The symbol is typically used to represent the life cycle of a multicellular organism. It is drawn this way to depict the various stages of the life cycle, including the spore, the sporophyte, the multicellular organism, the cell with cytoskeleton, and the nucleus with chromosomes.
What is cytoskeleton?The cytoskeleton is an intricate network of protein filaments that extend throughout the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. It provides structural support, helps to maintain cell shape, anchors organelles and other proteins within the cell, and serves as a track for cellular transport. The cytoskeleton consists of three main types of filaments: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules.
The spore is drawn as a single cell to distinguish it from gametes, which are also single-celled. The sporophyte is drawn as many spores to represent the many spores it contains. The multicellular organism is drawn to show the many cells that make up the organism. The cell with the cytoskeleton is drawn to show the microtubules contained within the cell. Finally, the nucleus with chromosomes is drawn to show two sets of chromosomes, making it diploid.
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Which of the statements is true regarding glycine? R=H a. Glycine is a polar amino acid. b. Glycine is a large amino acid. c. Glycine is an asymmetric amino acid.
d. Glycine increases the flexibility of the peptide backbone.
It is true that glycine makes the peptide backbone more flexible.
In addition to its multiple functions as an antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, cryoprotective, and immunomodulatory substance in peripheral and neurological tissues, glycine functions as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Schizophrenia, stroke, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and several uncommon inherited metabolic disorders are all treated with glycine.
Additionally, it is used to shield the liver from the damaging effects of alcohol and the kidneys from the detrimental side effects of several medications used following organ transplantation. Glycine is an amino acid that supports cellular development and health. One of the amino acids necessary for the body to produce the antioxidant glutathione is glycine. In order to combat free radicals, which can otherwise lead to oxidative stress and harm cells, proteins, and DNA, cells create glutathione.
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if an herbicide blocked the calvin cycle before the generation of g3p, what would happen? please refer to the following art to answer the following question. the figure shows the calvin cycle. an enzyme adds each co2 to a five-carbon sugar called rubp. that breaks molecule into two three-carbon molecules. using energy from the light reactions, enzymes convert each three-carbon molecule to the three-carbon sugar g3p. for every three molecules of co2 that enter the cycle, the net output is one g3p sugar. the other g3p sugars continue in the cycle. using energy from atp, enzymes rearrange the remaining g3p sugars to regenerate rubp. if an herbicide blocked the calvin cycle before the generation of g3p, what would happen? no oxygen would be released by the plant. only rubp would be recycled. the plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less. no sugar would be made by the plant.
If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of G3P, Option D: no sugar would be made by the plant, is true.
In order to FIX carbon from CO2 into three-carbon sugars, plants go through a chain of chemical processes known as the Calvin cycle. In turn, amino acids, nucleotides, and more complex sugars like starches can be made from the three-carbon sugars. In contrast to ATP, which is immediately depleted after creation, plants employ the sugars produced in the Calvin cycle to store energy over the long term.
The Calvin cycle's primary job is to produce three-carbon sugars, which are then utilised to make other sugars including glucose, starch, and cellulose.
Therefore, no sugar would be produced by the plant if a herbicide prevented the Calvin cycle from starting before the production of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).
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Correct question is:
If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be true?
A) The plant would need more carbon dioxide
B) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less.
C) No oxygen would be released by the plant.
D) No sugar would be made by the plant.
E) Only RuBP would be recycled.
Collecting vessels are formed by the uniting or convergence of several lymphatic ___- capillaries- respiratory pump- skeletal muscle pump- valves
Collecting vessels are formed by the convergence of several lymphatic capillaries, which are small, thin-walled vessels that are found in most tissues throughout the body.
Lymphatic capillaries are made up of overlapping endothelial cells that allow for the entry of interstitial fluid, along with any foreign particles or microorganisms present in the fluid, into the lymphatic system. These capillaries then converge to form larger lymphatic vessels, which ultimately lead to the lymph nodes and lymphatic ducts. The collecting vessels function to transport lymphatic fluid, which contains immune cells and waste products, away from the tissues and toward the circulatory system for eventual elimination from the body.
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Is fiber a monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide? What is it found in? What is it made up of?i
Many plant-based foods, such as fruits, and vegetables, include fibre, an indigestible carbohydrate. Starch, modified starch, resistant starch, and fibre are all members of the polysaccharides category. The chemical structure of sugar alcohols, also known as polyols.
Is fiber a carbohydrate?Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes are the main sources of fibre. It aids in maintaining regularity, but it also has numerous other health advantages, especially for those who have diabetes or prediabetes.Unlike dietary fibre, functional fibre needs to be shown to provide a physiological advantage. The presence of beta-glycosidic linkages in polysaccharide fibre distinguishes it from other polysaccharides (as opposed to alpha-glycosidic bonds).Examples of monosaccharides include glucose, fructose, and galactose; disaccharides include sucrose, lactose, and maltose; and polysaccharides include starch and fibre. Sugars, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides are the three main types of carbohydrates.
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Why are Archaea considered a monophyletic group according to the three-domain hypothesis ? Because this group includes all organisms except eukaryotes. Because this group evolved after the origin of bacteria. Because this group includes an ancestral population and all of its descendants. Because all members of this group lack membrane-bound organelles.
Considering that this group consists of the ancestral population and all of its offspring.
What is monophyletic group?
A clade, or monophyletic group, is a collection of organisms that has a common ancestor and all of its offspring. The definition of monophyletic groups is based on their evolutionary links, and they can be located by looking at genetic and morphological evidence. All members of a monophyletic group exhibit a set of derived traits that are unique to that group and reflect their shared evolutionary history. A hierarchical categorization of organisms can be created by nesting smaller monophyletic groups inside of larger monophyletic groups. The relationship between various groups of organisms and their evolutionary history are understood through the notion of monophyly, which is crucial to evolutionary biology.
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Systematists have used a wide variety of traits (characters) to reconstruct the phylogenies of particular groups of organisms. Which of the following types of characters are used to estimate a phylogeny?
a. amino acid sequence characters
b. behavioral characters
c. morphological characters and DNA sequence characters
d. DNA sequence characters
e. morphological characters
There are different types of characters that can be used to estimate a phylogeny, including morphological characters, DNA sequence characters, and behavioral characters. So the correct option is b,d,e.
Morphological characters are traits related to the physical structure of an organism, such as the shape of the body, the number of limbs, or the presence of certain structures. Behavioral characters are traits related to the behavior of an organism, such as mating behavior, feeding behavior, or social behavior.
DNA sequence characters are traits related to the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of an organism. These characters are particularly useful for estimating phylogenies because they can provide very precise information about the evolutionary relationships among organisms.
There are different types of DNA sequence characters, such as mitochondrial DNA, ribosomal RNA, and protein-coding genes. Amino acid sequence characters are a subset of DNA sequence characters that are related to the sequence of amino acids in proteins.
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phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis are all involved in the process of ________?
Endocytosis, the uptake of substances into a cell. There are three main types of endocytosis: phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Endocytosis is a cellular process that allows cells to take in substances from the surrounding environment. Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of large particles or organisms, such as bacteria, by cells. Pinocytosis is the uptake of small amounts of fluid, including dissolved substances. Receptor-mediated endocytosis involves the binding of specific molecules to cell surface receptors, which then triggers the internalization of the molecules into the cell. All three types of endocytosis are important for cells to take in nutrients, eliminate waste, and respond to changes in their environment.
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which group of macromolecules is gluten classified as?
Gluten is classified as a protein, which is one of the four main macromolecules along with carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids.
Gluten is a type of protein, which is one of the four main macromolecules or biomolecules found in living organisms. Specifically, gluten is a mixture of two proteins called glutenin and gliadin, which are found in wheat and related grains such as barley and rye.
Proteins are composed of long chains of amino acids, which are held together by peptide bonds. The sequence of amino acids in a protein determines its unique structure and function. Gluten is known for its unique properties, including its ability to form a network of protein strands that give the dough its elasticity and ability to rise.
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in hhs, laboratory results are similar to those in dka ,but with three major exceptions. what do you expect to see in hhs? a. lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis b. lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and minimal ketosis c. higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis d. higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and minimal ketosis
Alterations in consciousness, ranging from confusion or disorientation to coma, are the main sign of a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. These conditions are typically brought on by severe dehydration, hyperglycemia, and hyperosmolality.
The following list of signs and symptoms may indicate hyperosmolar hyperglycemia status (HHS):
at least 600 mg/dL of plasma glucoseat least 320 mOsm/kg of effective serum osmolalitydehydration that is severe, up to an average of 9 LMore than 7.30 for serum pHMore than 15 mEq/L of bicarbonate are present in the solution.Ketonemia nonexistent to low with little ketonuriasome consciousness-related changewith or without prerenal azotemia. Contrary to diabetic ketoacidosis, temporary hemiplegia, widespread or focalized seizures, and seizures may ensue.Learn more about hyperglycemia here:
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When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower of the same plant, the pollination is referred to as
A. geitonogamy
B. autogamy
C. allogamy
D. xenogamy
The correct option is A. Geitonogamy
Geitonogamy refers to the movement of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another blossom on the same plant.
The process of moving pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of a pistil is known as pollination. It is a method of bringing non-motile male and female gametes together for fertilisation. Self-pollination is the pollination process in which pollen grains from the anther combine with the stigma of the same flower or a different blossom on the same plant.
Autogamy and geitonogamy are the two types of self-pollination. Geitonogamy is the movement of pollen grains from one flower's anther to the stigma of another on the same plant. This transmission is aided by a pollinating agent. Because the pollen grains are derived from the same plant, it is genetically equivalent to autogamy.
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What main class of organic compounds are enzymes in?
Enzymes are a sort of protein that acts as a biological catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions.
They are a significant class of chemical substances that fall under the macromolecule umbrella, along with lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates. Amino acids, which are tiny molecules that combine in various ways to make bigger proteins, are the building blocks of enzymes.
An enzyme's distinctive activity and capacity to interact with other molecules in the body are determined by the precise amino acid sequence that makes up the enzyme. Many of the body's biochemical activities, including digestion, metabolism, and energy generation, depend on enzymes.
Additionally, they have a role in DNA replication, cell signalling, and the synthesis of several hormones and enzymes. Many of the chemical processes that take place in the body would be excessively sluggish or not take place at all without enzymes.
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the destruction of the fibrin of a blood clot is called___-Fibrinolysis.-Plasmin-Thrombus-Embolus
The destruction of the fibrin of a blood clot is called Fibrinolysis.
Fibrinolysis is the process through which blood clots are prevented from forming and becoming harmful. Primary fibrinolysis is a natural bodily activity, whereas secondary fibrinolysis is the breakdown of clots caused by a medication, a medical issue, or another factor. A fibrin clot, the product of coagulation, is broken down during fibrinolysis. Its major enzyme, plasmin, breaks the fibrin mesh at numerous points, resulting in circulating pieces that are removed by other proteases or the kidney and liver.
The formation of a blood clot, known as a thrombus, within a blood vessel is referred to as thrombosis. It hinders regular blood flow through the circulatory system. Thrombosis is a potentially fatal condition that can affect anyone of any age, race, gender, or ethnicity. The body's first line of defence against bleeding is blood clotting, often known as coagulation. When we injure ourselves, our coagulation system generates a "plug" or "seal" to keep us from bleeding too much. Our bodies usually break down the clot once we've healed, however clots might form incorrectly or fail to dissolve after an injury. A thrombus is a blood clot that forms and remains in a blood vessel.
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What is a major role for the 3 UTR in mRNA?
3' untranslated regions (3' UTRs) of mRNAs works as hubs for post-transcriptional control that targets the microRNAs (miRNAs) and RNA-binding proteins (RBPs).
In general , the Sequences in 3' UTRs goes for alterations in mRNA stability, helps in mRNA localization to various subcellular regions, and impart translational control. Hence , The 3' untranslated regions (3' UTRs) of mRNAs works as a hubs for purpose of post-transcriptional modification and control.
Also , the 3′ UTRs region is responsible for regulating the local protein synthesis in dendrites and synapses .While during addition in spatial organization of protein production, 3′ UTRs works as an regulators of temporal protein production.
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compare and contrast stomata with the pores found in liverworts.
Answer:
Compare and contrast stomata with the pores found in liverworts. Stomata allow CO2 to diffuse and can close to minimize water loss. Liverwort pores allow gas exchange and cannot be closed if conditions become dry. if this not right i'm sorry
Explanation:
What ion enters a neuron causing depolarization of the cell membrane? a. sodium b. chloride c. potassium d. phosphate.
When voltage-gated sodium channels open, positively charged sodium ions flood into a neuron, resulting in depolarization. The correct option to this question is A
Depolarisation Different ions that pass the neuron membrane result in action potentials. Sodium channels first open in response to a stimuli. Because the inside of the neuron is negative in comparison to the exterior and there are much more sodium ions on the inside, sodium ions rush within the cell.The entry of sodium and calcium ions, which happens as a result of membrane channels opening, causes the depolarization.A sharp increase in membrane potential that opens sodium channels in the cellular membrane and causes a significant influx of sodium ions causes depolarization.For more information on action potential kindly visit to
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2. Economic systems
a. Do not depend on limited natural resources
b. Rarely balance the costs and benefits of every
action
c. Should not include the costs of pollution with the
costs of an action
d. Must operate within the environment
Economic systems must operate within the environment. Therefore, option D is correct.
What are economic systems?The system of economic activities including production, consumption, and investment that predominate in a given region is referred to as the economic system.
Every economy operates under a certain set of conditions and presumptions. Traditional economies, command economies, mixed economies, and market economies are the four primary types of economic systems.
Economic systems must operate within the environment. Therefore, option D is correct.
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what is an environmental agent that significantly increases the rate of mutation above the spontaneous rate called? tautomer mutagen transposon missense agent ames agent
An environmental agent that significantly increases the rate of mutation above the spontaneous rate is called mutagen.
A mutagen is a substance that can cause DNA mutations by chemical or physical means. Tobacco products, radioactive compounds, x-rays, ultraviolet radiation, and a wide range of chemicals are a few examples of mutagens. DNA mutations that cause or support the development of some diseases can result from exposure to a mutagen.
The following are the impacts of mutagens: DNA is altered by mutagens, which can result in issues with transcription, replication, and, in severe situations, cell death. Chromosome breakages and rearrangements including translocation, deletion, and inversion can be brought on by strong mutagens that produce chromosomal instability. Certain mutagens can result in aneuploidy, which is a change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
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What is the correct order of the exocytosis or secretion pathway?A. rough ER, endosome, Golgi, smooth ERB. rough ER, Golgi, smooth ER, plasma membraneC. smooth ER, rough ER, exocytosis, GolgiD. rough ER, Golgi, transport vesicle, plasma membraneE. rough ER, Golgi, endosome, plasma membrane, transport vesicle
The correct order of the exocytosis or secretion pathway is rough ER, Golgi, transport vesicle, plasma membrane. The correct option to this question is D.
Sequence The endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, or early endosomes are typical locations where vesicles develop. To the cell membrane, the vesicle moves. Both bilayers are combined as the vesicle and plasma membrane fuse. The vesicle's material spills out into the extracellular area.There are five steps in exocytosis, and they all culminate in the vesicle's attachment to the cell membrane. The release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft and the release of enzymes into the blood are two examples of the many biological processes that involve exocytosis.Exocytosis, which occurs when secretory vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane, causes the release of vesicle content into the extracellular space and the incorporation of fresh proteins and lipids into the plasma membrane.For more information on exocytosis kindly visit to
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2. the horns of gray matter on one side of the cord contain large motor neuron cell bodies, similar to the motor neurons you examined in activity 1. are these cells located in the dorsal or ventral horns of the cord?
The large motor neuron cell bodies are typically located in the ventral horns of the gray matter in the spinal cord.
The ventral horns contain the cell bodies of motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles and are responsible for voluntary movement of the body. The dorsal horns, on the other hand, contain sensory neurons that receive information from sensory receptors in the body and transmit it to the brain. So, in general, the ventral horns of the gray matter in the spinal cord contain motor neurons, while the dorsal horns contain sensory neurons.A neuron is a specialized cell that transmits information in the nervous system. Neurons are the basic building blocks of the nervous system and are responsible for processing and transmitting information between different parts of the body and the brain.
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why are natural killer cells considered to be part of the innate immune response?
Natural killer (NK) cells are considered to be part of the innate immune response because they are able to respond quickly to a wide variety of pathogens and abnormal cells without prior exposure to them. This is in contrast to the adaptive immune response, which involves the activation and proliferation of antigen-specific T and B cells.
NK cells are able to recognize and eliminate infected or abnormal cells, such as those infected with viruses or cancer cells, through a process called "cell-mediated cytotoxicity." This involves the release of toxic substances, such as perforin and granzyme, that can directly kill the target cell. NK cells are also capable of producing cytokines, which are signaling molecules that can stimulate the activity of other immune cells and help to coordinate the immune response. Importantly, NK cells do not require prior exposure to a specific pathogen or antigen in order to be activated, and they are able to respond quickly to a wide variety of different pathogens and abnormal cells. This is what makes them an important part of the innate immune response.
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The free surface of the epithelial layer describes the ______ surface
The epithelial layer's free surface is the outermost surface that is exposed to the environment.
It is made up of closely packed cells that act as a barrier between the outside environment and the underlying tissue to protect it. This surface is in charge of protecting against physical, chemical, and biological elements as well as the absorption, transport, and secretion of chemicals.
These functions are supported by a variety of specialised structures found on the free surface, including microvilli, cilia, and tight junctions. The finger-like microvilli enhance the surface area available for molecule absorption and transport.
Cilia are projections that resemble hairs and assist to transport mucus and other substances away from the surface. Tight junctions are specialised structures that protect the integrity of the epithelial layer by obstructing the flow of chemicals between cells. The protection and proper operation of the underlying tissue and organs depend on this free surface.
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The principle by which we organize the perceptual field into stimuli that stand out (figure) and those that are left over (ground).
The guideline by which we put together the perceptual field into improvements that stick out and those that are left over is known as the "Figure-Ground" relationship.
This guideline assists with making sense of how we separate between an object of concentration and its encompassing setting (the ground). The figure-ground relationship is a principal part of discernment that assists us with getting a handle on the complex tangible data we get from the climate.
For example, a ticking clock on the wall could at first be very diverting while you are sitting a test in a study hall. With training, your cerebrum will start to consequently sift through foundation commotion so you can center.
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when the his- salmonella strain used in the ames test is exposed to substance x, no his revertants are seen. if, however, rat liver supernatant is added to the cells along with substance x, revertants do occur. is substance x a potential carcinogen for human cells? explain
If rat liver supernatant is added to the cells along with substance X, the rat liver supernatant contains enzymes that can convert substance X into a mutagen, and His+ revertants appear. Our liver also contains similar enzymes. This process can be conducted by Ames test.
The Ames test is a commonly used method to assess the mutagenic potential of a substance, which is one of the hallmarks of potential carcinogens. In this test, a histidine auxotrophic strain of Salmonella bacteria (his-) is exposed to the substance being tested, and if the substance causes mutations that enable the bacteria to produce histidine, then it is considered a mutagen and potentially carcinogenic. However, if the addition of rat liver supernatant to the cells along with substance X leads to the occurrence of revertants, it indicates that the substance is metabolically activated by the liver enzymes and can induce mutations.
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______________ is an area of land that separates water flowing to different rivers, basins or seas.
A Ponds
B Dams
C Watershed
D Artificial well
Watershed is an area of land that separates water flowing to different rivers, basins or seas.
Every waterbody contains a watershed. Watersheds drain rainfall and melt the snow into streams and rivers. These smaller bodies of water flow into large bodies which include lakes, bays, and oceans. Gravity helps to guide the path for water across the landscape.
Watersheds can be of different sizes. A watershed for a small mountain creek could be as small as a few square meters. Some watersheds are huge and enormous.
The Mississippi River watershed is the largest watershed in the United States, which drains more than three million square kilometers of land. The Mississippi River watershed stretches from the Appalachian Mountains in the east to the Rocky Mountains in the west. 31 U.S. states and 2 Canadian provinces fall among the Mississippi River watershed.
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for this question, select from the following choices: (a) producers (b) decomposers (c) primary consumers (d) secondary consumers (e) tertiary consumers at which trophic level are dragonflies that consume mosquitoes that feed on herbivorous mammals?
(d) Secondary consumers trophic level are eagles that consume fish that eat algae.
(a) Producers trophic level do organisms use a process that produces oxygen as a waste product.
(e) Tertiary consumers trophic level are dragonflies that consume mosquitoes that feed on herbivorous mammals.
Trophic level refers to an entity's place in the food chain. It is responsible for the feeding positions in a food web or chain. There are at least two or three trophic levels in all food webs and chains.
An ecological pyramid displays the reduction in energy and biomass from lower to higher trophic levels.
Energy is transported from lower to higher trophic levels in a food web or chain. Typically, only approximately 10% of the energy at one level is transferred to the next. The ecological pyramid depicts this representation.
The remaining 90% of the energy is used for metabolic activities or is discharged into the environment as heat.
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Complete Question Is:
For Questions 4, 5, and 6, select from the following choices:
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Primary consumers
(d) Secondary consumers
(e) Tertiary consumers
4. At which trophic level are eagles that consume fish that eat algae?
5. At which trophic level do organisms use a process that produces oxygen as a waste product?
6. At which trophic level are dragonflies that consume mosquitoes that feed on herbivorous mammals?
select the correct statement describing feedback control in animals.
Correct statement that describes feedback control in animals is Animals can be regulators of one environment variable, but conformers of another.
What is the animal feedback mechanism?When changes occur in the animal's environment, adjustments must be made to keep the internal environment of the body and cells stable. Receptors that sense environmental changes are part of the feedback mechanism. Stimuli: temperature, glucose or calcium levels - are recognized by receptors
Why do animals use negative feedback?To adapt to changes in the internal or external environment, stimuli must be redirected. A negative feedback loop accomplishes this, while a positive feedback loop continues to stimulate and harm the animal.
What is animal positive feedback?A positive feedback loop may maintain the direction of stimulation and accelerate stimulation. There are few examples of positive feedback loops in the animal body, but one is found in the cascade of chemical reactions leading to blood coagulation or clotting.
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Select the correct statement describing feedback control in animals.
Positive feedback loops contribute to homeostasis.
An animal may be a regulator for one environmental variable but a conformer for another.
Ectotherms are regulators with respect to temperature.
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new species in the fossil record means that a. the species is now extinct. speciation occurred instantaneously. b. speciation occurred in one generation. c. speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time. d. the species will consequently have a relatively short
The correct answer is C. speciation occurred quickly in geologic time.
According to the notion of punctuated equilibrium, the process of species development takes place in brief bursts, followed by stable intervals.
Contrary to the conventional theory of evolution, which contends that species evolve gradually over extended periods of time, this is the case. In accordance with this view, new species unexpectedly arise in the fossil record and are then preserved.
Punctuated equilibrium does not, then, imply that speciation happens within a single generation or that the species is already gone. Instead, it implies that diversification happens quickly across geologic time and that the questioned species could still exist.
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Select all the correct answers.
The oceanic crust of one plate is colliding with the continental crust of another plate. Which of these events are likely to take
place as the two plates collide?
When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic crust will always subduct under the continental crust; this is because oceanic crust is naturally denser. Convergent boundaries are commonly associated with larger earthquakes and higher volcanic activity.
The receiving chambers of the heart include the ______. A. right and left ventricles. B. left atrium and ventricle. C. right atrium and ventricle. D. right
The receiving chambers of the heart include the right atrium and ventricle (C). The receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and they are located at the top of the heart.
The right and left atriums of the heart are the chambers that receive blood from the blood arteries. The oxygenated blood flows from the lungs to the left atrium, and therefore the left atrium serves as a receiving chamber for the oxygenated blood, which can subsequently reach the various sections of the body. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body system and transports it to the lungs, where the carbon dioxide is eliminated by the lungs. As a result, these two structures serve as receiving chambers for blood from various parts of the body.
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describe the following characteristics when a gene is active: o is the gene tightly or loosely wound around histones? o are there many or few methyl molecules attached to the gene? o are there many or few acetyl molecules attached to the genes associated with histones? o are there many or few mrna transcripts?
There are many or few mRNA transcripts.
When proteins referred to as transcription factors bind to two essential pieces of DNA, an enhancer and a promoter, transcription of a gene begins. Nobody understood how near they needed to be to one another for transcribing to take place considering how far apart these are.
The transcription factor binds to the promoter and then activates the RNA polymerase complex. This causes the gene to be transcribed into a messenger RNA, which is then translated into a protein in the cytoplasm. Protein translation and a physiological response happen as a result of gene transcription being activated.
By attaching to a promoter sequence in the gene's DNA, transcription factors start the process of gene expression. Gene expression is influenced by the physical makeup of DNA, which is bundled with proteins into chromatin, by regulating access to DNA.
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