White matter is the general term which is used to describe the structure corpus callosum.
Corpus callosum, also known as the white matter, performs the function of connecting the cerebral hemispheres. It is a very important structural as well as functional part of the human brain. It helps us in the death perception and also enables the two sides of the brain to communicate with each other.
The name corpus callosum basically means tough body. It is the largest white matter structure present in the brain both in terms of size, which is 700 square millimeters, as well as the number of axonal projections, which are about 200 million, between the two hemispheres.
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give an example of a physical change and an example of a chemical change to water
Answer:
When water freezes that's a physical change, it physically changes but it is chemicaly the same so it counts as a physical change. Now when an electrical current is passed through water it splits the water into hydrogen and oxygen also know as H2 and O2. this example is broken down into two elements cause it to be a chemical change.
Explanation:
for a rigid truss, the term rigid is used to indicate that the truss will _____ when a load is applied to it.
For a rigid truss, the term rigid is used to indicate that the truss will no deformation on application of any external force when a load is applied to it.
When there exists no displacement upon application of just about any external force, a truss is considered to be rigid in nature.
A truss generally considered to be structurally unstable when stiff body translation occurs for any load. The non-triangular truss structure will stable under this specific loading pattern. The aforementioned truss configuration will become unstable if a horizontal load is included.
Because of this, when a load is given to a structure with stiff joints, the joints may rotate or move, but the angle seen between members that are attached to the joint surfaces remains constant.
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presuming the distribution is normal, how many specimens are predicted to fail at less than 115 cycles?
By applying the z-score formula, it can be concluded that the number of specimens predicted to fail at less than 115k cycles is 27 specimens.
Mean is obtained from the sum of all the values from each data, then divided by the number of data.
Mean = ∑fx/∑f
Variance is a measure of how far a set of numbers is spread out.
Variance = ∑fx²/∑f - (Mean)²
Standard deviation is the square root value of the variance and indicates the standard deviation of the data from the mean.
σ = √var
Z Score is a measure of how far data is from its means in standard deviation units.
z score = (X - Mean) / σ
Here is the data about the measured number of cycles to failure (L in k cycles) with its frequency (f):
L: 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200 210
f: 2 1 3 5 8 12 6 10 8 5 2 3 2 1 0 1
To determine the mean, we can input the data into the mean formula:
Mean = ∑fx/∑f
= ((2*60) + (1*70) + (3*80) + (5*90) + (8*100) + (12*110) + (6*120) +
(10*130) + (8*140) + (5*150) + (2*160) + (3*170) + (2*180) + (1*190) +
(0*200) + (1*210)) / 69
= (120 + 70 + 240 + 450 + 800 + 1320 + 720 + 1300 + 1120 + 750 +
320 + 510 + 360 + 190 + 0 + 210) / 69
= 8480 / 69
= 122.9
Since the standard deviation is the square root value of the variance, then have to calculate the variance first :
var = ∑fx²/∑f - (Mean)²
= ((2*60²) + (1*70²) + (3*80²) + (5*90²) + (8*100²) + (12*110²) + (6*120²) +
(10*130²) + (8*140²) + (5*150²) + (2*160²) + (3*170²) + (2*180²) + (1*190²)
+ (0*200²) + (1*210²)) / 69 - (122.9)²
= (1104600 / 69) - 15,104.41
= 16,008.696 - 15,104.41
= 904.286
So the standard deviation is:
σ = √var
= √904.286
= 30.07
The z score of a normal distribution is given as:
z score = (X - Mean) / σ
= (115 - 122.9) / 30.07
= -0.263
Using the normal distribution probability table, we can compute the value of P(x< -0.263) = 0.39628
Thus, the number of specimens predicted to fail at less than 115k cycles is 0.39628 * 69 = 27.34332 ≈ 27 specimens.
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What is the term for the field of philosophy that actually uses ethical principles and applies them to the everyday medical care and health issues of people within our society
External fixation involves the application of pins through the tissue and bone to hold an external appliance in place.a. True
b. False
It is True that external fixation involves the application of pins through the tissue and bone to hold an external appliance in place. Option A is the correct answer.
What is External fixation of pins through the tissue and bone?This refers to a process by which pins or wires are inserted into bone percutaneously and held together through an external scaffold. Broken bones can be fixed in surgery with metal pins, screws, nails, rods, or plates.
These metal pieces hold the bones in place while they heal. Sometimes, the metal pins need to stick out of your skin to hold the broken bone in place. The metal and the skin around the pin must stay clean to avoid infection.
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Which of the following best explains how genetic recombination influences evolution?
A.
The process of genetic recombination results in only those traits that provide a reproductive advantage being passed down to future generations.
B.
New alleles that were not previously present within a population can only be introduced through the process of recombination.
C.
Genetic recombination occurs only in small breeding populations and always results in the loss of favorable alleles from the population.
D.
The genetic variation introduced during recombination provides new allelic combinations for natural selection to act upon.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
a gram-negative bacillus was recovered from the urine of a child with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. the organism was oxidase negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. the most likely identification of this agent would be
The identification of this bacteria would be : Aeromonas spp which is has profile a gram negative bacteria, oxidase negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile.
Urinary tract infections commonly (80-85 % cases) caused by E. Coli bacteria which is has profil as gram negative but lactose positive. Profile bacteria matched the findings is Aeromonas spp. This bacteria, Aeromonas spp, commonly caused gastrointestinal infection and diarrhea. In this case, probably the child has gastrointestinal infection, and then urinary tract infection as a secondary infection. That’s why the child has recurrent urinary tract infections. The doctor must treat primary infection in order to manage the secondary infection.
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explain how the physical and biological factors of a rocky shore ecosystem contribute to vertical zonation of the organisms living there.
the physical and biological factors of a rocky shore ecosystem contribute to vertical zonation of the organisms living because many animals live there, and rocky shores are a productive food source and an important nursery area for them.
The rocks, platforms, depressions, cobblestones, pebbles, and boulders provide a variety of habitats for organism living in there. Not only do rocky shore serve as habitats for a wide variety of animals, but they also provide a rich food source and serve as critical nursery area for numerous fish and crab species. Also, there's a plethora of fish food in this environment. Blackfish, yellowfin bream, snapper, tarwhine, trevally, yellowtail, and sampson fish are just a few of the commercially valuable species that can be caught near rocky shores.
Some of these species prefer to shelter in locations that are characterized by rocky shores and dense stands of seaweed, both of which help to reduce the impact of wave power. The algal beds here provide a crucial food source for endangered marine turtles and other animals. Wading birds enjoy the exposed rocks at low tide, where they may hunt for crabs and limpets.
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the internal membranes that form many of the organelles in eukaryotic cells likely come from which of these?
c. In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes standardize the internal environment of all cellular organelles. The lipid bilayers that make up the membranes that surround eukaryotic organelles are comparable to (but not identical to) the cell's outer membrane.
The combined area of a cell's internal membranes is significantly greater than that of its plasma membrane. Organelles, sometimes known as "small organs," are a variety of membrane-bound structures that carry out specific tasks for eukaryote cells within their cytoplasm. The endoplasmic reticulum is one type of organelle (ER). A network of membranes called the ER covers the entire cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotic cells, like prokaryotes, have a plasma membrane that is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and serves to separate the inside of the cell from the external environment.
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Which of the following statements about internal membranes in eukaryotic cells is false?
a. In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes greatly increase a cell's total membrane area.
b. In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes form membranous compartments called organelles.
c. In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes standardize the internal environment of all cellular organelles.
d. In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes provide an additional area for many metabolic processes to occur.
Collagen is a protein made of three identical polypeptides composed primarily of α helix structure. The α helix is an example of a?
Collagen is a protein made of three identical polypeptides composed primarily of α helix structure. The α helix is an example of a secondary structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds
Collagen is the most abundant type of insoluble fibrous protein and has all three strands of the polypeptide chain tightly wound around each other. Each polyptide is interspersed with an α helical chain containing amino acids. Collagen is found in the body, such as skin, muscles, bones, and blood vessels, which functions to provide structure and strength to the skin, bones and body tissues.
Protein is a molecule consisting of a combination of various amino acids bound by peptides. The secondary structure of proteins is related to the spatial arrangement of adjacent amino acid residues in a linear sequence. This steric arrangement gives it a periodic structure. The α helix is a rod-shaped secondary structure with the main polypeptide chain coiled to form the inside of the rod and the side chains pointing outside of the helix. The α helix shape is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the NH groups and the CO groups on the main chain.
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how do the colourful floating flowers help the water lily to reproduce
Seeds and rhizome spread are both methods used by water lilies to reproduce. Aquatic biologists advise using physical removal before to, or in conjunction with, treatment, as well as preventative management strategies.
Long stalks joined to subterranean stems carry the spectacular, fragrant, solitary blooms at or above the water's surface. The multiple petals of each cup-shaped flower are arranged in a spiral pattern. The majority of species' blooms include several stamens, which are the male reproductive organs. After blooming for about three days, water lily blossoms start to degrade and fall to the ground. Upon maturing, the unopened bloom floats to the surface where the pod splits apart, releasing the seeds onto the water's surface if they were fertilised.
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Please help me I really need it
Answer: Let me explain.
Explanation:
Eukaryotes often have several cells, but prokaryotes are typically unicellular.
Multicellular organisms use a variety of cells to perform their many processes, in contrast to unicellular organisms, which consist of just one cell that performs all of the processes required by the organism.
Autotrophs are referred to as producers since they can generate their own food using energy and raw resources. Plants, algae, and several varieties of bacteria are examples. Because they eat producers or other consumers, heterotrophs are referred to as consumers. Humans, dogs, and birds are all instances of heterotrophs.
During cytokinesis, the cell membrane ________ until two daughter cells separate completely.
Answer:
During cytokinesis, the cell membrane pitches until two daughter cells separate completely.
Answer:
Pinches
Explanation:
It gets pinched in the plasma membrane
what is a phylogenetic tree? how is one created
A phylogenetic tree, also known as a phylogeny, is a diagram that shows the evolutionary paths of several species, creatures, or genes from a common ancestor.
The concept of a tree of life evolved from ancient ideas of a ladder-like ascent from lower to higher forms of life. Early depictions of "branching" phylogenetic trees include a "paleontological chart" depicting the geological links between plants and animals in Edward Hitchcock's book Elementary Geology.
A rooted phylogenetic tree is a directed tree with a single node corresponding to the most recent common ancestor of all the entities at the tree's leaves. The root node has no parents and acts as the parent of all other nodes in the tree. Unrooted trees demonstrate the relatedness of leaf nodes without assuming ancestry.
Trees, both rooted and unrooted, can be bifurcating or multifurcating. A rooted bifurcating tree has precisely two descendants coming from each interior node (it is a binary tree), but an unrooted bifurcating tree is a free tree with exactly three neighbors at each internal node. A rooted multifurcating tree, on the other hand, may have more than two children at certain nodes, whereas an unrooted multifurcating tree may have more than three neighbors at some nodes.
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Which of the following best describes the location of the beta phosphate of ATP following the phosphorylation reaction? A.It becomes part of an ADP molecule.B.It becomes attached to the phosphorylated functional group. C.It becomes a free phosphate ion. D.It becomes part of an ATP molecule.
The statement which best describes the location of the beta phosphate of ATP following the phosphorylation reaction is option C. It becomes a free phosphate ion.
Being a complicated organism, the body needs energy to continue operating properly. At the cellular level, energy is used and stored as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Nucleoside triphosphate make up the structure of ATP.
By adding a third phosphate group to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) during aerobic respiration, a process known as oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is produced in the mitochondrion. ATP is hydrolyzed into the ADP or AMP and releases free inorganic phosphate groups during metabolic activities.
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Which of the following structures are found in all living cells? (Select all that apply.)
Which structures are found in all living cells?
Cell wall
Chromosome
Nucleus
Chloroplast
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Plasma membrane
Answer: cell membrane, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and DNA.
Explanation: That's because all cells are surrounded by a structure called the cell membrane — which, much like the walls of a house, serves as a clear boundary between the cell's internal and external environments. The cell membrane is sometimes also referred to as the plasma membrane.
what proportion of the f2 dwarf plants are true breeding? what proportion of the dwarf plants are true breeding? 1/4 3/7 4/7 1/3
The extent of bantam plants that would be normal in the cutting edge subsequent to selfing the diminutive person F2 plants is 1/4.
In the F2 age, the proportion of a smaller person to tall plants was 3:1, intending that for every four plants, three were mid and one was tall.
In the event that the more diminutive person F2 plants were self-pollinated, every one of the succeeding plants will have a 100 percent chance of acquiring the bantam allele from the selfed F2 plant, bringing about a 100 percent extent of bantam plants in the future.
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you inoculate a bacterial culture with 60,000 cells, what is the final number of bacterial cells that will be present in this culture after 30 generations?
[tex]6.44[/tex]×[tex]10^{13}[/tex] cells is the final number of bacterial cells that will be present in this culture after 30 generations.
A bacterial culture begins with 60,000 cells and grows for 30 generations.
You can calculate this using the equation
Total number of bacteria present after n number of generations = [tex]2^{number of generations}[/tex] × Initial number of bacterial
You mentioned that the number of generations = 30
So, [tex]2^{30}[/tex] = 1073741824
Now use the equation
Total number of bacteria present after n number of generations = 1073741824 × 60,000 cells = [tex]6.44[/tex]×[tex]10^{13}[/tex]cells
A microbiological culture, also known as a microbial culture, is a process of growing microbial organisms in a predefined culture media under controlled laboratory circumstances. Microbial cultures are fundamental diagnostic tools used in molecular biology research. Bacterial culture growth is defined as an increase in the population of bacteria rather than an increase in the size of individual cells.
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compare and contrast the thoracic cavities and the abdominal pelvic cavities. include at least two comparisons and two contrasts in your response.
The thoracic cavity, situated above the diaphragm, is home to the heart and lungs, while the abdominal pelvic cavity below the diaphragm contains the digestive and reproductive organs.
One similarity between the thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities is that they both contain organs that are essential for the body to function properly. The organs in these cavities are responsible for breathing, digesting food, and eliminating waste.
The thoracic cavity and the abdominal pelvic cavity are two distinct regions within the human body that differ in their respective locations. The thoracic cavity is located in the chest, while the abdominal pelvic cavity is positioned in the abdomen. This contrast can be useful in diagnosing medical issues, as chest pain will likely originate from the thoracic cavity while pain in the abdomen could indicate an issue in the abdominal pelvic cavity.
The thoracic cavity and abdominal pelvic cavity have different functions, which can be seen in the organs located within them. The thoracic cavity contains organs primarily related to breathing, such as the heart, lungs, and trachea, while the abdominal pelvic cavity contains organs mostly related to digestion, such as the stomach, small and large intestines, and bladder. This distinction can be useful for medical professionals when diagnosing and treating certain ailments.
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a neutrophil could be described as:a.rare, releases antimicrobial defensins, agranular.granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamine, rarec.abundant, granular, especially effective against bacterial.especially effective against cancer cells, abundant, agranular
A numerous, granular, and particularly efficient against bacteria cell is a neutrophil. Here option C is the correct answer.
The most prevalent form of white blood cell, neutrophils, is essential to the body's immunological response to infections.
They are distinguished by their granular appearance, which is made up of countless tiny granules that contain enzymes, toxins, and other compounds that aid in the battle against bacteria and other infections.
They are especially effective against bacteria, but also play a role in defending the body against fungal and viral infections. They are rapidly recruited to the site of infection and are capable of phagocytosis, the process of engulfing and destroying invading microorganisms.
Complete question:
a neutrophil could be described as:
A. rare, releases antimicrobial defensins, granular.
B. granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamine, rare.
C. abundant, granular, and especially effective against bacteria.
D. especially effective against cancer cells, abundant, agranular
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which prostaglandin synthesis enzyme yields protective prostaglandins?
The prostaglandin synthesis enzyme that yields protective prostaglandins is Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2).
COX-2 is responsible for producing prostaglandins involved in inflammation and pain response, as well as in maintaining normal physiological processes such as regulation of blood flow and protection of the gastrointestinal lining.
Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) is primarily involved in the production of prostaglandins that play a role in maintaining normal physiological functions.
COX-2 produces protective prostaglandins, while COX-1 produces prostaglandins that are involved in maintaining normal physiological functions.
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As it turns out, studies of snowshoe rabbit populations in areas where no lynxes are found show that the same fluctuations in population cycles. How can you explain this?
palomino is a golden yellow color, which occurs in hybrid (heterozygous) horses. pure breed animals are always chestnut (homozygous) or cremello (pale cream; also homozygous). if two palominos are mated, what is the expected ratio of palomino to non-palomino in their offspring?
If two palominos are mated, the expected ratio of a palomino to a non-palomino in their offspring is 2:1:1.
The pаlomino coloring in horses is аn exаmple of incomplete dominаnce. The creаm color аnd chestnut brown color аlleles cаnnot dominаnt over one аnother, so they аre blended when both аre present in heterozygotes. This blending of brown аnd creаm phenotypes results in the golden phenotype seen in pаlominos.
The given results indicate that the cremello and chestnut are homozygous traits. Palomino is a heterozygous trait as it produces offspring in 2:1:1 ration when palominos are self-crossed. The alleles are incompletely dominant because the Palomino phenotype resulted from chestnuts crossed with cremellos.
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which of the following molluscs has the most complex nervous system? multiple choice question. monoplacophorans cephalopods gastropods bivalves
Cephalopods have the most complicated nervous system found in the invertebrates.
Octopi, squids, and cuttlefish are considered the most intelligent of all invertebrates. They are capable of some forms of learning, and some species exhibit elaborate social interactions. These only marine creatures have a large head, bilateral body symmetry, and a set of arms or tentacles (muscle hydrostats) that are modified versions of the earliest molluscan foot.
During the Ordovician epoch, primitive nautiloids—cephalopods—became the dominating animal group. The Coleoidea subclass, which comprises octopuses, squid, and cuttlefish, and the Nautiloidea subclass, which includes Nautilus and Allonautilus, are the only two currently surviving subclasses within the class. In contrast to the Nautiloidea, which still possesses the external shell, the Coleoidea lacks or has internalised the molluscan shell. Cephalopods are a group of about 800 extant species. Ammonites, or Ammonoidea, and belemnoidea, are two significant extinct taxa (belemnites). The largest living invertebrate, the 14 m (45.1 ft) enormous squid, is an extant cephalopod. Its size ranges from the 10 mm (0.3 in) Idiosepius thailandicus.
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which identified area on the graphic of the brain is responsible for regulating skeletal muscle coordination
The brain is responsible for regulating skeletal muscle coordination on the graphic is 4.
The hindbrаin sits underneаth the bаck end of the cerebrum. It consists of the cerebellum, pons, аnd medullа. The cerebellum аlso cаlled the "little brаin" becаuse it looks like а smаll version of the cerebrum.
The cerebellum is involved primаrily in regulаtion of skeletаl muscle coordinаtion аnd contrаction аs well аs mаintenаnce of equilibrium. It coordinаtes muscle contrаctions, so movement is smooth аnd purposeful. The frontаl lobe mаnаges sociаl judgment. The pаrietаl lobe directs proprioception аnd body аwаreness. The midbrаin regulаtes pupil size аnd reflexes.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your graphic and the options were
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Thus, the correct answer is D.
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what characterizes depolarization the first phase in the final phase, the neuron's membrane potential drops below the resting membrane potential. this is called of action potential
Depolarization is the first phase in the final phase, the neuron's membrane potential drops below the resting membrane potential resulting in a large influx of sodium ions.
Depolarization, overshoot, and repolarization are the three phases of an action potential. There are two additional membrane potential states connected to the activity. A sudden increase in membrane potential triggers the opening of sodium channels in the cellular membrane, which leads to a significant increase in the influx of sodium ions and causes depolarization.
Membrane repolarization happens as a consequence of the quick inactivation of sodium channels and the significant efflux of potassium ions that happens as a consequence of activated potassium channels.
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how many co2 are produced from the complete oxidation of alanine? how many atp are produced? net priduction if nadh and fadh2?
The complete oxidation of alanine produces 7 CO2 molecules and generates 16 ATP. NADH and FADH2 yield 10 and 6 ATP respectively.
Alanine is an amino acid that is a major source of energy for the body. During cellular respiration, alanine undergoes a series of reactions that release energy and produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate). The complete oxidation of alanine generates 7 molecules of CO2 and 16 ATP.
The reactions involved in alanine oxidation occur in the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle) and the electron transport chain (ETC). In the citric acid cycle, alanine is first converted to pyruvate, which is then converted to acetyl-CoA and enters the citric acid cycle. This process generates 1 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 2 ATP per acetyl-CoA molecule.
The NADH and FADH2 generated in the citric acid cycle are used to generate ATP in the ETC. NADH and FADH2 are electron carriers and are used to transport electrons from the citric acid cycle to the ETC, where they are used to generate ATP. NADH yields 3 ATP and FADH2 yields 2 ATP.
Therefore, the net production of NADH and FADH2 in the complete oxidation of alanine is 10 ATP and 6 ATP respectively. The total ATP production from the complete oxidation of alanine is 16 ATP.
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explain the difference between a dominant negative mutation and haploinsufficiency at the molecular level. an enzyme, encoded by gene a, converts substrate x into product y. individuals with a rare dominant mutation in gene a have severe neurological symptoms. if you could purify protein a from affected and unaffected individuals, how would you determine if the symptoms were caused by a dominant negative mutation versus haploinsufficiency. in your answer, explain your experimental results.
A dominant negative mutation occurs when a mutated version of a gene product interferes with the activity of the wild-type version of the same gene product. This can result in a phenotype similar to haploinsufficiency, where there is a decrease in gene expression or activity due to the presence of a single copy of a gene.
To differentiate between a dominant negative mutation and haploinsufficiency at the molecular level, one can purify the protein encoded by gene A from affected and unaffected individuals and analyze it for differences in structure, function, or stability.
For example, by purifying the protein A encoded by gene A from affected and unaffected individuals and using western blotting to analyze the protein levels, one can determine if the symptoms are caused by a decrease in protein expression or activity due to haploinsufficiency.
Likewise, if one were to use an enzymatic activity assay to measure the activity of the protein A, they could identify if the symptoms are caused by a dominant negative mutation which causes an interference with the activity of the wild-type protein A. By comparing the enzymatic activity of the wild-type protein A to the enzymatic activity of the mutated protein A, one can determine if the symptoms are caused by a dominant negative mutation.
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the introductory passage describes the way in which vibrio cholerae bacteria obtain genes from their prey. based on the information in the introductory passage and in the chapter, what type of gene transfer is this?
Annually, 3 to 5 million cases of cholera are brought on by Vibrio cholera. Infection is spread through the consumption of tainted food or water, which is most prevalent in areas with poor sanitation and access to clean water.
Watery diarrhea and rapid dehydration are indications of the illness, which if left untreated can cause hypotonic shock and mortality within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms.
The design of the lipopolysaccharides on the cell surface of Vibrio cholerae strains allows for the classification of these strains into serogroups. Only the O1 and O139 serotypes of the more than 200 known serogroups of Vibrio cholerae.
Several phenotypic distinctions, including the susceptibility to polymyxin B and phage infection, are used to further divide the O1 serotype.
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extending inferiorly from the posterior part of the soft palate is a conical median projection called the:
Choose matching term
1. villi
2. esophagus
3. alveoli
4. uvula
The soft palate is the posterior part of the hard palate. It extends inferiorly from the posterior part of the soft spot (the uvula) and blends with the back wall of the oral cavity to form a continuous plane of mucosa covered by thin muscle and connective tissues.
The soft palate is the flap of tissue that separates the nasal passage from the oral cavity. It sits at the back of the mouth, sandwiched between two pairs of bones called palatine bones and is generally joined together with the two lateral palatine processes by means of tendons attached to muscle bundles. These muscles are used when we talk, sing or whistle.
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