8 percent), farm services at $26.2 billion (13.4 percent), and rent at $25.1 billion (12.8 percent). Combined crop inputs (chemicals, fertilizers, and seeds) are $56.4 billion, accounting for 28.9 percent of crop farms total expenses
a deletion at location a c auses a frameshif mutation how likely is it that a functional pitx1 protein would be produced in the jasw?
It is difficult to determine the likelihood of a functional Pitx1 protein being produced after a frameshift mutation at location A-C without knowing the exact mutation and the consequences it has on the gene's function.
Generally, frameshift mutations can result in a truncated, non-functional protein being produced, and this can depend on the number and location of the nucleotides added or removed from the gene.
If the frameshift mutation results in a stop codon being introduced, then it is highly unlikely that a functional protein will be produced. However, if the frameshift mutation does not introduce a stop codon, then it is possible that a truncated protein could be produced that might still retain some, or all, of its function.
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which of the following is true of melatonin? a it is a sleep hormone released by the pineal gland into the bloodstream. b it alters metabolic and hormonal functioning in ways that mimic aging. c it helps restore and repair brain tissue by increasing the production of free radicals. d production of melatonin during sleep boosts our immune system, which helps us fight off viral infections. e it is produced by the brain during the hypnagogic stage in nrem sleep.
The true of melatonin is A: "it is a sleep hormone, which is released by the pineal gland into the bloodstream".
Melatonin is commonly used as a dietary supplement to help regulate sleep patterns and treat insomnia. It is also used to help reduce symptoms of jet lag, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and shift work sleep disorder. Additionally, melatonin has been researched for its potential use in treating various health conditions, including headaches, depression, and cardiovascular disease.
Therefore, melatonin is a hormone produced by the pineal gland in the brain that helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle by making a person feel drowsy and preparing the body for sleep.
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Analyze how the control system shown below helps cnidarians respond to changes and capture prey.
Answer:
Explanation:
All cnidarians are carnivorous predators. Jellyfish capture small drifting animals with their stinging cnidocyte-filled tentacles. Even the sessile coral polyps and sea anemones are predators ready to sting prey, grasp it in their tentacles, and push it into their mouth.
evolution operates at the population level, not the individual level. why?
Evolution operates at the population level because an individual alone cannot evolve. However individuals in a population vary among themselves and therefore some are more fit than the others. As a result, evolution causes more fit people to survive and form a population of fit individuals.
Evolution is the phenomenon of slow and gradual changes that occur in a population over long durations of time. The process of evolution causes better surviving individuals to carry forward. Evolution causes morphological characters to be enhanced.
Fitness in evolution can be defined as the ability of the individuals to survive in unfavorable environments. The most important trait that defines fitness is the ability to reproduce and give birth to offspring.
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which of the following represents the correct order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology? which of the following represents the correct order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology? systems ecology, ecosystem ecology, population genetics and ecology, and plant geography plant geography, population genetics, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology population genetics, plant geography, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology plant geography, population genetics and ecology, ecosystem ecology, and systems ecology population genetics, systems ecology, ecosystem ecology, and plant geography
The order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology is population genetics, plant geography, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology.
Population genetics looks at the genetic makeup of populations and how it changes over time, as well as how species are adapted to their environments.
Plant geography focuses on the spatial relationship between plants and their surroundings such as their distribution across a landscape.
Systems ecology examines how the components of an ecosystem interact and how changes in one part of the system can have effects throughout.
Ecosystem ecology, meanwhile, studies the flow of energy and materials through an entire ecosystem, from microorganisms to mammals, as well as how ecosystems respond to disturbances and ways to manage them for their health and wellbeing.
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where are the lung in pig get their oxygen from while in the womb
Blood in the fetus is oxygenated in the placenta rather than in the lungs. The umbilical arteries connect the fetus to the placenta.
Fetal breathing occurs 10%-20% of the time during 24-28 weeks of gestation, rising to 30%-40% after 30 weeks. Fetal respiration, which originates in the diaphragm, is irregular in frequency and amplitude and fluctuates during pregnancy. The volume of fluid transported is minimal, and it is inadequate to empty the trachea.
Foetal breathing motions are apparent in humans beginning in the fifteenth week of pregnancy and increasing until the beginning of the third trimester. Breathing motions have been present 30% of the time throughout the previous 10 weeks. Fetal breathing movements (FBM) are critical in lung development because they delay the drainage of fluids from the future airspaces of the lungs, allowing for proper lung expansion.
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A husband has type B blood and his wife has type A blood. The couple has two children: a son with type A blood
and a daughter with type B blood. If the couple has a third child, what blood type(s) might the baby have, and
how likely is each one?
Answer:
it might have a type a because blood type is most likely to have from the mother than the father.There is some chance that the child will have type b but type a is the most likely answer to this problem
tropomyosin is 93 kda and sediments at 2.6 s, whereas, hemoglobin is 65 kda and sediments at 4.3 s. (the sedimentation coefficient s is a linear measure of rate of sedimentation.) how is it that the heavier protein sediments slower than the smaller? sketch your predicted shape for each protein (yes, you could skip right to looking up the answer, but make a prediction first.) give an analogy from everyday experience that you could use to explain what is happening to someone not in science.
Tropomyosin and Hemoglobin are both proteins with different molecular weights, but the same sedimentation coefficient.
This is because the size of the molecule does not always match its sedimentation rate. The shape of the molecules has a lot to do with how quickly they sediment. Tropomyosin is a much larger and more complex protein than Hemoglobin, so it has more folds and twists which slow down its sedimentation rate.
To explain this with an everyday analogy, it would be like two rocks of different sizes being dropped into a pool of water. The heavier rock would take longer to sink to the bottom, even though it is larger and heavier, because it has more air pockets that slow it down.
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Describe the difference in appearance between the chromosomes during prophase in the original cell and the chromosomes in the two new cells in telophase
Answer: It is that The chromosomes in the original cell have been duplicated as so look like X's. These chrome es are split during mitosis to make single chromosomes which look like I's.
Explanation:
2.true or false: always take antibiotics prescribed by your doctor, no matter what organism, viral or bacterial, is causing your illness.
The given statement "always take antibiotics prescribed by a doctor, no matter what organism, bacterial or viral, is causing illness." is false because antibiotics only work against bacterial infections.
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections and taking them for viral infections can lead to antibiotic resistance and decreased efficacy of antibiotics in the future. It is important to follow your doctor's advice and only take antibiotics as prescribed.
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in differential centrifugation, what is the correct order for fraction separation? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a cytosol, membrane, mitochondrial, nuclear b nuclear, membrane, mitochondrial, cytosol c cytosol, mitochondrial, membrane, nuclear d nuclear, mitochondrial, membrane, cytosol e mitochondrial, membrane, nuclear, cytosol
In differential centrifugation, the correct order for fraction separation is (d) nuclear, mitochondrial, membrane, and cytosol.
A method of separation in which the constituents of a cell are separated from one another in a centrifuge based on their respective densities in accordance with the centrifugal force that they are subjected to.
Differential centrifugation is a technique utilized in the field of biochemistry for the purpose of separating cellular organelles and other sub-cellular particles according to the rate at which they sediment. The following is the proper sequence to follow when separating fractions:
Nuclear > Mitochondrial > Membrane > Cytosol.
As a result, the response that should be chosen is B.
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one day after a picnic featuring potato salad and chicken, 10 of the attendees developed diarrhea. two of them became sick enough to be hospitalized. a motile gram-negative rod that was negative for lactose fermentation but positive for h2s production was isolated from stool samples of both patients. which organism is most likely to be the cause of the diarrhea?
The organism that most likely to be the cause of the of the attendees get diarrhea after a picnic featuring potato salad and chicken (a motile gram-negative rod that was negative for lactose fermentation but positive for h2s production was isolated from stool samples of both patients) is Salmonella ser. Typhimurium.
The most common symptoms of Salmonella infection are diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps. Symptoms begin six to six days after infection and last four to seven days. Some people, however, do not experience symptoms for several weeks after infection, whereas others do. Salmonella typhimurium synthesizes H2S from thiosulfate or sulfite.
Salmonella infection is diagnosed when Salmonella bacteria are detected in a person's stool (poop), body tissue, or fluids by a laboratory test.
Most people recover from Salmonella infection in four to seven days without the use of antibiotics. Salmonella patients should drink plenty of fluids for the duration of their diarrhea.
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inhibitor of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase, which glycolytic intermediates would accumulate?
Glycolytic intermediates that would accumulate in the presence of an inhibitor of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase include glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, dihydroxyacetone phosphate, and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) is an enzyme that catalyzes the first step in glycolysis, converting glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG). An inhibitor of GAPDH would cause G3P to accumulate and slow down glycolysis, the process by which cells convert glucose into energy.
The accumulation of G3P would likely be accompanied by a decrease in the production of ATP, the energy currency of cells. The inhibition of GAPDH could have both positive and negative effects on cellular processes, depending on the context and the specific system being studied.
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why is the cell membrane not an absolute barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment?
Since the cell membrane is semipermeable and enables certain things to pass through it to the outside world, it is not a complete wall between the cytoplasm and the outside world.
All cells have a cell membrane, which is the cell's outermost layer. The cell membrane serves two purposes. The first is to prevent the undesired toxins from the surrounding environment from entering the cell.
The second is to expel toxic waste from the cell and absorb nutrients from the surrounding environment.
As a result, we can infer that the cell membrane is semipermeable and that it does not completely separate the cytoplasm of the cell from the outside world.
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Need help like right now!!! (And if you do, Thank you for answering)
Please help me i don’t want to fail this class
Answer: 1. Some trends I see in the data is that the wing length for the surviving finches are .257 mm longer than the Non-survivors, the beak depth for the surviving finches are .079 mm shorter than the Non-Survivors, and the leg length is .021 mm shorter than the Non-Survivors.
2. The measurement that seems to vary the most is the wing length. The wing length is a significantly bigger difference than both the beak depths and leg lengths to the survivors and Non-Survivors.
Explanation: Wasn't sure if you wanted me to answer 3 and 4 since they weren't asked to be answered in the other question without the table but there's the answers for 1 and 2. :)
The message leaves the nucleus and directs the making of polypeptides at the ___
Answer:
ribosomes.
Explanation:
The process of protein synthesis involves two main stages: transcription and translation. In transcription, the DNA sequence in the nucleus is used to create a complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule. This mRNA molecule then leaves the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm, where it binds to a ribosome.
The ribosome is the site of translation, where the mRNA sequence is used to direct the assembly of a polypeptide chain. The ribosome reads the mRNA sequence in groups of three nucleotides, called codons, and matches each codon with the appropriate amino acid. The ribosome then links the amino acids together in the correct order to form a polypeptide chain.
The ribosome is made up of two subunits, a large subunit and a small subunit, which come together around the mRNA molecule. The ribosome also contains three binding sites for tRNA molecules, which are small RNA molecules that carry specific amino acids. The tRNA molecules bind to the ribosome and deliver their amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain, based on the sequence of codons in the mRNA molecule.
Overall, the ribosome plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by providing the site for the assembly of polypeptide chains. The mRNA molecule carries the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where it is used to direct the synthesis of proteins. The ribosome reads the mRNA sequence and matches each codon with the appropriate amino acid, using tRNA molecules to deliver the amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
g which of the following best defines mirnas? coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna. non-coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
b. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. MicroRNAs are 18–24 nucleotide short RNA transcripts that control translational gene expression.
They are among the non-coding RNAs that have been studied the most and are best characterised. By adversely influencing the expression of multiple genes at the mRNA and protein levels, by degrading their mRNA targets, and/or by silencing translation, miRNAs function as tiny guide molecules in RNA silencing. Understanding their role in oncogenesis is one of the most recent developments in the field.MiRNAs are short, single-stranded non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression primarily by binding to sequence motifs found in the untranslated region (UTR) of mRNA transcripts. They are small (19–25 nucleotides long).
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which of the following best defines mirnas?
a.coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna.
b. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna.
c. coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
d. non-coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
you are about to study a bacterial sample under a light microscope. you look into the oculars and see two circles. what adjustments need to be made?
The adjustments that should be made in the light microscope is to adjust the focus knobs on the microscope and adjust the brightness and contrast.
A light microscope is a type of microscope that uses visible light and a system of lenses to magnify and observe samples, such as cells, tissues, or microorganisms. It is a widely used tool in biology and other life sciences for studying the structure and function of micro-objects.
If you look into the oculars and see two circles, you need to adjust the focus knobs on the microscope until the two circles become one sharp circle. You may also need to adjust the brightness and contrast to see the bacteria clearly.
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does each new cell formed by mitosis have the same or diffent chromosomal material as each ohter
Mitosis have the same chromosomal material as each other they will contain the same number of chromosomes as their parent nuclei.
Cell division is the driving process of the reproduction at the cellular level. Most of the eukaryotic cells will divide in a manner where the ploidy or the number of chromosomes will remains the same, except in the case of germ cells where the number of chromosomes will be halved.
Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle where the nucleus of a cell will be divided into two nuclei with an equal amount of genetic material in both the daughter nuclei. It succeeds the G2 phase and is succeeded by the cytoplasmic division after the separation of the nucleus.
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with only 13 loci why is it possible to get millions of possible genotypes
"Most of our DNA is the same as that of other people. However, some parts of our inherited DNA might differ from person to person.
"Polymorphisms" are differences in DNA sequence across individuals. Sequences with the highest degree of polymorphism, as we shall learn in this activity, are particularly helpful for DNA analysis in forensics cases and paternity tests. This activity is based on investigating the inheritance of the "Short Tandem Repeats" (STRs), a group of DNA polymorphisms." STRs are short DNA sequences that are frequently repeated in a head-tail fashion. For example, the 16 bp sequence "gatagatagatagata" would represent 4 head-tail copies of the tetramer "gata." STRs are typically 2 to 5 base pairs in length.
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molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological membranes are called
Molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that forms biological membranes are called Phospholipids (PL).
Phospholipids (PL) are a group of polar lipids that are made up of two fatty acids, a glycerol unit, and a phosphate group that is esterified to an organic molecule (X). Some examples of X include choline, ethanolamine, inositol, and others. Phospholipids are found in the cell membranes of all living organisms.
Phospholipids, which are amphipathic molecules composed of two hydrophobic fatty acid chains connected to a phosphate-containing hydrophilic head group, are the fundamental building blocks of all cell membranes. Phospholipids are also known as phospholipid bilayers.
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