The chronological text structure narrates events in chronological order. Things/events that occurred previously are recounted.
Chronological text structure is frequently confused with sequential text structure, and it is even sometimes referred to incorrectly as chronological sequential text structure.
Chronological text structures narrate events in the order in which they occurred; they also usually have a setting, i.e. where the events occurred. This structure describes a historical event.
What is chronological order in writing example?
This means that the events in a story occur sequentially from beginning to end. Writing in chronological order allows the reader to follow along with the action in a story. For instance, if a woman in a story wants to study for an exam, she will first attend class, then study, and finally take the exam.
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During the Long-Term Evolution Experiment (LTEE), investigators found a Cit+strain ofEscherichiacolithat allowed fast growth on citrate buffer after 33,000 generations. The ability to catabolize citrateevolved at this time througha.acquiring the ability to exploit new ecological niches.b.becoming pathogens.c.becoming dependant on a symbiotic partner’s resources.d.becoming pathogens and becoming dependent on a symbiotic partner’s resources.
At this time, viruses developed that had the capacity to take advantage of new ecological niches and began to catabolize citrate.
What two categories do prokaryotes fall under?Early in the history of life, the two prokaryote kingdoms, Bacteria and Archaea, separated from one another. There are many different types of bacteria, including pathogens that cause disease as well as beneficial photosynthesizers and symbionts. Although archaea are diverse and many of them exist in harsh settings, none of them are pathogenic.
The prokaryotic system is which?A cell type without a genuine nucleus or membrane-bound organelles is referred to as prokaryotic. All other forms of life are eukaryotic, whereas organisms in the domains Bacteria and Archaea are based on the prokaryotic cell.
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a six month old infant has been brought to the emergency room because she has been suffering from a chronic cough. In addition, her parents report that sometimes she would "wheeze" a lot more than they thought was normal for a child with a cold. Ellie has not shown much weight gain since her previous appointment 2 months ago. Upon arriving at the emergency room, the attending pediatrician noted that salt crystals were present on Zoey's skin. Which organelle is not working properly?
Since arriving at the emergency room, the attending pediatrician noted that salt crystals were present on Zoey's skin. The organelle that is not working properly is epithelial cells.
How is the cell membrane impacted by the CF gene?Cells become entrapped with chloride, a salt component, when the protein is not functioning properly. Water cannot properly hydrate the cellular surface without the correct flow of chloride. This causes the mucus that covers the cells to thicken and become sticky, which contributes to many of the symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
A protein termed CFTR, also known as cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, is produced in the body's epithelial cells as a result of the inherited CF gene. This protein is present in cells that line the lungs, digestive tract, sweat glands, and genitourinary system. Burkholderia capacia that stays constant as well as Staphylococcus aureus is what is affecting Zoey
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Which statement is correct regarding the semiconservative nature of DNA replication?
In the daughter molecule, each strand consists of segments of the original template and newly constructed segments.
Each daughter molecule has one strand from the original template molecule and one new strand.
The daughter molecule has half as many nucleotides as the parent molecule.
The original DNA molecule remains intact, and a completely new daughter molecule is built from the original template.
The correct statement regarding DNA replication is: "Each daughter molecule has one strand from the original template molecule and one new strand." The second one is the correct answer regarding DNA replication.
What is the semi-conservative model of DNA replication?The DNA replicates using the semi-conservative model; in this model, during the replication, the two DNA strands are separated, and each one acts as a template. The template strand from the parents is used to create new DNA, which is done by multiple enzymes. As a result of this, new DNA is formed, and half of it comes from the parent.
Hence, the correct statement regarding DNA replication is: "Each daughter molecule has one strand from the original template molecule and one new strand."
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a particular triplet of bases in the template strand of dna is 5'-agt-3'. the corresponding codon for the mrna transcribed is question 10 options: 3'-uca-5'. 5'-tca-3'. 3'-uga-5'. 3'-acu-5'.
The triplet in question is:- 3 UCA 5
What does a specific triplet of nucleotides in the DNA template strand represent?Transcription is the method by which mRNA is produced from the template strand of DNA. Another name for the template strand is the antisense strand. The opposing base pair is added to the mRNA chain by RNA polymerase after reading the coding sequence on the template DNA strand.
If there is an adenine nucleotide in the template strand, Uracil will be added in place of it in the mRNA since Thymine is replaced by Uracil. The remaining nucleotide addition is identical to that in DNA; T will be added in place of A and C will be added in place of G.
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16) using dna profiling, dna from a blood sample collected at a crime scene can be compared to dna from a blood sample taken from a suspect. the dna profile will show whether the blood from the crime scene belongs to the suspect. arrange the steps in the order needed to create a dna profile from the two blood samples. order the following steps in suspect identification below. extract the dna from the cells in each sample. run electrophoresis and compare the sample from the scene to that of the suspect. blood collected from crime scene and from suspect. ~ using appropriate enzymes, prepare and copy dna fragments using pcr.
DNA from a blood sample taken from a suspect can be compared to DNA from a blood sample acquired from a crime scene using DNA profiling.
Blood is collected from a crime scene and from a suspect; DNA is extracted from the cells in each blood sample; specific repeated DNA sequences that were cut from the DNA sample with restriction enzymes are amplified using PCR; each of the two sets of DNA fragments is then separated by length using gel electrophoresis; the DNA fragment lengths of the crime scene blood and the suspect's blood are compared; and the suspect is either identified or cleared.
Whether the blood from the murder scene belongs to the suspect will be revealed by the DNA profile. A laboratory procedure called electrophoresis is used to divide DNA, RNA, or protein molecules according to their size and electrical charge. Standards of known sizes are separated on the same gel and compared to the suspect standards to determine the size of the molecules in a sample.
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a marine biologist dredges up a small animal from the bottom of the ocean. it is uniformly segmented, with short, stiff appendages and soft, flexible skin. it has a complete digestive system and a closed circulatory system, plus multiple true coeloms. based on this, you determine that the animal must be a(n) . see concept 33.3
Given the characteristics mentioned in the question, the animal must be an annelid.
What is an annelid?Annelids, (Phylum name annelida) segmented worms, characterized by having body cavities (or body coelom), mobile bristles (or setae), and bodies segmented by transverse rings. The body cavity is reduced in leeches, and the bristles are devoid of some specialized morphology, including leeches. An important phylum of invertebrates in the animal kingdom, Annelida, consists of more than 9,000 species divided into three classes: Sea worms (polychaetes) are divided into motile and sedentary or tube-dwelling forms. earthworms (Oligochaeta); and leeches (Hildinea). Annelids are coelomic and tridermal.
General characteristics of annelids are:
They show organization at the organ system level.Your body is segmented.They breathe through their body surfaces.The kidney is an excretory organ. They have well-developed circulatory and digestive systems.Common names for more familiar annelids include earthworms, sandworms, annelids, bristleworms, and leeches.To know more about annelid, visit:
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where is norepinephrine and epinephrine released? group of answer choices postganglionic synapse ganglionic synapse preganglionic neuron
Norepinephrine and epinephrine is released Pre-ganglionic neuron.
There are vast arrays of neurons located in the spinal cord and brain stem that project their axons outside the central nervous system (CNS) and are a part of the efferent (motor) pathways leading from brain centres to periphery within the autonomic nervous system, which is the set of central and peripheral nerve structures that control the activity of viscera (such as the bladder, heart, intestines, trachea, and glands) and of blood vessels. They are referred to as preganglionic neurons because their axons condense into tiny nerves that attach to ganglion neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia of the autonomic nervous system.
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venus has a period of revolution of 225 earth days. find the distance between the sun and venus as a multiple of earth's orbital radius (re).
The distance between the sun and venus as a multiple of earth's orbital radius is 0.787 AU.
The three laws of Kepler have a significant role in planetary motion. He proposed that the Sun always lies in any of the ellipse's focal points and that the orbit is not totally circular but rather elliptical. He also discovered a connection between the length of time and the distance.
Rv=(Tv/Te)^2/3 Re = (255/365)^2/3 (1AU) = 0.787 AU. According to Kepler's third law of planetary motions, the square of a planet's period of revolution (T) around the sun (R) is proportional to the cube of the distance between the planet and the sun (T).
Therefore, the distance between Venus and the Sun is roughly 0.787 AU.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. a vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal opening between the___ and ___that allows constant involuntary flow of urine from the ___ into the ___ .
A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal opening between the bladder and the vagina that allows the constant involuntary flow of urine from the bladder into the vagina.
An improper connection between the bladder and vagina known as a vesicovaginal fistula causes constant urine leakage via the vagina. The most frequent cause of this illness is gynecological and obstetrical damage. Gynecological surgery is the most frequent cause of vesicovaginal fistula in the developed world. The most frequent cause in North America is bladder damage sustained after a hysterectomy.
Vesicovaginal fistulas are most frequently caused by obstructed labor with pressure necrosis as a result of poor nations. Since the majority of vesicovaginal fistulae require permanent surgical care, the diagnostic workup should be thorough. For successful management, the use of timing, approach, graft usage, postoperative management, and surgical expertise must be optimized. Recurrent fistula formation is the most common side effect of vesicovaginal fistula surgery.
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true/false. herrnstein and others trained pigeons to respond to images of people. the researchers did this by pinpointing a single defining feature (such as hair) on which the birds could discriminate humans from other objects.
The given statement is false. Pigeons learned to discriminate the pictures of trees, bodies of water, or a particular person in three separate experiments.
Herrnstein and others trained pigeons to respond to images of people. The researchers did this by pinpointing a single defining feature (such as hair) on which the birds could discriminate humans from other objects. This statement is false.
Pigeons had learnt to discriminate the pictures of trees, bodies of water, or a particular person in three separate experiments.
Pictures being seen for the first time were discriminated almost as well as pictures seen in training.
The pigeons in each of the experiment showed similar patterns of errors and correct discrimination.
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sometimes mutations affect gene regulation without altering the protein sequence. describe one hypothesized situation that meets this criterion.
Sometimes mutations affect gene regulation without altering the protein sequence. The hypothesized situation where this phenomenon could happen is: when there is a change in the DNA sequence of the gene but it has no effect on the amino acid sequence.
What is silent mutation?The silent mutation is a type of mutation that affects gene regulation without altering the protein sequence. One example of silent mutation is when a code for lysine is mutated from AAA to AAG. Although there is a change in gene regulation, the protein sequence is still categorized as lysine.
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the methylation state of an individual cpg island:
It is a technique for locating a particular DNA fragment inside a cell. The next step in CRISPR gene editing is typically to modify that piece of DNA after that.
What is RNA?Short RNA sequences called "CRISPR RNAs" or "crRNAs" are created from CRISPR "spacer" sequences that can direct the system to DNA sequences that match them. When the targeted DNA is located, Cas9, one of the CRISPR system's enzymes, latches to it and chops it, turning off the gene.
CRISPR/Cas9 edits genes by accurately slicing DNA, which is then repaired by the body's own mechanisms. The Cas9 enzyme and a guide RNA make up the system's two components. quickly converting cutting-edge technologies into transformational treatments.
Therefore, It is a technique for locating a particular DNA fragment inside a cell. The next step in CRISPR gene editing is typically to modify that piece of DNA after that.
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Do germline mutations occur in somatic cells?.
No, germline mutations do not occur in somatic cells. Somatic cells are the cells that make up the body, and they do not have the ability to pass on DNA to future generations.
Germline cells, on the other hand, are the cells that give rise to sperm and eggs. These cells have the ability to pass on DNA to future generations, and therefore, any mutations that occur in these cells will be passed down to future generations.
There are two types of cell division: mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis is the process that somatic cells use to divide and produce two identical daughter cells. Meiosis is the process that germline cells use to divide and produce four gametes, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. During meiosis, the DNA of the parent cell is randomly divided between the four gametes. This random division of DNA can lead to mutations.
Germline mutations are thought to be responsible for a variety of hereditary diseases. Some of these diseases include cancer, heart disease, and mental illness. Germline mutations can also cause changes in physical appearance, such as hair color and eye color. These mutations are passed down from generation to generation and can have a significant impact on the health and appearance of an individual.
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What processes during the cell cycle ensures appropriate cell growth and rates of division? malfunction of these processes can lead to uncontrolled growth and cancer.
Interphase and the mitotic phase are the two primary phases of the cell cycle . DNA replication and cell growth occur during interphase. The cell divides and the replicated DNA and cytoplasm are separated during the mitotic phase.
What processes during the cell cycle ensures appropriate cell growth and rates of division?Both mitosis and cytokinesis are a part of the mitotic phase (M). The nucleus divides at this point, followed by the cytoplasm. The remaining three phases (G1, S, and G2) are together referred to as the interphase. The cell develops, goes through its regular life functions, and gets ready to divide during interphase.
The number of chromosomes is altered in many cancer cells, resulting in either an excess or a deficiency of chromosomes in the cells. The term "aneuploid" refers to these cells. DNA replication mistakes could lead to mutations and the potential emergence of cancer.
However, at the molecular level, interphase is the period of time when DNA replication and cell growth take place in a controlled manner prior to cell division. During interphase, the cell continues to grow at a constant rate, with the majority of dividing cells doubling in size between each mitosis.
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the 3' end of dna multiple choice refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group. attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide. always has thymine attached to it. usually has guanine attached to it.
The 3' end of DNA: refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group.
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the most prevalent form of genetic material. It is a double stranded structure with complementary strands. If one strand is 3' then the other would be 5'. The two strands are joined together by hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases.
The 3'-end of the DNA always possess a hydroxyl group. This OH group is necessary during the replication reaction where the group attacks a phosphate on the next base to be added. The reaction of replication cannot be accomplished without this hydroxyl group.
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explain digestion in human systems
The Human Digestive systems or the process begins in your mouth when you chew. Salivary glands produce saliva.
Human Digestive systems start with Saliva is a digestive fluid that moistens food and makes it easier for it to pass through the esophagus. Saliva also has enzymes that begin to break down the starch in food. esophagus. The digestive system breaks down the food we eat into its simplest forms: glucose (sugar), amino acids (which make up protein), and fatty acids (which make up fat). Broken down food is absorbed from the small intestine into the bloodstream, where nutrients are carried to every cell in the body. It is divided into two processes. mechanical and chemical digestion; The term mechanical digestion refers to the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces accessible to digestive enzymes.
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What are the 4 food defenses?.
The four food defense provide a methodology for building a proactive and comprehensive food defense program.
Assess : analyze the risks along the entire supply chain, including the source of the raw materials. To find potential entry points for product adulteration, conduct a vulnerability assessment of weak points and crucial control points.
Access: Who has access to the risk zones for food materials and critical control points? Keep a close eye on the following four primary activity categories that the FDA( Food and Drug Administration) has identified as being especially susceptible to adulteration: Activities such as mixing and grinding that use a lot of food and have a good chance of uniformly combining contaminants.
Alerts : According to the established food safety and defence programme, notifications of both purposeful and inadvertent food adulteration must be made to the proper parties.
Audit: The best food safety standards are ensured and maintained with the aid of operational and regulatory compliance audits, which also give regulators proof of conformity. The FSMA protects the safety of the American food supply by emphasizing prevention over reaction.
Hence, food defense provide a methodology for building advance food defense program.
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All of the following events occur during prophase in mitosis except responses pairing of chromosomes. Pairing of chromosomes. Spindle formation. Spindle formation. Crossing over. Crossing over. Condensation of dna.
All of the following activities occur in the course of prophase in mitosis except crossing over.
Mitosis may be divided into 4 stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
Throughout prophase, the chromatids condense into chromosomes, thereby making them seen. The mitotic spindle is a structure composed of microtubule proteins that segregate the chromosomes in mitosis. This shape is formed in prophase.
In Prophase homologous pairs of chromosomes are paired together. In metaphase, these chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the mobile, and sister chromatids are connected to the spindle fiber.
Crossing over (or recombination) is the alternate of genetic cloth between non-sister chromatids that occurs in the course of prophase I of meiosis.
In end, condensation of DNA, the pairing of chromosomes, and, spindle formation arise for the duration of prophase, while crossing over occurs in prophase I of the meiotic cellular department (choice B).
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What minimum frequency of light is needed to eject a photoelectron from atoms of platinum.
The minimum energy required to eject an electron from the surface is called the photoelectric work function. The threshold of this element corresponds to a wavelength of 683 nm.
This gives us F equal to 1.26 in 10 to the power of 15 hertz. This is a minimum required frequency of the photo or the frequency of light. The minimum frequency of light needed to eject electrons from a metal is called the threshold frequency, 0 .
Threshold frequency, ν0 is the minimum frequency that a photon must have to eject an electron from a metal. It is different for different metals. When a photon of frequency 1.0 × 1015 s 1 was allowed to strike a metal surface, an electron with 1.988 × 10 19 J of kinetic energy was emitted.
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In which example are the proximate cause and the ultimate cause of morphological evolution correctly matched? Proximate: cis-regulatory elements are found upstream of a gene; ultimate: cis-regulation is required to activate a gene Proximate: changes in gene regulation lead to changes in morphology; ultimate: natural selection favors morphologies that work best in their environment Proximate: point mutations in protein coding genes affect protein function and structure; ultimate: chemical and physical configuration of a protein affect its function Proximate: natural selection favors gene combinations that have high fitness in their environment; ultimate: genetic changes alter morphology and fitness Proximate: natural selection causes morphology to differ among species; ultimate: natural selection prevents morphological variation within a species
The example of proximate cause and the ultimate cause of morphological evolution correctly matched are Proximate: changes in gene regulation lead to changes in morphology Ultimate: natural selection favors morphologies that work best in their environment.
What is proximate cause? The conduct of the person (or entity) that owes you a duty must be closely related to your injuries for the person to be deemed legally responsible for your injuries. Someone's acts are not proximate if they only contribute to a small portion of your injury.What is ultimate cause? Ultimate causes are the historical circumstances that gave rise to the DNA coded information. These various levels of causation involve phenomena that happen on various time scales.For more information on proximate and ultimate cause kindly visit to
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what will be the phenotypic ratio for the f1 generation? if two f1 individuals are crossed, what is expected to be the f2 phenotypic ratio?
In dihybrid cross the phenotypic ratio for the f1 generation is 1:1:1:1 and the the f2 phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.
Phenotypic ratio refers to observable characteristics of an individual, such as height, eye color, and blood type. A person's phenotype is determined by both genomic organization (genotype) and environmental factors.
A dihybrid represents a mating experiment between two organisms in which the two traits are the exact same hybrid. Hybrid organisms are heterozygous, meaning they have two different alleles at a particular genetic position or locus.
The main difference between the F1 and F2 generations is that the F1 generation is the first daughter generation of the parent's descendants. However, the F2 generation is the second daughter generation of the inbred progeny of the F1 individuals.
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brown eye-color alleles are dominant over blue eye-color alleles, which are recessive. jenna has brown eyes. her husband, bill, has blue eyes. jenna and bill are the biological parents of james, who has blue eyes. what eye-color gene alleles must jenna have?
Jenna's eye color gene alleles are heterozygous i.e one allele is brown and the other one is blue.
What do you mean by Heterozygous and Homozygote ?
An organism with the dominant trait and one recessive trait. The organism would be called heterozygous. Heterozygous means hybrid.Homozygote- an organism with two dominant or two recessive traits. The organism with two dominant traits could be called homozygous dominant or pure dominant. The organism with two recessive traits could be called homozygous recessive or pure recessive.The genetics term heterozygous refers to a pair of genes where one is dominant and one is recessive — they're different.To know more about Heterozygous from the given link
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4. why does it take a much shorter time for adaptive immunity to be induced on subsequent encounters with the antigen?
T-helper cells are more numerous against the antigen. Therefore it take a much shorter time for adaptive immunity to be induced on subsequent encounters with the antigen.
Since they are necessary for practically all adaptive immunity,
T-helper cells are perhaps the most significant cells in adaptive immunity. They aid in the activation of cytotoxic T cells, which kill infected target cells, as well as B cells that generate antibodies and macrophages that kill ingested microorganisms.
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in the context of life and death decisions, there is a distinction between killing and letting die. which of the following is classified as letting die?
true or false: after diffusing across the synaptic cleft, ach binds to receptors on the synaptic knob.
The answer is False.
After diffusing across the sympathetic cleft, each binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) on the sarcolemma.
The neuromuscular junction is the synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle. Motor neurons send signals to muscle fibers, which cause muscle contraction. Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction begins when an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron, allowing calcium ions to enter the neuron.
In vertebrates, motor neurons release ACh, which diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to nAChRs receptors on the sarcolemma. The binding of acetylcholine to the receptor can depolarize the muscle fiber, which will eventually result in muscle contraction.
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How is genetic information organized in genes on chromosomes?.
What influences cell proliferation?.
The intracellular gene regulatory network and external growth factors exert strict control over this process influences cell proliferation
Cell division and division into two daughter cells is a process known as cell proliferation. Cell proliferation is a quick method of tissue growth because it causes an exponential rise in the number of cells. Cell growth and cell division must happen simultaneously for there to be cell proliferation and for the population's average cell size to remain constant. Cell growth can occur without cell division to form a single bigger cell, whereas cell division can occur without cell growth to produce many increasingly smaller cells (as in zygote cleavage) (as in growth of neurons). Thus, despite the fact that the terms cell growth and cell division are commonly used synonymously, cell proliferation is not the same as either one.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the transfer of information from dna to rna occurs during ___ , while the transfer of information from rna to protein occurs during ___ . 1. translation; transcription 2. translation; elongation 3. translation; transfection 4. transcription; translation 5. transcription; transfection
The transfer of information from dna to RNA occurs during translation
How does information go between DNA, RNA, and proteins?Pre-mRNA transcripts are created during transcription by the enzyme RNA polymerase (green), which uses DNA as a template (pink). To create a mature mRNA molecule that can be translated, the pre-mRNA is processed.
What steps are involved in the information transfer from DNA genes to mRNA?Gene expression begins with transcription. The DNA sequence of a gene needs to be copied in order to produce an RNA molecule. RNA polymerases are enzymes that carry out transcription, which create an RNA strand by joining nucleotides.
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why is fossil evidence usually not enough to give a complete record of evolution? (click on all that apply.)
An organism's remnants must be covered by sediment before the drawn-out process of fossilization may start. The majority of living things decay before this can happen.
Some justifications for why fossils aren't regarded as completely accurate include Some fossils are destroyed by the Earth's crust moving, After death, consumed organisms are unlikely to become fossilized, Soft-bodied species do not readily fossilize, and some fossils are buried too deeply for scientists to access. The fossil was created by the rapid subsurface burial of an organism. An organism would be partially degraded if it had already passed away before being buried. The fossil must then be discovered after spending millions of years underground, which can be extremely unlikely.
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a major enzyme involved in protein digestion is . a major enzyme involved in protein digestion is . pepsin pancreatic lipase lingual lipase amylase
An enzyme Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme that converts intact proteins into peptides, which are short strings of four to nine amino acids.
Which enzyme helps break down proteins?Out of these five elements, pepsin is the primary enzyme in charge of dissolving proteins. It breaks down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids so that they can be absorbed in the small intestine effectively.
What number of important digestive enzymes are there?The body naturally produces three primary categories of digestive enzymes, including: The enzyme protease converts proteins into amino acids. Triglycerides, or fats, are broken down into glycerol and free fatty acids by the enzyme lipase. Amylase is a digestive enzyme that turns starches and carbs into sugars.
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