Meselson and Stahl concluded from these experiments that DNA replication was semi-conservative: the DNA strands split off and each replicated themselves, resulting in each daughter molecule having one "old" and one "new" strand.
Density would be a defining characteristic between the old and new DNA. Meselson and Stahl created an approach called equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to gauge a density difference in the DNA. With this procedure, a cesium chloride solution is added to a tube where the DNA is centrifuged.
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acetylcholine receptor (achr) proteins are found at the synapse between neurons and skeletal muscle cells. acetylcholine released from neurons binds to a specifi c site on the receptor proteins, which causes an ion channel in the receptors to open and allow sodium ions (na ) to enter muscle cells. the resulting depolarization of muscle cells initiates muscle contractions. another molecule, nicotine, can also bind to certain types of achr proteins and activate the receptors.
The electrical potential on the two sides of the cell membrane of the neuron differs when it is at rest.
Through the release of potassium from the cell and an inward flux of sodium through particular voltage-dependent ion channels, a stimulus causes depolarization of the neuron. The resulting neurological signal, known as an action potential, travels along the axon like a wave. The synapse might be seen as a break between two neurons or as a connection between a neuron and a muscle. So, the presynaptic terminal/membrane, synaptic cleft/gap, and postsynaptic terminal/membrane make up the synapse. ACh is released from the presynaptic terminal's vesicles into the synaptic cleft in response to an impulse, making contact with the cholinergic receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
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What needs to pass through a nuclear membrane to integrate into the host genome?.
Answer:
Viral capsids that are larger than the nuclear pore
Explanation:
Investigator A has biological specimens that are coded and linked to identifiers of the source individuals. Investigator A provides the specimens to Investigator B but does not provide the individual identifiers. Investigator B agrees not to re-identify the source individuals. Is Investigator B's research using the biospecimens human subjects research according to the definition of human subjects research in the federal regulations?
No, because Investigator B cannot readily ascertain the identity of the source individual and Investigator B has agreed not to attempt re-identification.
No, because Investigator B cannot readily ascertain the research the source individual and Investigator B has agreed not to attempt re-identification of the specimens.
Any procedure that re-establishes the connection between data and the subject to which the data refers is referred to as re-identification. Human DNA from biological specimens, which may be maintained and used in numerous research investigations, is needed for genetic and genomic research. Because understanding genetic variation and its relationship with common and complicated illnesses on a genome-wide scale necessitates large sample sizes to attain sufficient power, access to stored bio specimens is essential for genetic and genomic research. The most valuable biospecimens are those that are associated with clinical and other phenotypic data about the sample source. National biobanks have been established in certain nations to achieve this.Along with the growth of population-based biobanks, a large number of research, pharmaceutical firms, and universities are gathering and archiving biological samples, clinical data, and genetic data in local and regional repositories. Cell lines are frequently created to prolong the study of the specimens, and the associated DNA data are widely made accessible for secondary analysis through open or password-protected databases.
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direct florescent antibody test on tissues such as brain, cornea, spinal fluid, or skin from the nape of the neck are used to test for:
The fluorescent antibody test is the method most frequently used to diagnose postmortem rabies.
How are rabies antibodies detected in a test?Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbant Assays (ELISA) can be used to evaluate anti-rabies virus antibodies, although these tests measure viral antigen-binding antibodies rather than the functional neutralising antibodies that can be detected by the RFFIT.
How are fluorescent antibody tests carried out?This method involves tagging a specific antibody with a fluorescent dye, allowing it to interact with the viral antigen in infected cells, and then observing the antigen-antibody complex under an ultraviolet light microscope after an incubation time.
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What are mutations in gametes also called?.
Mutations in gametes are also called germline mutations. When transmitted to a child, a germline mutation is incorporated in every cell of the body. Germline mutations play a key role in genetic diseases.
Any gametes produced as a result of a germ cell mutation will likewise carry the mutation. The ensuing zygote will have the mutation in all of its cells if the mutated gamete is used in fertilization. However, only a small fraction of the person will be affected if the mutation takes place in a somatic (body) cell during mitosis. Cells that have acquired a somatic mutation and lost the ability to control their proliferation are considered tumors. Only around 5%–10% of all malignancies are caused by chromosomal variations, which are much less frequent. At the time of conception, a germline variation develops in a sperm cell or an egg cell and is directly transferred from a parent to a kid.
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A function of a part of a cell where it helps maintain cellular homeostasis by modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for body transportation.
A function of a part of a cell where it helps maintain cellular homeostasis by modifying sorting and packaging proteins for body transportation is the Golgi apparatus.
Homeostasis in colonies of organisms or unicellular organisms is regulated by secreted proteins and small molecules that often act as signals. Intracellular homeostasis is maintained by the regulation and exchange of matter and energy with the environment.
Homeostasis maintains optimal conditions for systemic enzymatic activity and all cellular functions. Maintaining a constant internal environment even when internal and external conditions change. In the human body, these include controlling Blood sugar concentration. The most important structure that maintains cell homeostasis is the cell membrane.
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Ions can move across the plasma membrane in all of the following ways except?
a. by APT dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump
b. through passive or leak channels
c. through chemically-gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission
d. through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential
e. all of the answers are correct
Ions can move across the plasma membrane by ATP-dependent ion pumps, through passive or leak channels, by the chemically-gated channels, and through the voltage-gated channels. Thus, the correct option is E.
What is Ion Transport?Ion transport is the movement of ions across the biological membranes such as plasma membrane. The transport of ion species can be passive (facilitated) or active transport.
Ion transport underlies many of the essential physiological processes, such as the regulation of cell volume, excitation and propagation of electrical signals in cells, the secretion of fluids by organs like the intestine and kidney, and the electrolytes in the blood.
Therefore, the correct option is E.
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summarizes the processes of transcription and translation resulting in the expression of a particular gene?
A specific protein that determines a phenotype is produced after the genetic information carried by DNA is translated into a code carried by RNA.
What distinguishes eukaryotic transcription from translation?Replication, transcription, translation, and reverse transcription are the four pillars of life.
Translation is the process by which proteins are made from RNA, whereas transcription is the process by which RNA is converted into RNA from DNA.
Translation takes place in the cytoplasm, whereas transcription takes place in the nucleus.
The DNA promoters are bound by RNA dependent polymerase during the transcriptional initiation phase.
Association of ribosome subunits, tRNA, and an initiation factor with mRNA occurs during the translation's initiation phase.
Release of RNA or mRNA transcripts is a component of the transcription's final step.
The ribosome separates from the polypeptide chain when it encounters stop codons during translation.
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What food allows bacteria to grow well?.
The temperature control for safety (TCS) food items like dairy products, eggs, meat, and poultry support the growth of bacteria, hence ideal for bacterial growth.
Foods that are more likely to become dangerous are referred to as TCS food. TCS food, in contrast to other foods, requires time and temperature controls to prevent the growth of bacteria. This cuisine has a pH that is either slightly acidic or neutral, contains protein, and is wet. Water is necessary for bacteria to break down the food they ingest in order to proliferate. Water that is not attached to food molecules can promote the growth of bacteria. Water activity or water availability refers to this unbound water. To grow, all bacteria require nutrients or an energy source. Carbohydrates, protein, sugar, and starch are a few nutrients. Milk and dairy products typically include a lot of nutrients, which makes them perfect for bacterial growth.
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The blood in the veins is oxygen-poor, and does not exchange oxygen with tissues. Describe the relationship between the PO2 of the blood in the veins and the PO2 in the tissue.?
The PO2 of the blood and the PO2 of the tissue is the same.
The PO2 of the blood is higher than the PO2 of the tissue.
The PO2 of the blood is independent of the PO2 of the tissue, so it is impossible to predict.
The PO2 of the blood is lower than the PO2 of the tissue.
The PO2 of the blood is higher than the PO2 of the tissue.
What is PCO2 in blood?
The amount of carbon dioxide in arterial or venous blood is measured by the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2). It frequently acts as a sign of adequate alveolar ventilation in the lungs. Normally, the value of PCO2 falls between the range of 35 to 45 mmHg, or 4.7 to 6.0 kPa, under normal physiological conditions.
Hypoxemia can be treated with oxygen therapy. To receive additional oxygen, you can use an oxygen mask or a little tube fastened to your nose. An underlying illness like asthma or pneumonia might also result in hypoxemia.
Age, smoking habits, body type, and PAO2 are important factors in relation to PaO2. Age, PaCO2, weight, and smoking habits are significant factors in relation to (PAO2-PaO2).
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Are mutations in gametes?.
A mutation that occurs in a gamete or in a cell that gives rise to gametes is special because they impact the next generation and may not affect the adult at all.
FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ , like its relatives zanamivir and oseltamivir, blocks the entry of influenza virus by blocking fusion of the virus with the host cell membrane.
Amantadine like its relatives zanamivir and oseltamivir, blocks the entry of influenza virus by blocking fusion of the virus with the host cell membrane.
What exactly does amantadine mean?
A medication used to treat influenza A virus infections. It prevents the virus from infecting cells and producing more virus particles. It is also used to treat Parkinson's disease symptoms. Amantidine hydrochloride is an antiviral medication.
What are the effects of amantadine?
When you get up too quickly from a lying position, amantadine can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. This is more common when you first begin taking amantadine or when your dose is increased.
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1. describe the structure of the heart, the pattern of blood flow through the valves and chambers of the heart, how the heart as a muscle is supplied with blood, and what happens when the resting heart must suddenly supply an exercising body.
The heart has two atria and two ventricles. It is enclosed in a tough membranous sac called the pericardium. The cavity between these is filled with pericardial fluid. The right side pumps de-oxygenated blood to the lungs, and the left side pumps oxygen-rich blood to all other tissues.
Brief anatomy of heart:The heart exerts more physical force than any other muscle. The heart pumps blood through the cardiovascular system, a network of arteries and veins, which is situated in the center of the chest between the lungs. Blood is pushed toward the body's tissues, cells, and organs. Every cell receives oxygen and nutrition from the blood, which also eliminates the waste products produced by the cells, such as carbon dioxide. Through an intricate web of arteries, arterioles, and capillaries, blood is transported from the heart to the rest of the body. Veins and venules transport blood back to the heart The left atrium, right atrium, and two lower chambers known as the left and right ventricles make up the four chambers that make up the heart. The tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, and aortic valves are its four valves. The largest veins in the body, the superior and inferior vena cava, supply non-oxygenated blood to the right atrium, which then pumps it to the right ventricle via the tricuspid valve. Blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs, where it is oxygenated, via the pulmonary valve. Blood that has been oxygenated by the lungs enters the left atrium and is pumped to the left ventricle via the mitral valve. Blood that is rich in oxygen is pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta and the rest of the body through the aortic valve. The coronary arteries follow the surface of the heart and provide the heart muscle with blood that is enriched in oxygen. The heart is also covered in a web of nerve tissue, which carries the intricate signals that control contraction and relaxation. The pericardium, a sac, encircles the heart.
Sudden stress causes the left ventricle to have an increased need to supply blood, leading to hypertrophy.
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the following f2 results occur from a typical dihybrid cross: purple: a- b- 9/16 white: aab- 3/16 white: a-bb 3/16 white: aabb 1/1 if a double heterozygote (aabb) is crossed with a fully recessive organism (aabb), what phenotypic ratio is expected in the offspring?
3(white) : 1(purple)
Here the crossing is between,
Double heterozygote ( AaBb) is crossed with a fully recessive organism (aabb)
AaBb X aabb – parents
(AB, Ab, aB, ab) – gametes
AB Ab aB ab X AB Ab aB ab
AB Ab aB ab
AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb
Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
when we cross,
AaBb
Gametes - (AB, Ab, aB, ab)
aabb
gametes, (ab, ab, ab, ab)
AB Ab aB ab
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
1. for, AaBb ( purple) = 4/16 = 0.25 = 25%
2. Aabb (white) = 4/16 = 25%
3. aaBb (white)= 4/16= 25%
4. aabb (white) = 0.25 = 25%
white : purple
75% : 25%
= 3(white):1(purple)
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what interaction takes place between mycorrhizae and the evergreen tree roots on which they are found?
Positive and positive interactions occur between mycorrhizae and the evergreen roots in which they are found.
Mycorrhizae is the Next he has two guys. Mutualistic symbiosis. Symbiosis. Mycorrhizal fungi enable plants to draw more nutrients and water from the soil. They also increase plant tolerance to various environmental stresses. In addition, these fungi play an important role in soil flocculation processes and stimulate microbial activity. mycorrhizae) allow plants to absorb additional water and nutrients. This is especially important for the assimilation of phosphorus, one of the most important nutrients required by plants. The presence of mycorrhizae makes the plant less susceptible to water stress.
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a salesperson in your organization spends most of her time traveling between customer sites. after a customer visit, she must complete various managerial tasks, such as updating your organization's order database. because she rarely comes back to the home office, she usually accesses the network from her notebook computer using wi-fi access provided by hotels, restaurants, and airports. many of these locations provide unencrypted public wi-fi access, and you are concerned that sensitive data could be exposed. to remedy this situation, you decide to configure her notebook to use a vpn when accessing the home network over an open wireless connection. which of the following key steps should you take as you implement this configuration? (select two. each option is part of the complete solution.)
The key steps that should be taken when implementing this configuration are Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests through the VPN connection and Configure the VPN connection to use IPsec.
Unencrypted data could be accessed by anyone without any request in its original form. This can be misused by hackers to leak the sensitive information stored in the data. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network. It is a service that helps the user to stay private online by creating secure connection between the user's device and internet. There are some VPNs which are freely accessible to use. Though one must always try to use personal data while working on confidential files because the techniques used by unethical hackers could sometimes surpass the high level security and may cause harm. All the sensitive information transmitted on such wi-fi systems can be easily tracked and misused. People must always use encrypted websites for work or keep their personal data encrypted.
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in the human life cycle, multiple choice meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual. a haploid zygote is produced by meiosis and fertilization results in a diploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.
Meiosis produces haploid gametes and fertilization produces diploid cells that divide through mitosis to produce new individuals.
What is meiosis?Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of chromosomes in gametes (sex cells or eggs and sperm). In humans, somatic cells are diploid and contain two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent. To maintain this state, the egg and sperm that combine during fertilization must be haploid with a single set of chromosomes. During meiosis, each diploid cell undergoes two divisions to become four haploid daughter cells (gametes).
A type of cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in the mother cell and creates four gamete cells.
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what is the area where material from the grave and surrounding area is sifted through to reveal human remains, artifacts, fibers, and associated insect?
The screening area is where material from the grave and surrounding area is sifted through to reveal human remains, artefacts, fibres, and insects.
What are called human remains?Human remains refer to the physical remains of a person of Native American ancestry. The term excludes remains or portions of remains that can be reasonably deduced to have been freely given or naturally shed by the individual whose body they were obtained, such as hair made into ropes or nets. Human remains incorporated into a funerary object, sacred object, or object of cultural patrimony, as defined below, must be considered as part of that item for the purposes of determining cultural affiliation.
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Codons are three-base sequences in mRNA that specify the addition of a single amino acid to the growing protein chain during translation. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?
A) Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
B) The translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes, but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes.
C) Prokaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes. D) Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
Option a is correct.
A three base sequence of what is a codon?A codon is a group of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that specifies an amino acid or serves as a signal to stop protein synthesis. Four nucleotides are used to write DNA and RNA molecules, while 20 amino acids are used to write proteins.
A codon is made up of what?A codon is a particular sequence of nucleotides on an mRNA that denotes an amino acid or a signal to cease protein translation. The components of a nucleotide are a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nucleobase (also known as base).
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what is a central theme of human evolution? group of answer choices more robust jaw increasing adaptive flexibility decreasing body size decreasing cranial capacity
A central theme of human evolution is: an increasing adaptive flexibility. The Nariokotome boy discovered in Lake Turkana (Homo erectus) has modern human features such as: shorter arms and longer legs than those of earlier hominids.
Hominids are modern humans and their immediate ancestors. They include any species that evolved in the human lineage after it diverged from the chimpanzee lineage about 6 million years ago. The main defining trait of hominids is bipedalism. The theory of evolution is based on the idea that all species? they are related and gradually change over time. Is evolution based on genetic variation? in a population that affects the physical characteristics (phenotype) of an organism
The evolution of modern humans from our hominid ancestor is commonly considered to have involved four main steps: the evolution of earthiness, bipedalism, a large brain (encephalization), and civilization.
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TRUE/FALSE when two heterzygous individuals are corssed, the genotypic ratio of the children would be 75% to 25% or 3 to 1.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
It would be 50%
crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes?
A) meiosis II
B) meiosis I
C) mitosis
D) mitosis and meiosis II
Crossing over normally takes place during meiosis I. So the correct option is B.
What is crossing over?Chromosomal crossing over is a process that occurs during prophase I of meiosis in which the chromatids of homologous chromosomes will pair up and exchange sectors of their DNA. This occurs so that there is an exchange of genes, thus generating genetic recombination.
This process usually occurs in the development of sexual gametes (ovules and spermatozoa), this gives us a lot of genetic variability to the offspring that will be produced in sexual reproduction.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is B. meiosis I.
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A human skin cell has 46 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes will be present in each daughter cells when mitosis is complete?.
Human skin cells go through mitosis and have 46 chromosomes. When mitosis is finished, each daughter cell will contain 46 chromosomes.
Humans and the majority of other animals may divide their cells using the processes known as meiosis and mitosis. A cell that splits through the process of mitosis creates two identical copies of itself, each with the same number of chromosomes. A cell that undergoes meiosis produces four gametes when it divides. Male gametes are more often referred to as sperm and female gametes as eggs. Because each gamete has exactly half as many chromosomes as the mother cell, unlike mitosis, meiosis does not produce clones of the original cell.
Hence, Mitosis is a type of cell division in which one cell replicates to form identical two cells.
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A biologist studying petunias identifies 38 different petal colors.
Which statement best explains why petunia flowers can have different petal colors?
O Different genes will activate to code for different petal colors.
O Different alleles code for different petal colors.
O Petunia flowers change color depending on the available sunlight.
O Petunias destroy all but one gene for petal color.
Day
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A biologist studying petunias identifies 38 different petal colors, and the statement that best explains why petunia flowers can have different petal colors is "Different genes will activate to code for different petal colors," which is in the first option.
How does the gene code for the different traits?The genes are present on the chromosomes, and in the eukaryotes, there are different types of gene expression, such as the same mRNA can express multiple traits through alternate splicing. Here there are different genes are activated at different petals because although all cells have the same genes but due to the change in structure of the chromosomes such as the euchromatin ,heterochromatin all the genes can't express in every cells.
Hence, the statement that best explains why petunia flowers can have different petal colors is "Different genes will activate to code for different petal colors," which is in the first option.
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(lo 4.9) bacteria are becoming resistant to antibiotics, such as methicillin. this increase in the number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is due to
Antibiotic misuse, overuse, and ineffective infection prevention and control all contribute to the acceleration of antibiotic resistance.
Antibiotic overuse makes bacteria stronger. To some bacteria, common antibiotics are already "resistant." It is frequently more difficult and expensive to treat an infection when bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics. Public health is seriously endangered if serious bacterial infections cannot be treated. When bacteria change in a way that lessens or eliminates the effectiveness of medications, chemicals, or other agents intended to treat or prevent infections, this phenomenon is known as antibiotic resistance. The bacteria persist and grow more, causing more damage.
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the structure that regulates the passage of material into and out of this bacterial cell is indicated by the letter . a bacterial cell consisting of definite structures that are labeled from a to e. the surface is labeled a. the tiny fibrils on the cell surface are labeled b. the layer under the cell surface is labeled c. the area in the center of the cell contains a specific matter and is labeled d. the few long fibrils on the cell surface are labeled e. the structure that regulates the passage of material into and out of this bacterial cell is indicated by the letter . a bacterial cell consisting of definite structures that are labeled from a to e. the surface is labeled a. the tiny fibrils on the cell surface are labeled b. the layer under the cell surface is labeled c. the area in the center of the cell contains a specific matter and is labeled d. the few long fibrils on the cell surface are labeled e. a b c d e
The term "selectively permeable membrane" refers to the
plasma membranes ability to control how substances enter and exit the cell.
A biological term of membrane that selectively permeable membrane divides the interior of the cell from the external world is the cell membrane, also known as the
plasma membrane. Because it controls how chemicals enter and exit the cell, the plasma membrane is known as a selectively permeable membrane. It indicates that while the plasma membrane permits some materials to travel across it, it also prevents others from doing so.It indicates that while the plasma membrane permits some materials to travel across it, it also prevents others from doing so.
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this 79 year old has an area of tissue loss to the right forearm that extends into the dermis and epidermal flap partially covers the wound bed surrounding skin is thin and ecchymotic
The epidermal flap may completely or partially fail to cover the wound. The surrounding skin is ecchymotic and thin.
What is considered to be the main cause of pressure injuries?If you find it challenging to move and can't quickly shift positions while seated or in bed, your chance of developing bedsores is higher. A risk factor is inactivity. This could be caused by a number of things, including poor health, spinal cord damage, and others.
Which mattress type is ideal for pressure sores?
Mattresses made with pressure-relieving foam typically have several layers of unique foam that "react" or "respond" to a person's body, heat, form, and movement. In the trade, this is referred to as a "reactive surface." Pockets of air formed in the layers of material can also be used to release pressure.
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When a steroid hormone binds to an intracellular receptor, what happens after the receptor changes shape?.
Once the Steriod hormone connects to the receptor, the HSP is released from the cell. Once within the nucleus, the receptor and the attached hormone start to influence transcription.
How does steroid hormone binds to an intracellular receptor?Members of the "superfamily" of transcription factors include steroid and thyroid hormone receptors. Each of them is made up of a single polypeptide chain with three different domains. The amino-terminus interacts with other elements of the transcriptional machinery to trigger or stimulate transcription. The receptor protein has three core domains that clasp two receptors together into a shape that can bind DNA. Most frequently, transcription is triggered by receptor binding, and the hormone-receptor complex serves as a transcription factor. Not with another of their kind, but with distinct intracellular molecules, certain receptors bind DNA.
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in the structure of the epiphyseal plate, the zone farthest away from the medullary cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is the zone of .
Away from the medullary cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is the zone of Resting cartilage.
What is epiphyseal plate?
The growth plate, also known as the epiphyseal plate is a thin layer of cartilage that lies between the epiphyses and metaphysis, and is where the growth of long bones takes place.
Zone of Resting Cartilage: This is the area where the hyaline cartilage remains unchanged
4zones of epiphyseal plate:
Proliferation Zone. Zone 1. Cartilage cells undergo mitosis.
Hypertrophic Zone. Zone 2. Older cartilage cells enlarge.
Calcification Zone. Zone 3. Matrix becomes calcified; cartilage cells die; matrix begins deteriorating.
Ossification Zone. Zone 4. New bone formation is occurring.
Chondrocytes in the resting zone are irregularly scattered in a bed of cartilage matrix, whereas chondrocytes in the proliferative and hypertrophic zones are arranged in columns parallel to the long axis of the bone
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which is not a true statement based on the logistic growth model?population growth is limited by density-dependent factors.population growth slows as the number of individuals approaches the carrying capacity.a graph of population growth produces an s-shaped growth curve over time.future population growth cannot be predicted mathematically.
The statement based on the logistic growth model that is not true is that future population growth cannot be predicted mathematically.
The logistic growth model is a growth model that's based on the assumption that there is a carrying capacity K for the population. It was first introduced in a series of papers by Pierre Francois Verhuist between 1838 and 1847. This model models the exponential growth of a population while considering various factors such as the available resources and the carrying capacity of the land, putting a limit on growth. Therefore, this logistic growth model can predict future population growth mathematically.
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