Unlike hard disks, which use magnetic charges to represent 1s and 0s, _____ use reflected light.

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a First Law of thermodynamics problem. We have to remember that the total energy available to a system is constant throughout the whole problem and that energy cannot be created or destroyed. So we need to find the total energy available right at the start. Well it just so happens that we are told that the total energy is 1000J and that it is all potential energy when the sphere is at rest and is 25 m off the ground. If the object isn't moving, all the energy is potential until it starts moving and the energy begins to convert from potential to kinetic a little bit at a time. The thing that we don't know is the mass of the shpere. Begin with the fact that the PE = 1000 (I'm going to se 2 sig fig's since there's only 1 in 1000). If

PE = 1000 and PE = mgh, then

1000 = m(9.8)(25) so

m = 4.1 kg

We also need the height at which this sphere has a PE of 600. Again, if

PE = 600 and PE = mgh, then

600 = (4.1)(9.8)h so

h = 15 Filling in the total energy equation now, using the fact that the total energy available to the system is 1000J:

TE = PE + KE and

1000 = (4.1)(9.8)(15) + [tex]\frac{1}{2}(4.1)v^2[/tex] and we are looking for v.

1000 = 6.0 × 10² + 2.1v² so

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{1000-6.0*10^2}{2.1} }[/tex] and

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{4.0*10^2}{2.1} }[/tex] gives us

v = 14 m/s

Answer:

it's a rule like water !!!!

Explanation:

Most importantly, time appears to run forward always never backwards. in other words there's perceived arrow of time and there's thermodynamic arrow of time, and they always point in a forward direction

for every system there are more states that seem chaotic then states that seem ordered.

the arrow of time seems to have something to do with that tendency. but to get from one instance to another where things get more entropy, we already need some kind of time, gotta admit that.

some (physicists) believe that time is an illusion, that the whole universe is already set in stone, like a block (the idea is therefore called block universe). from the perspective of a godlike outside observer the universe would be like a book, or a 4D movie. the characters might feel a movement of things in a direction, but rewinding it wouldn't feel different in any instance because the order in wich things happen is already written.

a different idea is that there are infinite many different futures and the further they are away, the less we can know for sure about them in a physical way. and this might also be work for the past, so that different parts could lead to one present.

when macroscopic information is deleted, it might not be reversible, so the past gets ultimately blurry. one example for deletion of macroscopic information this is the Library of Alexandria wich burned down.

all the quantum information is still conserved, but the order of things (like letters on pages) is lost and could have been in different configurations before. we can't ultimately not even see the past, as much as we would try.

personally the idea that the past is written in stone but the future is in flux doesn't make any sense for me. because than I could have free will now, but not from the perspective 10 days later.

the present would be a very special thing than, the stage where the universe likes to play.

maybe we can get a grasp on time if we look at it like rules for a game, like a cardboard game.

To get from one configuration to the next ,we must follow rules. like throwing dice and moving in monopoly.

gravity would be a simple real world example for such a rule, a natural law.

But no one would have a firm clue where this rules came from.

TLDR: I don't know and neither does anyone else for sure, not even top notch scientists.

the hardest questions are easy to formulate, but maybe even impossible for us to answer in a satisfying way. I hope we will understand those hard questions better one day, and maybe even get answers.

Answer:

ME= 196.2 J

KE= 136.2

Explanation:

potential energy=mgh 2*9.81*10

Our ME is quivalent to PE as that is the toal amount of energy in the system

Kinetic energy= 1/2 m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]

to solve for kinetic enrgy we need to use a kinaetmtic equation that help us find velocity

vf= vi+at

but we need to find time first

d=vi+1/2(accelretaion)[tex]t^{2}[/tex]

7=0+1/2(9.81)[tex]t^{2}[/tex]

t= 1.19 s

vf= 0+ 9.81*1.19

vf= 11.67 m/s

Now

1/2 m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]

1/2*2*[tex]11.67^{2}[/tex]

= 136. 2

or we could just (PE/10)*7

so (196.2/10)*7

it will hit the ground maybe in like 1 second I guess

Answer:

Its all about figuring out what numbers you times by

Explanation:

soooooooooo just x the numbers until you get it right, and i'm guessing your in a school soooo ask your teacher aswell :)

Answer:

Explanation:

The equation for acceleration is

[tex]a=\frac{v_f-v_0}{t}[/tex] which is the final velocity minus the initial velocity divided by the time. I first need to put the units all in the same terms. We have the velocity given as km/hr, but the time is given in seconds and that's not gonna work. I will change the velocity to km/sec:

[tex]90\frac{km}{hr}*\frac{1hr}{3600s}=.025\frac{km}{s}[/tex] That's the value we will use for the final velocity of this car in the equation for acceleration:

[tex]a=\frac{.025-0}{10}=.0025\frac{km}{s^2}[/tex]

The second part of this problem asks how far the car travels in this 10 seconds. We just determined that the car can travel .025 km in 1 second, so in 10 seconds the car travels 10(.025) = .25 km

Answer:

A vector can be written as:

(R, θ)

Where R is the magnitude, in this case, we know that the magnitude of the displacement is 5m

Then:

R = 5m

and θ defines the direction, it's an angle measured from the positive x-axis.

(In the image, θ would be the angle located at the point A)

Now, if you look at the image, you can see a triangle rectangle.

Where the adjacent cathetus has a length of 4,

the opposite cathetus has a length of 3 units

the hypotenuse has a length of 5 units.

So we can use any trigonometric rule to find the value of θ, like:

sin(θ) = (opposite cathetus)/hypotenuse

Then:

sin(θ) = 3m/5m

Now we can use the inverse sin function, Asin(x), in both sides

Asin( sin(θ)) = θ = Asin( 3/5) = 36.87°

then the vector is:

(5m, 36.87°)

Now, if we define the positive y-axis as the North, and the positive x-axis as the East.

This vector would point at 36.87° North of East.

(or almost Northeast)

Answer:

b

Explanation:

bc

Every living things gives off thermal energy in the form electromagnetic waves. The electromagnetic wave releasing off is  infrared radiation. Hence, option C is correct.  .

Electromagnetic waves are associated with a combined electric field and magnetic field. They can pass through vacuum as well as through a medium. Unlike mechanical waves, all the electromagnetic waves are transverse waves.

The oscillation of particles is in the direction perpendicular to the wave propagation. There are 7 types of  radiations in the electromagnetic spectrum. The light we see is called visible light.

The infrared waves are located in between microwaves and visible light. Every  living thing gives off thermal energy in the form of infrared radiation. Hence, option C is correct.

Find more on infrared waves:

https://brainly.com/question/30309627

#SPJ2

Answer:

[tex]W=7.56\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

The work function for silver is 4.73 eV.

We need to find the value of the work function from electron volts to joules.

We know that,

[tex]1\ eV=1.6\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex]

For 4.73 eV,

[tex]4.73\ eV=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 4.73\\\\=7.56\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex]

So, the work function for silver is [tex]7.56\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex].

Explanation:

average speed is the total distance divided by total time

Answer:1200

Explanation:

F=ma =m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=120(25-5)/2 =1200N

Answer:

[tex]f = m \frac{v1 - v2}{t} \\ = 120 \times \frac{25 - 5}{2} \\ = 120 \times 10 \\ = 1200N \\ thank \: you[/tex]

Answer:

Data given.

focal length (f)=15m÷2=7.5m

Distance of the object(U)=10m

Image distance (v)=?

Magnification (M)=?

Solution:

From:

1/f=1/u+1/v

1/7.5=1/10+1/v=75

then v=75m

Magnification, M=u/v

=75/10=7.5

Then magnification=7.5

Answer:

v = 30 m and m = 3

Explanation:

Given that,

The radius of curvature of the mirror, R = 15 m

Focal length, f = 7.5 m

Object distance, u = -10 m

We need to find the image distance and the magnification of the object.

Using mirror's formula,

[tex]\dfrac{1}{v}-\dfrac{1}{u}=\dfrac{1}{f}\\\\\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{f}+\dfrac{1}{u}\\\\\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{(7.5)}+\dfrac{1}{(-10)}\\\\v=30\ m[/tex]

The magnification of the object in mirror is given by :

[tex]m=\dfrac{-v}{u}\\\\m=\dfrac{-30}{-10}\\\\m=3[/tex]

So, the distance of the image from the mirror and the magnification of the object are 30 m and 3 respectively.

Answer:

the tension of the rope is 34.95 N

Explanation:

Given;

length of the rope, L = 3 m

mass of the rope, m = 0.105 kg

frequency of the wave, f = 40 Hz

wavelength of the wave, λ = 0.79 m

Let the tension of the rope = T

The speed of the wave is given as;

[tex]v = f\lambda = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} } \\\\where;\\\\\mu \ is \ mass \ per \ unit \ length\\\\\mu = \frac{0.105}{3} = 0.035 \ kg/m\\\\v = f\lambda = 40 \times 0.79 = 31.6 \ m/s\\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} } \\\\v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \\\\T = v^2 \mu\\\\T = (31.6^2)(0.035)\\\\T = 34.95 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the tension of the rope is 34.95 N

Answer:

b. they move in convection currents.

Explanation:

i learned this in 4th grade

Answer:

9 seconds

Explanation:

[tex]acceleration = \frac{final \: speed - initial \: speed}{time \: taken} [/tex]

[tex]5km/ hr/ s = \frac{45 - 0 (km/ h)}{t} [/tex]

cross multiplying

[tex]5t = 45 secs \\ t = 9 \: secs[/tex]

it will take 9secs for the car to go from 0 to 45 km/ h

Answer:56

Explanation: I did the test

Answer:

The mass of the other planet is 7.23*10^(30) kg

Explanation:

For two objects of masses m₁ and m₂ respectively, separated by a distance r, the gravitational force between them is given by:

F = G*(m₁*m₂)/r^2

Where G = 6.67*10^(-11) m^3/(kg*s^2)

Here, we know that:

r = 4.5*10^8m

m₁ = 2.1*10^21 kg

F = 5*10^24 N

And we want to find the mass of the other planet, first, let's isolate m₂ in the force equation:

(F*r^2)/(G*m₁) = m₂

Now we can replace all the values that we know in the left side, and solve it:

m₂ =[(5*10^24 N)*( 4.5*10^8m)^2]/[6.67*10^(-11) m^3/(kg*s^2)*2.1*10^21 kg]

m₂ = 7.23*10^(30) kg

The mass of the other planet is 7.23*10^(30) kg

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

The velocity vector is constant in magnitude but changing in direction. Because the speed is constant for such a motion, many students have the misconception that there is no acceleration. ... But the fact is that an accelerating object is an object that is changing its velocity.

Answer:

Our weight on moon is less than it would be on Earth.

Explanation:

Due to a difference of the strength of gravity on the moon. The moon's gravitation force is determined by the mass and the size of the moon. Since the moon has significantly less mass than the Earth, it will not pull objects toward itself at the strength that Earth will. This means that if you went to the moon you would weigh less, even though your mass stays the same.

[tex]\boxed{\large{\bold{\blue{ANSWER~:) }}}}[/tex]

[tex]\sf What \: is \: acceleration? \\ \\ \sf The \: rate \: of \: change \: of \: velocity \: of \: an \\ \sf object \: with \: respect \: to \: time \\ \sf is \: known \: as \: acceleration. [/tex]

Answer:

The answer is "planetesimals".

Explanation:

The uncountable little corpses of the accreted gas and dust were supposed to orbit the Sun while the planets were formed. The theory explaining the creation of the solar system as a whole is termed the quark-gluon plasma hypothesis.

An object produced by dust, rock, and other materials is called a planetesimal. This word is rooted throughout the microscopic idea, which shows that an object is too small to observe or quantify. Everywhere from many meters to hundreds of kilometers asteroids may acquire size.

Answer:

A

Explanation:

We know that impulse(J) is the force times the change in time OR mass times the change in velocity. Because we're given mass and a final and initial velocity, we'll use the second option written as:

mΔv=J

Since Δ means change in, and Δv= vf-vi, we subtract 10 m/s from 15 m/s to get 5 m/s for Δv.  

Now plugging in Δv and m(1,200 kg)

1,200 kg * 5 m/s =J

6000 kg* m/s = J

Answer:

The impulse received by the ball is - 1.561 kg.m/s

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the ball, m = 0.175 kg

initial displacement of the ball, h₁ = 1.25 m

final displacement of the ball, h₂ = 0.805 m

Assumptions:

let the downward direction of the ball be positive

let the upward direction of the ball be negative

The following equation of motion will be used to determine the final velocity of the ball at each displacement.

v² = u² ± 2gh

The final velocity of the ball when it is dropped downwards to 1.25 m;

v² = u² + 2gh

v² = 0 + 2gh

v² = 2gh

v = √2gh

v = √(2 x 9.8 x 1.25)

v = 4.95 m/s

The final velocity of the ball when it rebounds from the floor to 0.805 m;

vf² = u² - 2gh

vf² = 0² - 2gh

vf² =  -2gh

vf = -√2gh

vf = - √(2 x 9.8 x 0.805)

vf = -3.97 m/s

The impulse received by the ball is calculated as;

J = ΔP = mΔv = m(vf - v)

                      = 0.175(-3.97 - 4.95)

                       = - 1.561 kg.m/s

The negative sign indicates upward direction of the impulse.

Explanation:

Given that,

The voltages across them are 40,50 and 60 volts respectively, and the charge on each condenser is 6×10⁻⁸ C.

(a) Capacitance of capacitor 1,

[tex]C_1=\dfrac{Q}{V_1}\\\\C_1=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{40}\\\\C_1=1.5\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_1=1.5\ nF[/tex]

Capacitance of capacitor 2,

[tex]C_2=\dfrac{Q}{V_2}\\\\C_2=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{50}\\\\C_2=1.2\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_2=1.2\ nF[/tex]

Capacitance of capacitor 3,

[tex]C_3=\dfrac{Q}{V_3}\\\\C_3=\dfrac{6\times 10^{-8}}{60}\\\\C_3=1\times 10^{-9}\ F\\\\C_3=1\ nF[/tex]

(b) The equivalent capacitance in series combination is :

[tex]\dfrac{1}{C}=\dfrac{1}{C_1}+\dfrac{1}{C_2}+\dfrac{1}{C_3}\\\\\dfrac{1}{C}=\dfrac{1}{1.5}+\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{1}\\\\C=0.4\ nF[/tex]

Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

9m^3

Explanation:

Given data

volume  v1=  3m^3

volume  v2=  ???

Temperature T1= 20.0°C.

Temperature T2= 60.0°C.

Applying the relation for temperature and volume

V1/T1= V2/T2

substitute

3/20= V2/60

3*60= V2*20

180= 20*V2

180/20= V2

V2= 9m^3

Hence the final volume is 9m^3

Answer:

n sei

Explanation:

n seei

Answer:

i relly need help with points it  whould help if you make me brainliest

Explanation:

Explanation:

The inertia of a 4 kg mass is four times as great as a 1 kg mass.