Four processes—outgassing, evaporation, sublimation, and surface ejection—can help a planet or moon to gain an atmosphere.
1) Outgassing: The release of a gas that has been dissolved, trapped, frozen, or absorbed in a substance is known as outgassing.
The outgassing that took place as the smaller, inner planets cooled down is likely how they acquired their atmospheres (volcanoes).
2) Evaporation : The process of converting anything from a liquid or solid state to vapors is called evaporation (like fog, mist, or steam).
So upon evaporation, water converts into gas and that's how moon gain an atmosphere by evaporation.
3) Sublimation : Converting a solid directly into a gas without first going through a liquid phase.
4)Surface ejection: A surface ejection is a massive discharge of plasma and magnetic field into the heliosphere from the Sun's corona.
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A tentative explanation based on observation is referred to as a hypothesis.
a. true
b. false
Cohesin is cleaved by the enzyme ___________, which is held in an inactive state by ___________ until it is degraded by the apc/c complex
The enzyme separase, which is kept dormant by securin until the APC/C complex degrades it, cleaves cohesin.
Discussion about the enzymes:
At the metaphase-to-anaphase shift, the cysteine protease separase cleaves the Scc1 component of cohesin, signaling the start of chromosome segregation. Prior to metaphase, securin, a firmly bound protein, inhibits separase by blocking the separase enzymatic activity with a pseudosubstrate motif. Therefore, we create a technique for creating cloned, securin-free human separase in order to study the affinity and specificity, and control of separase. We find that the Scc1 substrate has an LPE motif that is different from the catalytic domain and necessary for quick and precise substrate breakdown that uses this enzyme. Researchers show that the retained LPE motif found in securin prevents the separase from binding to the Scc1 LPE motif.Learn more about separase here:
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Which model holds true to explain the synthesis of atp by energy released from electron transport chain?
Chemiosmotic coupling holds true to explain the synthesis of atp by energy released from electron transport chain.
Peter Mitchell suggested that it would be possible to produce ATP by using an electrochemical gradient of protons across a membrane. The process is known as chemiosmosis because he compared it to osmosis, which is the diffusion of water across a membrane. Only a membrane protein known as ATP synthase allows hydrogen ions in the matrix space to pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
ADP is converted into ATP by ATP synthase as protons pass through. Oxidative phosphorylation describes the process by which ATP is produced in mitochondria by chemiosmosis. Proton gradient, ATP synthase, and proton pump are the essential elements required for the chemiosmosis process.
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Which of the following is NOT applicable
in the United States?
A. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
(NOAA)
B. Registration, Evaluation, Authorisation and Restriction
of Chemicals (REACH)
C. National Park Service (NPS)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
What is the arrangement of the phospholipids a substance encounters as it passes through the plasma membrane?
The phospholipids in the plasma membrane are arranged in two layers, called a phospholipid bilayer, with a hydrophobic, or water-hating, interior and a hydrophilic, or water-loving, exterior.
Phospholipids are a class of lipids whose molecule has a hydrophilic "head" containing a phosphate group and two hydrophobic "tails" derived from fatty acids, joined by an alcohol residue (usually a glycerol molecule). Marine phospholipids typically have omega-3 fatty acids EPA and DHA integrated as part of the phospholipid molecule. The phosphate group can be modified with simple organic molecules such as choline, ethanolamine or serine.
Phospholipids are a key component of all cell membranes. They can form lipid bilayers because of their amphiphilic characteristic. In eukaryotes, cell membranes also contain another class of lipid, sterol, interspersed among the phospholipids. The combination provides fluidity in two dimensions combined with mechanical strength against rupture. Purified phospholipids are produced commercially and have found applications in nanotechnology and materials science.
In aqueous solutions, phospholipids are driven by hydrophobic interactions, which result in the fatty acid tails aggregating to minimize interactions with the water molecules. The result is often a phospholipid bilayer: a membrane that consists of two layers of oppositely oriented phospholipid molecules, with their heads exposed to the liquid on both sides, and with the tails directed into the membrane. That is the dominant structural motif of the membranes of all cells and of some other biological structures, such as vesicles or virus coatings.
Phospholipid bilayers are the main structural component of the cell membranes.
In biological membranes, the phospholipids often occur with other molecules (e.g., proteins, glycolipids, sterols) in a bilayer such as a cell membrane. Lipid bilayers occur when hydrophobic tails line up against one another, forming a membrane of hydrophilic heads on both sides facing the water.
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why are silkworm economically importance?
Answer:
The silkworm litter is used for bio-gas production and used as a fuel for cooking in the rural area. Thus sericulture not only provides silk for fashionable clothings, it also provides several very useful bye products to the human society.
If transcription occurred from left to right, what is the second amino acid in the growing polypeptide chain?
Glutamine is the second amino acid in the growing polypeptide chain.
What is glutamine?An amino acid used in the production of proteins is glutamine. Its side chain is comparable to glutamic acid's, with the exception that an amide is used in place of the carboxylic acid group. It is categorized as a polar, charge-neutral amino acid.The body uses glutamine as a building block to create proteins. Additionally, it's required to create glucose and other amino acids. Supplemental glutamine may benefit immune system, gastrointestinal, and other systems, particularly during stressful situations when the body consumes more glutamine.According to recent research, glutamine shouldn't cause you to put on weight. Only lean muscle appears to be impacted by this amino acid, not fat stores. Consuming glutamine as a dietary supplement has no impact on your body's caloric requirements or metabolism.Consuming foods high in glutamine can help you stay healthy. The body's glutamine levels can be increased by eating foods like red cabbage, shellfish, grass-fed beef, eggs, legumes, milk, yogurt, almonds, ricotta cheese, beans, parsley, dark leafy greens, and organ meat.Learn more about glutamine here:
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Which factor can confound neuroprognostication during the post-cardiac arrest phase?
Targeted temperature management factor can confound neuroprognostication during the post-cardiac arrest phase.
What is post cardiac arrest?After a patient has been revived from a cardiac arrest, they may experience post-cardiac arrest syndrome, an inflammatory condition of pathophysiology. The body goes through a special kind of global ischemia during cardiac arrest.Global brain damage, myocardial failure, macrocirculatory dysfunction, increased susceptibility to infection, and persisting precipitating pathology are all symptoms of the clinical condition known as post-cardiac arrest syndrome.These effects, which include movement issues, memory loss or impairment, speech difficulties, weakness or immobility, and cognitive impairments including problems with attention, focus, and visual-motor skills, may be permanent or they may get better with time.Care after a cardiac arrest requires a variety of management techniques. To diagnose and treat coronary artery obstructive disease, early invasive coronary angiography should be taken into consideration. The primary shock treatment involves vasopressors like norepinephrine and dobutamine.Learn more about cardiac arrest here:
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Nevus, also known as a mole, is a small dark skin growth that develops from melanocytes in the skin. _____ are atypical (meaning abnormal) moles that can develop into skin cancers.
Nevus, also known as a mole, is a small dark skin growth that develops from melanocytes in the skin. dysplastic nevi are atypical (meaning abnormal) moles that can develop into skin cancers.
These are unusual-looking moles that have formless features when observed under a microscope and their presence means that there is an increased risk of melanoma.
What is a Skin Disease?This refers to the growths on the skin that is caused by foreign substances and develops into melanocytes.
Hence, we can see that dysplastic nevi are atypical (meaning abnormal) moles that can develop into skin cancers.
They can appear benign but they are abnormal and they have formless features when observed under a microscope and their presence means that there is an increased risk of melanoma.
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In an isolated population of 1000 individuals, 444 are genotype mn, 478 are mm, and 78 are nn. What are the frequencies of the m and n alleles in this population?.
f(M) = 0.7, f(N) = 0.3 are the frequencies of the m and n alleles in this population.
What is the relative fitness of genotype BB What is the relative fitness of genotype BB?
A relative fitness of 1.0 can occur for more than one genotype. B. The relative fitness of genotype BB in a population of chickens used as a sample is 1.0. The selection coefficients for genotype Bb and genotype Bb are respectively 0.3 and 0.4.Which of the following processes tends to increase genetic variation in a population?
Genetic diversity is typically increased by mutations while being decreased by the other three mechanisms. Migration tends to homogenize genetic variation, reducing the genetic diversity between populations, whereas natural selection and genetic drift tend to increase it.Where are alleles?
Alleles are matching genes; one from our biological mother, one from our biological father. We have two copies of every gene (strings of code that drive some biological function on our chromosomes). They can be identical, but they can often have slight differences.Learn more about alleles
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What city occupies a relatively flat drainage divide between the indus and ganges plains. The two most productive agricultural areas of india?
Delhi is located on a strip of relatively level land that separates the Indus and Ganges rivers. In terms of agriculture, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh are India's two most productive regions.
The drainage system of India:
The Indo-Brahma river is believed to have split into 3 primary draining structures and systems-
the Ganges as well as its Himalaya counterparts in the center.the Indus and its 5 branches in the west; and the Assamese section of the Brahmaputra as well as its branches in the east.The disruption that occurred during the Pleistocene epoch in the western Himalayas, namely the elevation of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which served also as a hydrological divide between Indus and Ganga drainage facilities, is most likely what caused the fragmentation. The Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers were also redirected to flowing toward this Bay of Bengal due to the mid-Pleistocene down thrusting of the Malda gap region in between Rajmahal ranges and the Meghalaya plains.
Agriculture areas:
In India, West Bengal produces the most food grains. It is renowned for producing rice. The entire amount of rice produced in West Bengal is 146.05 lakh tonnes, with a yield of 2600 kilos per hectare. It falls under India's states that produce rice. Producing fruits including mangoes, litchi, papaya, pineapple, and citrus is a business in West Bengal.As the main agricultural region of India, Uttar Pradesh ranks well when it regards the cultivation of important Indian state-level crops including wheat bran, maize, sucrose, agricultural goods, and numerous others. It is among the top states of India for grain production. The greatest center for sugarcane production in the world is Uttar Pradesh, where it is also the most widely grown crop.Learn more about the Ganges here:
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What is the name of the control mechanism that is used to ensure that all necessary information for a transaction has been entered?
Completeness control - The aim is to make sure that the accounting records don't contain any legitimate transactions that have been missed so as to avoid the risk of the company's assets being inflated.
The criterion for data in a software system is whether the data is accurate or inaccurate, or whether it leads to accurate information, Accurate information leads to accurate decision-making, which in turn leads to agreements, stability, and solid management (in a non-profit framework) or a competitive edge (in a for-profit framework).
It is a crucial component of all data handling tasks, whether you are gathering data on the ground, processing data, or getting ready to deliver data to stakeholders. Your results won't be accurate if your data is inaccurate from the start. For this reason, data must be verified and checked before use. To minimize any project flaws, data must be analyzed for quality, clarity, and specificity. Without data analysis, you run the danger of making judgments based on faulty data that is not truly representative of the current situation.
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During which process does mrna bind to ribosomes, allowing a protein to be made?
Answer:
Translation
Explanation:
During translation, mRNA arrives at a ribosome. Within the ribosome, the mRNA temporarily binds to tRNA's via complementation. The tRNA's are responsible for gathering the relevant amino acids and creating a new protein.
Bacteria that release a toxin that forms a pore in red blood cells leading to hemolysis are using ___ to gain access to the nutrients inside the erythrocyte.
Bacteria that release a toxin that forms a pore in red blood cells leading to hemolysis are using an alpha toxin to gain access to the nutrients inside the erythrocyte.
The best characterized and most potent membrane-damaging toxin of Staphylococcus aureus is α-toxin. It is expressed as a monomer that binds to the membrane of susceptible cells.
In humans, platelets and monocytes are specifically sensitive to α-toxin. They bear high affinity sites which allow the toxin to bind at concentrations that are physiologically relevant. A complex series of secondary reactions follow, leading to the release of eicosanoids and cytokines which in turn trigger the production of inflammatory mediators. These events cause the symptoms of septic shock that occur during severe infections caused by S. aureus.
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Barbara mcclintock examined the mechanism for the appearance of purple spots in the kernels of yellow and white corn. She attributed the spots to?
Barbara Mcclintock examined the mechanism for the appearance of purple spots in the kernels of yellow and white corn. She attributed the spots to transposable elements(TE) or jumping genes.
McClintock studied the so-called Ac/Ds system in maize, which she learned about by carrying out conventional genetic breeding experiments with a peculiar phenotype. Through these tests, McClintock discovered that breakage happened at particular locations on the maize chromosomes.
She did, in fact, find the first transposable element (TE) at the aptly termed "dissociation" location of chromosome breakage (Ds). McClintock initially observed that the movements of Ds are controlled by an autonomous element called "activator" (Ac), which may also promote its own transposition. She later discovered that some TEs could "jump" autonomously.
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Which cranial nerve pair has two sensory branches which both pass through the internal acoustic meatus?
VIII cranial nerve pair has two sensory branches which both pass through the internal acoustic meatus.
A unique somatic afferent nerve is cranial nerve VIII. The vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve make up its two components. Hearing is made possible by the cochlear portion, while balance and movement are mediated by the vestibular portion.
Both pieces come together to form the vestibulocochlear nerve, which exits the body of the skull through the internal acoustic meatus. Therefore, The auditory vestibular nerve, sometimes referred to as the vestibulocochlear nerve or CN VIII, is a cranial nerve that travels from the inner ear to the brain carrying information about balance and sound.
Therefore, VIII cranial nerve pair has two sensory branches which both pass through the internal acoustic meatus.
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What type of microorganism can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell?
Answer: Viruses
Explanation:
Viruses are tiny infectious agents that rely on living cells to multiply. They may use an animal, plant, or bacteria host to survive and reproduce.
A respiratory device involving a surgical opening in the neck into the trachea is:________.
Answer:
A tracheostomy
Explanation:
A tracheostomy is an opening created at the front of the neck so a tube can be inserted into the windpipe (trachea) to help you breathe. If necessary, the tube can be connected to an oxygen supply and a breathing machine called a ventilator.
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The prostate, seminal glands, and bulbo-urethral glands produce __________, the liquid medium in which sperm leaves the body.
The prostate, seminal glands, and bulbo-urethral glands produce Seminal fluid, the liquid medium in which sperm leaves the body.
What is Seminal fluid?The seminal vesicles and prostate gland make a whitish fluid called seminal fluid, which combines with sperm to form semen when a male is sexually stimulated.Fluid from seminal cysts is thick. It contains fructose, citric acid, proteins, potassium, inorganic phosphorus, and prostaglandins. When the fluid incorporates with sperm in the ejaculatory duct, the fructose evolves the direct source of energy for the sperm outside a man's body.semen, also named seminal fluid, is fluid that is ejected from the male reproductive tract and includes sperm cells, which are competent for fertilizing the female's eggs. Semen also prevents liquids that connect to form seminal plasma, which helps keep the sperm cells possible.To learn more about Seminal fluid, refer to:
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The graph demonstrates the quantitative variation for skin pigmentation.
A bar graph has skin pigmentation color on the horizontal axis and Proportion of population on the vertical axis. From lightest to darkest skin colors, the proportions are: 1/64, 6/64, 15/64, 20/64, 15/64, 6/64, 1/64.
Which conclusion is supported by the graph?
More than half of the population has the central skin pigmentation.
The lightest and the darkest skin pigmentations are equally common in the population.
The central skin pigmentation makes up more of the population than the rest of the skin pigmentation groups combined.
Fewer people have skin pigmentation lighter than the central peak than people who have pigmentation darker than the central peak.
The graph demonstrates the quantitative variation for skin pigmentation and concludes that the lightest and the darkest skin pigmentations are equally common in the population.
Why are the lightest and darkest skin pigmentations equal ?Human skin can be any shade of brown, from the deepest to the palest. Variation in pigmentation, which is brought on by genetics (inherited from one's biological parents and/or specific gene alleles), exposure to the sun, natural and sexual selection, or any combination of these, is what gives people their different skin tones. Natural or sexual selection, social norms, varying environments, and laws governing the biochemical consequences of ultraviolet radiation penetrating the skin all contributed to population changes over time.Here, the ratios of lightest to darkest pigmentation is gives as 1/64 + 6/64 + 15/64 + 20/64 + 15/64 + 6/64 + 1/64 Therefore, we get 64/64 so hereby we can conclude that the lightest and the darkest skin pigmentations are equally common in the population.What is skin pigmentation?Your skin's color is referred to as skin pigmentation. It is determined by the quantity and kind of melanin, a pigment produced by specialized skin cells called melanocytes. Pigment disorders like hyperpigmentation (dark spots), hypopigmentation (light spots), and depigmentation can be brought on by changes in melanin production.Can learn more about skin pigmentation from https://brainly.com/question/23723742
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The energy content and biomass of ________ is lowest in any terrestrial food web.
The energy content and biomass of the top carnivore is the lowest in any terrestrial food web.
The terrestrial food web connects all land animals, from the smallest soil bacteria to the largest forest beasts. The relationships between herbivores (animals that consume plants), scavengers (animals that consume dead animals or plants), and decomposers are investigated by ecologists at SERC.
Write down the principal producers, herbivores, omnivores, and predators for the selected habitat to establish a terrestrial food web. Arrows that depict a predator and prey are used to connect them. The finished product can resemble a food web or map. The tundra, taigas, temperate deciduous woods, tropical rainforests, grasslands, and deserts are a few examples of the terrestrial food web.
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Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?
The genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases in known as mutation.
A mutation is a change in a brief section of a genome's nucleotide sequence. Another frequently replaces one nucleotide in point mutations; other changes involve the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides.
Errors in DNA replication or the harmful effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation, which react with DNA and alter the architecture of individual nucleotides, are the leading causes of mutations.
DNA repair enzymes are present in all cells and work to reduce the frequency of mutations. These enzymes reduce genetic information loss, double-strand break formation, and DNA crosslinking by repairing DNA damage.
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research on dengue virus according to biological method
Answer:
diagnose dengue, including detection of the dengue virus, viral RNA, viral antigens, and antibodies against the virus in the patient's blood or tissues (Figure 1). The virus can be detected in the blood for only four to five days after the onset of symptoms.Which of the options is not a general requirement for complex multicellular life?
a. Cells must retain a full range of functions, including reproduction s not a general requirement for complex multicellular life
Cell motility, cell contact, cell specialization, and cell proliferation are the four fundamental processes that create a multicellular organism. All of these activities take place simultaneously in a developing embryo in a myriad of different ways throughout the body.Complex multicellular organisms exhibit signs of intercellular communication, cell-cell adhesion, and, frequently, tissue development driven by regulatory gene networks. Many of these taxa experience intentional cell death, but unprogrammed cell or tissue loss can be fatal—possibly more so in metazoans than in other species with permanent stem cells.Hence other options except a are required for complex multicellular life.learn more about complex multicellular life here: https://brainly.com/question/11801282
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DISCLAIMER
Which of the following is not a general requirement for complex multicellular life?
a. Cells must retain a full range of functions, including reproduction.
b. Cells must stick together.
c. Cells must communicate with one another.
d. Cells must participate in a network of genetic interactions that regulate cell division.
e. All of these options are requirements for complex, multicellular life.
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During a college fraternity party, neil mixes xanax, a central nervous system depressant, with alcohol and loses consciousness. this effect is known as _____.
During a college fraternity party, Neil mixes Xanax, a central nervous system depressant, with alcohol and loses consciousness. this effect is known as a synergistic effect
When two or more processes work together, a synergistic effect is created that is greater than the sum of the effects that each process would have on its own. Skin damage brought on by both tobacco smoke and UV rays is more severe than skin damage brought on by either one on its own. Another illustration is the science class project "baking soda volcano."
When two or more drugs interact synergistically, the combined effect of the drugs is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each drug. Synergistic effects can be advantageous or detrimental.
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Which substance helps the most in the digestion of food? enzymes chyme viruses hormones
Enzymes is the right answer
Substance that helps the most in the digestion of food is enzymes.
What are enzymes?Enzymes are proteins that aid in accelerating our bodies' chemical reactions, or metabolism.Some compounds are created, while others are broken down. Enzymes are a part of all living things. Enzymes are created by our bodies spontaneously.Examples of digestive enzymes:Amylase:generated in the mouth. Smaller sugar molecules are formed from the breakdown of larger starch molecules.Pepsin:Pepsin is produced in the stomach. Pepsin aids in the amino acid breakdown of proteins.Trypsin:The pancreas produces trypsin. Proteins are also broken down by trypsin.Lipase:The pancreas produces pancreatic lipase. It is employed to separate fats.Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease:The pancreas makes ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease. In nucleic acids like DNA and RNA, these enzymes are responsible for rupturing bonds.What are the four roles that enzymes play?Numerous biological processes, including development, blood clotting, disease treatment, respiration, digestion, reproduction, and many more, are aided by enzymes.Enzymes play important roles in a variety of biological processes in living things.To learn more about enzymes visit:
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If you do an ames test on a substance and the results show many bacteria colonies growing, what does this indicate?
If in an Ames test the result with many bacteria colonies growing indicates that the chemical that is being tested is a mutagen.
Any physical or chemical agent that has the ability to alter an organism's genetic makeup and result in a mutation is referred to as a mutagen.
The Ames test is a biological experiment used to evaluate a chemical compound's potential for mutagenicity. It makes use of bacteria to examine whether a specific chemical can result in DNA alterations in the test organism. Bruce N. Ames created the test in the 1970s.
A large number of colonies indicates that the chemical has caused alterations in the genetic material of the bacteria. Since cancer is frequently linked to mutation, a positive test result will suggest that the substance is mutagenic and so may serve as a carcinogen but not necessarily.
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A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral dna into the host chromosome is.
A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is lysogenic cycle.
What is Lysogenic cycle?For viral entry and replication within cells, the lysogenic cycle is a complement to the lytic cycle. While both bacterial phages and animal viruses share the lytic cycle, animal viruses are more likely to exhibit the lysogenic cycle.
The stages of the lysogenic cycle are as follows:
The viral genome invades the cell The viral genome merges with the host cell's genome. The host cell's DNA When a cell divides, virus chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells by the polymerase. The viral genome separates from the host cell's DNA and enters stage 2 of the lytic cycle at any time the virus is "activated".Learn more about Lysogenic cycle here:
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A ddntp is often used in the sanger sequencing process. Compared to the normal dna precursors, ddntps lack a(n)___________ at the _____________ carbon
The ddNTP lacks the oxygen atom at 3' carbon in addition to at the 2'carbon which is lacking in the dNTP.
What is Sanger sequencing?It is a chain termination method developed by Frederick Sanger and colleagues in 1977.
The process to determine the sequence of nucleotide bases in a part of a DNA molecule is called DNA sequencing. In the process of Sanger sequencing, the DNA molecule to be sequenced is copied multiple times by using polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
This creates DNA fragments of different lengths. Fluorescent labelled dideoxynucleotides are then used to terminate further chain formation.
This process marks the end of fragments and allows sequence determination. Therefore, a ddNTP is used in the Sanger Sequencing process. Compared to the normal DNA precursors, ddNTP lacks oxygen at the 3' carbon.
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The diagram below shows an ornithiscian dinosaur, an ancient bird called archaeopteryx, and the modern day bird.
Based on the diagram, which of these statements is most likely correct?
A) Modern day birds have evolved from dinosaurs.
B) Archaeopteryx has evolved from modern day birds.
C) Ornithiscian dinosaurs had evolved from modern day birds.
D) Ornithiscian dinosaurs had evolved from the archaeopteryx.
Answer: option A is the correct answer
Explanation:
Answer:
Option A is the correct answer
Explanation:
Look at the diagram
