when creating the teaching plan for a client who will be monitoring his or her pulse at home, which factors should the nurse teach the client that may influence the pulse rate by causing an increase in pulse? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer 1

The variation of the pulse can be changed by fever, stress, or workout.

Adult heart rates normally range between 60 and 100 beats per minute while at rest.

A lower resting heart rate is often linked to better cardiovascular health and performance. For example, a well-trained athlete's typical resting heart rate may be closer to 40 beats per minute.

Simply take your pulse to determine your heart rate. On the neck side of the windpipe, place your third and index fingers. Place two fingers over your radial artery, which is located between the bone and the tendon on the thumb side of your wrist, to check your pulse.

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Related Questions

the report found that the public: group of answer choices could not understand the medical terms being used by physicians, ill trained or rightly trained could easily assess if a physician was ill trained or rightly trained could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians could more easily figure out what was best for their health on their own

Answers

The Flexner report found that public could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians.

The Flexner Report may be a book-length landmark report of medical education within the US and Canada, written by Abraham Flexner and revealed in 1910 underneath the aegis of the Carnegie Foundation. several aspects of the current yankee health profession stem from the Flexner Report and its aftermath

In his report, Flexner also wrote that African-American physicians ought to be trained in "hygiene instead of surgery" and will primarily function "sanitarians," whose purpose was "protecting whites" from common diseases like TB.

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a nurse from the postanesthesia care unit (pacu) transports a client in the elevator with a nurse from the intensive care unit (icu). there are staff members and visitors in the elevator as well. which response from the icu nurse is appropriate when the pacu nurse begins the report?

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The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the  post-anesthesia care unit nurse begins the report is, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."

The Post-Anesthesia Care Unit, or PACU, as it is more commonly known, is a facility where patients are temporarily admitted after undergoing any surgical procedures. In any hospital or medical facility, it is one of the most crucial sections or amenities. The post-anesthesia care unit is a crucial and critical care area where the patient and all of his or her vital signs are continuously monitored. It is also where pain management starts and where fluids are administered as needed. The nursing staff is adept at identifying and treating issues that arise in patients following anesthesia. The PACU is supervised by the Department of Anesthesiology in a hospital or other medical facility. In the PACU, perioperative and postanesthetic management of the patient takes place, which includes periodic assessment and monitoring of respiratory and cardiovascular function, neuromuscular function, mental status, temperature, pain, nausea, vomiting, drainage and bleeding, and urine output. The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the postanesthesia care unit nurse begins the report with, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."

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which advantages would the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings instead of parenteral feedings through a nasogastric tube for a patient on the intensive care unit (icu)? select all that apply. the enteral feeding have fewer complications

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The advantages that the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings are safety, effectiveness, decreased risk of infection, decreased cost, prevents gut atrophy, and preserving the barrier function of the gut.

Parenteral Feeding refers to intravenous nutrition (through a vein). "Outside of the digestive tract" is what "peripheral" means. Parenteral feeding bypasses your whole digestive system, from the mouth to the anus, in contrast to enteral feeding, which is administered through a tube to your stomach or small intestine.

Since enteral feeding is more physiological, simpler, less expensive, and less complex, parenteral feeding is rarely preferred. Even nasogastric feeding needs care because it is one of the trickier enteral nutrition methods, along with gastrostomy and jejunostomy.

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marcy is 4 years old with cystic fibrosis. the nurse is trying to pick a method to teach marcy a good way to exercise her lungs. which would be the developmentally correct strategy to help marcy?

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The developmentally correct strategy to help Marcy with cystic fibrosis by teaching airway exercises like blowing bubbles.

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that affects the cells that secrete mucus, sweat, and digestive enzymes that lead to the thickening of these fluids and gives stickiness, as a result, it blocks the ducts, tubes, and airway passages and ends in difficulty in breathing ( shortness of breath).

Airway exercises like blowing bubbles, a horn, and a pinwheel are very helpful exercises. This kind of airway exercise will help to increase her lung capacity and is suitable for this age group of early childhood. And other normal activities like crawling, climbing up stairs, and infant swimming classes are also considered helpful exercises. Other exercises are normal activities for this age group of children.

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milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin a to help prevent graft rejection. this medication is one in a class of drugs known as drugs. a) anticoagulant b) antibiotic c) analgesic d) retroviral e) immunosuppressive

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[E] Immunosuppressive medication is one in a class of drugs known to help prevent graft rejection.

What are immunosuppressive drugs?

The immune system's capacity is suppressed or diminished by a class of medications known as immunosuppressants. Some of these medications are used to reduce the likelihood that the body may reject a transplanted organ, like a liver, heart, or kidney. Antirejection medications are those substances.

Cyclosporine works by reducing immunological response in order to stop white blood cells from attempting to destroy the transplanted organ. An extremely potent medication is cyclosporine.

Therefore, Cyclosporin A is being taken by Milly, who recently received a kidney transplant, to help prevent graft rejection.

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a woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. on physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. the nurse should suspect and should confirm the diagnosis by

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Thrombophlebitis and using real time and should confirm the diagnosis by color Doppler ultrasound.

Where is Doppler ultrasound done?

The examination is carried out in a hospital room, a peripheral vascular lab, the ultrasonography or radiology unit, or both. During the examination, a transducer—a portable device—is covered in a liquid gel. The artery or veins being evaluated are targeted by high-frequency sound pulses from this equipment.

What two kinds of Doppler ultrasound are there?

The various Doppler ultrasound models include Doppler in color This direction of blood circulation is indicated by a computer by converting sound waves into various colors. Doppler spectrum depiction in graphics of the blood flow throughout time. Ultrasound duplex combines Doppler ultrasound with conventional ultrasound images.

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when reviewing patient electronic medical records on the night shift, which patient would the intensive care unit (icu) charge nurse anticipate transferring to the progressive care unit (pcu) in the morning?

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The patient who has a controlled blood pressure and is taking a steady dose of the a vasoactive medication will thus be admitted to the PCU, according to the nurse.

What does ICU means?

A hospital's or healthcare facility's intensive care unit (ICU), often referred to as an intense therapy unit (ITU), intensive treatment unit (ITU), or critical care unit (CCU), would be a unique division that offers intensive care medicine. The illnesses and injuries that intensive care unit patients are dealing with are severe or life-threatening, need round-the-clock care, careful observation by life support equipment, and medication to maintain a constant bodily function. Highly skilled medical professionals, nurses, or respiratory therapists who specialise in care for critically ill patients work in these facilities.

What Quality of care is given to ICU patient?

The information at hand points to a link between ICU volume as well as the standard of care provided to patients who require mechanical ventilation. Higher ICU staff was substantially associated with reduced ICU and hospital death rates after controlling for illness severity, demographic factors, and ICU characteristics (such as the presence of intensivists on staff). International standards advise using a proven clinical tool to check every patient of delirium every day (typically twice or as often as necessary). An Intensive Care Delirium Screening Checklist and the Confusion Assessment Method for ICU (CAM-ICU) are the two that are most frequently used (ICDSC). These tools have been translated into more than 20 languages, and many ICUs throughout the world use them.

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he nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection regarding care to the newborn after delivery. the client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. which response should the nurse make to the client?

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The best advice that the nurse can give to a patient who has an HIV infection and wants to know about the feeding options that are available to her is, "You will need to bottle-feed your newborn."

HIV can easily spread from one person to another through blood, breastfeeding, etc. Hence, the best advice that the nurse can give her client is to bottle-feed the baby so that the baby does not get infected with the disease.

HIV is also known as the human immunodeficiency virus.

The affected person's immune system weakens over time, leading to critical conditions even with a minor viral fever. There are no direct medications or cures that can get rid of HIV completely.

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does a provider who is only performing waived tests need a clia number? a. no, waived testing does not require the provider to have a clia number. b. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a clia number is required. c. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, only medicare providers need a clia number. d. no, medicare does not pay for waived testing.

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The correct statement about waived tests needing a CLIA number is: (b) yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a CLIA number is required.

Waived tests are the ones that are considered to be so simple that there are very very less chances of error. This has been approved by CDC or FDA. The examples of waived tests include: pregnancy tests, fecal occult blood tests, some urine tests, etc.

CLIA has the full form Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments. It states that all the facilities that perform testing for which materials from human body are extracted need to requirements decided by the CLIA. CLIA number is a type of certification provided by CLIA, essential for all testing facilities.

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an obese client has developed peripheral edema as a consequence of heart failure, making it very difficult for the student nurse to accurately palpate the client's peripheral pulses. how should the nurse proceed with this assessment?

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A client's apical pulse should be auscultated by the nurse as part of this assessment.

Why does the apical pulse exist?

The bottom tip of your heart, or the apex, is where your apical pulse is located on your chest. Since it allows your doctor to hear your heart directly as it contracts and pumps blood, it differs from your arterial pulse points.

How is the apical pulse determined?

If a sizable artery is located close to your skin, you can feel the pulse by laying your fingertips over it. One of the eight typical arterial pulse sites is at the apical region. In the left middle of your chest, just beneath the nipple, is where you'll find it. Your heart's lower (pointed) end is roughly where this place is.

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a client is admitted to the acute psychiatric care unit after 2 weeks of increasingly erratic behavior. the client is unkempt, has lost approximately 9 lb (4 kg), has been sleeping poorly, and exhibits hyperactivity. the client loudly denies the need for hospitalization. what priority intervention will the nurse apply?

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The nurse prioritizes reducing ambient stimulation for the patient who has dropped around 9 lb (4 kg), has been having trouble sleeping and shows signs of hyperactivity.

Environmental stimuli were outlined as ambient, architecture, or interior design elements that only serve to stimulate and have the potential to have an impact on patients when psychological processes mediate their effects.

Environmental stimuli are events that take place in the environment that cause a person to respond or react. For instance, some people would put on a coat and sweater in response to a dip in temperature. A startled leap might be brought on by a deafening boom.

Groups of sensory neurons make up receptors. They notice a shift in the stimuli from the surroundings. As a result, the nervous system responds to the stimuli by producing an electrical impulse. Groups of receptors in sense organs react to particular stimuli.

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Answer:

decreasing environmental stimulation

Explanation:

a nursing graduate is attending an agency orientation regarding the nursing model of practice implemented in the health care facility. the nurse is told that the nursing model is a team nursing approach. the nurse determines that which scenario is characteristic of the team-based model of nursing practice?

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The team-based approach of nursing practice involves an RN supervising 3 UAPs, 2 Qualified Registered Nurses, & 2 LPNs to provide treatment for a group of 12 clients.

In team nursing, a nurse practitioner leader oversees the nursing staff while they provide care to a number of patients. Functional nursing is indicated in Option 1. Option 2 names a case management component. Primary nursing is indicated in Option 3.

A collaborative model of care encourages all healthcare professionals to work to the best of their ability in accordance with their training, licensure, and experience while actively including patients as active partners in their treatment.

The pillars of a clinical medicine model that presents real chances to change the healthcare paradigm are the four Ps: predictive, preventative, personalized, and participatory.

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The team-based approach of nursing practice involves an RN supervising 3 UAPs, 2 Qualified Registered Nurses, & 2 LPNs to provide treatment for a group of 12 clients.

In team nursing, a nurse practitioner leader oversees the nursing staff while they provide care to a number of patients. Functional nursing is indicated in Option 1. Option 2 names a case management component. Primary nursing is indicated in Option 3.

A collaborative model of care encourages all healthcare professionals to work to the best of their ability in accordance with their training, licensure, and experience while actively including patients as active partners in their treatment.

The pillars of a clinical medicine model that presents real chances to change the healthcare paradigm are the four Ps: predictive, preventative, personalized, and participatory.

a patient sustained an open fracture of the femur 24 hours ago. while assessing the patient, the nurse observes the patient is having difficulty breathing, and oxygen saturation decreases to 88% from a previous 99%. what does the nurse understand is likely occurring with this patient?

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The nurse understands  that patient is likely occurring with Fat emboli. Since observing that Patient from 24 hours.

The systemic symptoms of fat emboli in the microcirculation give rise to the clinical condition known as Fat embolism syndrome (FES), which is poorly understood. A systemic inflammatory reaction brought on by embolized fat in capillary beds results in pulmonary, cutaneous, neurological, and retinal symptoms in addition to direct tissue injury. However, patients with numerous clinical situations, such as bone marrow transplant, pancreatitis, and after liposuction, may also have this. This is most frequently seen following orthopedic trauma. The diagnosis of FES is challenging due to the lack of clear diagnostic standards or procedures. Early surgical repair of long bone fractures reduces the risk of a patient developing Fat embolism syndrome (FES), even if the majority of FES treatment is supportive fat emboli.

While Fat embolism syndrome(FES) is the systemic outward manifestation of fat emboli within the microcirculation, fat embolism is the presence of fat particles within the microcirculation. Respiratory discomfort, altered mental status, and a rash are typical systemic symptoms.

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a client with a recent myocardial infarction was admitted to the hospital with a new diagnosis of mitral valve regurgitation. which assessment data obtained by the nurse should be immediately communicated to the health care provider?

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Acute mitral regurgitation, which results from a myocardial injury, typically appears as acute congestive heart failure in the patient.

How do lungs function?

Your lungs are the two spongy, pinkish-gray organs in your chest. When you breathe in (inhale), air enters your lungs, and the oxygen in that air flows to your blood. At the same time, a waste gas termed carbon dioxide moves from your blood into your lungs and is expelled (breathed out).

What part of your lungs hurt?

When you breathe inside and out, you may experience lung pain on one either both sides in your chest. Technically, because the lungs have so few pain receptors, the discomfort isn't emanating from inside them. Instead, the lining of the lungs, that does have pain receptors, could be the source of the discomfort.

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imagine that yusef had a diet with absolutely no fat. what impact would this have on his overall health? a. he would have absolutely no energy. b. he would more easily absorb nutrients. c. he would be unable to absorb vitamins. d. he would have a compromised immune system.

Answers

According to the given statement he would have absolutely no energy impact would this have on his overall health.

The correct option is A.

What fat do to your body?

Fat aids in the body's absorption of vitamins A, D, and E. These vitamins are only absorbed with the aid of lipids because they are fat-soluble. Body fat is created from any fat that is not utilized by the body's cells or transformed into energy.

How does fat develop?

According to research, the majority of fat cells in adipose tissue are produced by cells that line the blood vessels. This realization might inspire fresh methods for treating and preventing obesity. Our metabolism, reproduction, and life lengths are all regulated by white adiposity, or fat, tissue.

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a client states that the client's recent fall was caused by his scheduled antihypertensive medications being mistakenly administered by two different nurses, an event that is disputed by both of the nurses identified by the client. which measure should the nurses prioritize when anticipating that legal action may follow?

Answers

The nurse should document the client's claim and the events surrounding the incident.

The mistaken administration of the drug to the patient is an offensive one. Thus, the nurse should definitely document the client's claim and need to verify whether the allegation is correct or not, and then actions will be taken against the nurses who had mistakenly administrated the wrong medicine for the patient/client who is having hypertension.

The three most common dispensing errors were mixing the wrong drug, strength, or dosage form; miscalculation of dosage; and no drug interactions or contraindications have been identified. Medication errors can be caused by a healthcare provider or by a patient.

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a client is prescribed a corticosteroid for the treatment of asthma after having an asthma attack. what education should the nurse provide to the client regarding the administration of this medication?

Answers

Avoid taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) while you are taking oral corticosteroids. Taking both of these medicines might cause an upset stomach.

What is asthma ?

The lungs' airways are impacted by asthma attack , a chronic (long-lasting) disease. Your lungs receive and expel air through tubes called airways. When you have asthma, the airways occasionally get irritated and constrict. This makes it more difficult for air to exit your airways during exhalation.

Airborne allergens such pollen, dust mites, mould spores, pet dander, or cockroach excrement particles. respiratory illnesses, including the common cold, a physical activity.

Typically before the age of five, asthma commonly develops during childhood. The most prevalent chronic illness in children is asthma, which affects many kids. Children may miss school and wind up in the hospital due to it. However, medications can aid in managing asthma.

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a client being treated for hypokalemia has a medication history that includes propranolol, digoxin, and warfarin. when the client reports nausea, abdominal discomfort, and visual changes, the nurse suspects what as the causative factor?

Answers

If a patient being treated acute hypokalemia has a drug history that include propranolol, digoxin, and warfarin, the nurse suspects what could be the causal factor of digitalis poisoning.

What is the remedy for a digitalis overdose?

Digoxin immune fab, an anti-digoxin immunoglobulin antibody, is the main treatment for digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity symptoms such hyperkalemia, hemodynamic instability, and arrhythmias have been demonstrated to be extremely responsive to treatment with this antidote.

Digoxin toxicity: what causes it?

Hypokalemia, which can happen as a result of diuretic medication, is the most typical cause of digoxin poisoning. Dosing mistakes are another frequent reason for toxicity in younger people. The risk of digoxin toxicity is affected by a number of factors, such as:

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what would the most likely diagnosis be for a patient who experienced a severe head trauma and now is unable to point to an object in space under visual guidance and has difficulty moving their eyes toward a visual target?

Answers

Balint's syndrome is the most likely diagnosis be for a patient who experienced a severe head trauma .

What does trauma feel like?

Some of the earliest impacts of trauma include exhaustion, confusion, depression, concern, agitation, apathy, dissociation, bewilderment, physiological arousal, and dampened affect. Because they affect the most of survivors, are socially acceptable, mentally beneficial, and self-restrictive, the bulk of reactions are considered typical.

What alters a person after trauma?

Trauma may make you more vulnerable to mental health problems. Additionally, it might cause post-traumatic stress disorder right away (PTSD). To cope with unpleasant memories and emotions, some people abuse alcohol, drugs, or even themselves. Trauma may make it very difficult for you to carry on with your daily life, depending about how it affects you.

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How many mg of a medication are needed to make 1,500 mL of a 1:4000 w/v solution

Answers

Answer:

375 mg

Explanation:

conversions

a client with a history of diabetes presents to the emergency department following several days of polyuria and polydipsia with nausea/vomiting. on admission, the client labs show a blood glucose level of 480 mg/dl (26.64 mmol/l) and bicarbonate level of 7.8 meq/l (7.8 mmol/l). the nurse suspects the client has diabetic ketoacidosis (dka). the priority intervention should include:

Answers

The nurse suspects the client has diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) include Administer insulin as patient need rapidly to decrease glucose and ketone levels, Avoid overhydration.

what is diabetes ?

Diabetes mellitus is a group of diseases that affect the body which uses blood sugar an important source of energy for the cells to do all metabolic activity.

The primary cause of diabetes are different type causes excess sugar in the blood. The important type of diabetes are Type 1 diabetes is caused by an autoimmune reaction.

In Type 2 diabetes the body doesn’t take insulin well and can’t keep blood sugar at normal levels.

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an active 20-year-old man (recommended daily intake of 3,000 calories) and a sedentary 20-year-old woman (recommended daily intake of 2,000 calories) each consume 30 grams of free sugar in one day. did each meet the 2015 who guidelines on free sugar intake? (hint: 1 gram of sugar

Answers

According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 10% of daily calories should come from added sugars. For a 2,000 calorie diet, that amounts to about 12 teaspoons or 200 calories.

An energy unit is a calorie. Due to historical factors, the terms "calorie" and "energy" are used interchangeably. The original definition of the large calorie, meal calorie, or kilogramme calorie was the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one kilogramme of water by one degree Celsius. Calories are the amount of energy your body expels after digesting and absorbing meals. A food's ability to give your body energy depends on how many calories it contains. If you consume more calories than you need, your body stores them as body fat. A food can have a lot of calories even if it is fat-free. The original definition of a calorie stated that it was the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gramme of water by one degree Celsius at a pressure of one standard atmosphere.

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a 71-year-old woman with a longstanding diagnosis of emphysema developed community-acquired pneumonia 3 weeks ago and was admitted to the hospital for treatment. a combination of respiratory therapy and iv antibiotics has resolved the woman's infection and she is now preparing to return to the home she shares with her husband. what phase in the trajectory model of chronic illness is this patient currently experiencing?

Answers

This patient is currently in the phase of the trajectory model for chronic illness known as "comeback," which stands for "recovery after acute episode."

What are chronic illnesses?

Generally speaking, chronic diseases are problems that last for a year or longer, necessitate continuous medical care, restrict everyday activities, or both. In the US, the most common causes of death or disability are chronic illnesses like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.

Is it possible to heal a chronic disease?

Chronic diseases are debilitating ailments that can typically be managed but not cured. People with chronic illnesses frequently have to deal with daily symptoms that reduce their quality of life and encounter acute health issues or complications that can reduce their life expectancy.

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an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia after curtailing fluid intake to prevent urinary incontinence. given these findings, the nurse recognizes that this client is likely in what phase of acute kidney injury?

Answers

A phase of acute kidney injury from an 86-year-old client is being treated for dehydration and hyponatremia is pararenal, because the cause is not from within the kidney.

There are 3 phases of acute kidney injury:

Prerenal is a factor that causes the worsening of kidney function before kidney organs. One of the most common causes of prerenal is hypovolemic shock, which is a condition of lack of fluids that reduces blood flow to the kidneys, for example, due to severe bleeding or diarrhea.Intrinsic means kidney failure occurs due to damage that occurs in the kidneys. Some disorders that can cause kidney damage directly are toxins, methanol, and infections. Severe infectious conditions (sepsis), scleroderma, multiple myeloma malignancies, and various kidney diseases are also included in the renal factor.Post-renal is a condition in which the kidneys can form urine well, but its flow in the urinary tract is obstructed. It can be found in tumors of the abdominal area (eg prostate, cervix, or bladder) that cause urine to block and cause kidney damage. Kidney stones can also obstruct the flow of urine.

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the nurse is performing an assessment on a patient to determine the effects of hypertension on the heart and blood vessels. what specific assessment data will assist in determining this complication? (select all that apply.)

Answers

The correct options are A, C, and E. . In order to determine the effects on the health of the patient due to hypertension, the nurse will have to consider these assessment data:

The character of apical and peripheral pulsesHeart rhythmHeart rate

In the question, it is stated that the patient is suffering from hypertension and a nurse is assessing his condition. In order to determine its effects on heart health and blood vessels, the nurse needs to consider the aspects of The character of apical and peripheral pulses, Heart rhythm, and Heart rate. These will help to conclude the current health situation the patient faces.

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Complete question:

The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient to determine the effects of hypertension on the heart and blood vessels. What specific assessment data will assist in determining this complication? (Select all that apply.)

a. The character of apical and peripheral pulses

b. Respiratory rate

c. Heart rhythm

d. Lung sounds

e. Heart rate

which medication would the nurse administer to the patient exhibiting hyperactivity, insomnia, and delirium while on the icu

Answers

The patient who was suffering delirium, restlessness, and hyperactivity while in the intensive care unit would receive medication called dexmedetomidine from the nurse.

What is called medication?

Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid with in diagnosis of illnesses. Modern medicine has allowed it for doctors all to save and cure many diseases. Today, there are various reports for drugs.

Why do people take medication?

People take drugs to treat illness, feel good when they are ill, and to fend off potential ailments. A doctor considers the patient's situation when determining the drug to prescribe to them.

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you are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (aicd). you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital. to protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should:

Answers

In the event that you are caring for a patient who has an implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD), there are certain precautions you must take to protect yourself from being shocked like you should wear gloves, gown, and face shield.

First, it is important to understand how the device works. The AICD is designed to automatically deliver a shock to the heart in the event of a life-threatening arrhythmia. The device is implanted under the skin, usually in the chest, and is connected to the heart via wires.

If the AICD detects a life-threatening arrhythmia, it will deliver a shock to the heart in an attempt to restore a normal rhythm. The shock can be very powerful, and if you are in contact with the patient when the device discharges, you could be seriously injured.

There are a few things you can do to protect yourself from being shocked by an AICD. First, make sure you are not in contact with the patient when the device is discharged. If you must be in contact with the patient, make sure you are wearing gloves and other protective clothing.

Second, do not touch the patient's chest or AICD device after the device has discharged. The shock can cause burns and other injuries.

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a) before planning individualized patient care, the patient's oral health literacy must be assessed. b) patients with disabilities or physical limitations will require modification to ensure adequate daily oral biofilm removal. group of answer choices statement a is false and statement b is true. statement a is true and statement b is false. both statements are false. both statements are true.

Answers

both statements are true a) before planning individualized patient care, the patient's oral health literacy must be assessed. b) patients with disabilities or physical limitations will require modification to ensure adequate daily oral biofilm removal.

Oral health refers to the health of the teeth, gums, and therefore the entire oral-facial system that permits us to smile, speak, and chew. a number of the foremost common diseases that impact our oral health embrace cavities (tooth decay), gum (periodontal) unwellness, and carcinoma.

To remove biofilm from these hard-to-reach areas, dentists suggest cleanup between your teeth once per day with floss, flossers, interdental brushes, water flossers, or alternative interdental cleaners. Some folks have problem victimization floss, however everybody must clean between their teeth.

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assessment findings of a patient ejected from a motorcycle indicate that he has a flail chest wall segment to his right anterior chest. he exhibits labored breathing and a spo2 at 94%. breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. the segment has been stabilized, and you are prepared to start positive pressure ventilation. given these assessment findings, what type of injury underlying the flail segment is your primary concern

Answers

Assessment findings indicate that he has a flail chest wall segment to his right anterior chest, exhibits labored breathing and a spo2 at 94%, so Pulmonary contusion is injury underlying the flail segment is primary concern.

A pulmonary contusion is an injury to the respiratory organ parenchyma within the absence of laceration to respiratory organ tissue or any vascular structures. It always results from blunt chest trauma, shock waves related to penetrating chest injury, or explosion injuries. These injuries will cause respiratory organ failure and death

A flail chest arises once these injuries cause a phase of the chest wall to maneuver severally of the remainder of the chest wall. A flail chest will produce a major disturbance to metabolism physiology. This disturbance in metabolism operate is vital in patients who are older or who have chronic lung unwellness.

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extrapyramidal symptoms, serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that occur in some patients with schizophrenia, are similar to the symptoms of

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Extrapyramidal symptoms and serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that occur in some patients with schizophrenia are same as the symptoms of: Parkinson's disease

What are the side effects of antipsychotic medications?

Brain disorder that causes uncontrollable movements such as shaking, stiffness, and difficulty in balancing and coordination is Parkinson's disease.

Side effects of antipsychotics are : uncontrollable movements of the jaw, lips and tongue which is known as tardive dyskinesia, uncomfortable restlessness which is known as akathisia, sedation, weight gain,  higher risk of getting diabetes, constipation an dry mouth.

The adverse side effects of antipsychotic medications range from relatively minor issues to very unpleasant and life threatening.

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