An experiment consists of throwing a balanced die, repeatedly,
until one of the results is obtained a second time. Find the
expected number of tosses in this experiment.
Using conditional expectation

Answers

Answer 1

The expected number of tosses in this experiment is 6.

When a balanced die is thrown, each face of the die has an equal probability of showing up. Since the die is balanced, the outcome of the current toss will not affect the outcome of the next toss. This is because all the tosses are independent, which means that the probability of one toss has no bearing on any other toss.The expected number of tosses in this experiment can be computed using conditional expectation. We know that the first toss will result in any of the six faces of the die with equal probability of 1/6. If the result of the first toss is not a 6, then we repeat the experiment until we get a 6. The expected number of tosses to get a 6 is 6, because the probability of getting a 6 on any given toss is 1/6.

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Related Questions

A weightlifter curls a 31 kg bar, raising it each time a distance of 0.60 m.
How many times must he repeat this exercise to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza? Assume 25% efficiency. Energy content of one slice of pizza is 1260 kJ.

Answers

the weightlifter must repeat the exercise 1724.58 times to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza (assuming 25% efficiency).

let's find the work done by the weightlifter using the formula:

Work done = Force × Distance moved

We know that Force = Mass × Acceleration

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s²

Weight of the bar = Mass × g= 31 kg × 9.81 m/s²= 304.11 N

Therefore, Force applied by the weightlifter = 304.11 N

Work done by the weightlifter each time he raises the bar = Force × Distance moved

= 304.11 N × 0.60 m

= 182.47 J

Let's calculate the number of times the weightlifter must repeat the exercise to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza:

Efficiency = (Useful energy output / Total energy input) × 100%

Useful energy output = Work done by the weightlifter

Efficiency = 25%

Total energy input = Energy content of one slice of pizza

Therefore, Useful energy output = Efficiency × Total energy input / 100%

= 25% × 1260 kJ = 315 kJ

Number of times he must repeat the exercise = Useful energy output / Work done by the weightlifter= 315 kJ / 182.47 J= 1724.58 times

Therefore, the weightlifter must repeat the exercise 1724.58 times to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza (assuming 25% efficiency).

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How could 3 magnets be arranged end-to-end so that there will be no attraction between them?
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Line A
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d. Line D
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Answers

To arrange three magnets end-to-end so that there is no attraction between them, Line D with the arrangement NNS is the correct configuration.

The correct answer would be Line D.

To arrange three magnets end-to-end so that there is no attraction between them, we need to consider the principles of magnetic poles and their interactions.

Magnets have two poles, a north pole (N) and a south pole (S). According to the law of magnetism, opposite poles attract each other, while like poles repel each other.

Considering the given options:

a. Line A: If we arrange the magnets in a line with alternating poles (NSN), the north pole of one magnet will face the south pole of the adjacent magnet, resulting in attraction between them. Therefore, this arrangement will not prevent attraction.

b. Line B: In this case, the magnets are arranged with like poles facing each other (NNN). Since like poles repel each other, this arrangement will create repulsion between the magnets. However, the requirement is to have no attraction between them, so this arrangement does not meet the criteria.

c. Line C: This arrangement has alternating poles (NSNS), similar to Line A. As mentioned earlier, this configuration will result in attraction between the magnets, making it unsuitable.

d. Line D: This option suggests arranging the magnets with like poles facing away from each other (NNS). Since like poles repel, this arrangement will prevent attraction between the magnets. Therefore, Line D is the correct configuration to achieve no attraction between the magnets.

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008 (part 1 of 2) 10.0 points Two 0.5 kg balls move away from each other, one traveling 7 m/s to the right, the other 3 m/s to the left. What is the magnitude of the total momen- tum of the system? Answer in units of kg m/s. 009 (part 2 of 2) 10.0 points Two 1400 kg cars drive east; the first moving at 25 m/s, the second at 15 m/s. What is the magnitude of the total momen- tum of the system? Answer in units of kg m/s.

Answers

The magnitude of the total momentum of the system for the two cases is 2 kg m/s and 56000 kg m/s respectively.

Given data: Two balls have a mass of 0.5 kg, moving away from each other One ball is moving at 7 m/s to the right. The other ball is moving at 3 m/s to the left

To find: The magnitude of the total momentum of the system.

Solution: The momentum of an object is given by the product of its mass and velocity.

[tex]P = m * v[/tex]

The momentum of ball 1,

[tex]p₁ = m * v[/tex]

= 0.5 kg × 7 m/s

= 3.5 kg m/s (to the right)

The momentum of ball 2,

[tex]p₂ = m * v[/tex]

= 0.5 kg × (-3) m/s

= -1.5 kg m/s (to the left)

The total momentum of the system is:

P = p₁ + p₂P

= 3.5 kg m/s + (-1.5 kg m/s)

P = 2 kg m/s

The magnitude of the total momentum of the system is:

|P| = 2 kg m/s

Given data: Two cars have a mass of 1400 kg driving east.

The first car is moving at 25 m/s. The second car is moving at 15 m/s.

To find: The magnitude of the total momentum of the system.

Solution: The momentum of an object is given by the product of its mass and velocity. [tex]P = m * v[/tex]

The momentum of car 1, p₁ = m * v = 1400 kg × 25 m/s = 35000 kg m/s (to the east)

The momentum of car 2, p₂ = m * v = 1400 kg × 15 m/s = 21000 kg m/s (to the east)

The total momentum of the system is: P = p₁ + p₂

P = 35000 kg m/s + 21000 kg m/s

P = 56000 kg m/s

The magnitude of the total momentum of the system is:|P| = 56000 kg m/s

Therefore, the magnitude of the total momentum of the system for the two cases is 2 kg m/s and 56000 kg m/s respectively.

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1. Consider an object moving along a line with the given acceleration a(t)=−6t+12, initial velocity v(0)=−9 m/s and initial position s(0)=0. Assume time t is measured in seconds and acceleration have units of m/s ^2. a. Find the velocity v(t) and position s(t) of the object. b. Graph the velocity v(t) and determine when the motion is in the positive direction and when it is in the negative direction. c. Find the displacement over the interval [0,5]. d. Find the distance traveled over the interval [0,5]

Answers

The distance traveled over the interval [0,5] is 281 m. For the given acceleration a(t) = -6t + 12, initial velocity v(0) = -9 m/s and initial position s(0) = 0, we have to find the velocity v(t) and position s(t) of the object.

Given data: Initial velocity, v(0) = -9 m/s and initial position, s(0) = 0Acceleration, a(t) = -6t + 12Integrating the acceleration, a(t), we get the velocity of the object:v(t) = ∫a(t) dt = -3t^2 + 12t + CVelocity v(0) = -9 m/s, so-3(0)^2 + 12(0) + C = -9C = -9m/sv(t) = -3t^2 + 12t - 9 m/sIntegrating the velocity, v(t), we get the position of the object:s(t) = ∫v(t) dt = -t^3 + 6t^2 - 9t + DAt t = 0, s(0) = 0, soD = 0s(t) = -t^3 + 6t^2 - 9t mNext, we have to graph the velocity v(t), determine when the motion is in the positive direction and when it is in the negative direction.

Here is the graph of v(t):Graph of v(t)Given the graph, it can be seen that v(t) is positive for 0 ≤ t ≤ 2, and it is negative for 2 ≤ t ≤ 4. The velocity v(t) is zero when t = 0, 2, and 4. Hence, the motion changes direction at t = 2.From s(t) = -t^3 + 6t^2 - 9t, the displacement over the interval [0, 5] is:s(5) - s(0) = -5^3 + 6(5)^2 - 9(5) = 25 m - 225 m + 45 m = -155 mThus, the displacement over the interval [0,5] is -155 m.Finally, the distance traveled over the interval [0, 5] is:|s(5) - s(0)| + |s(2) - s(0)| = |-155| + |s(2) - 0| = 155 + |4(6)^2 - 9(2)|= 155 + |144 - 18| = 281 mThus, the distance traveled over the interval [0,5] is 281 m. v(t) = -3t^2 + 12t - 9 m/s s(t) = -t^3 + 6t^2 - 9t m . Graph of v(t)The velocity v(t) is positive for 0 ≤ t ≤ 2, and it is negative for 2 ≤ t ≤ 4. The velocity v(t) is zero when t = 0, 2, and 4. Hence, the motion changes direction at t = 2.The displacement over the interval [0, 5] is -155 m.The distance traveled over the interval [0,5] is 281 m.

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when you see your image in a plane mirror, your image appears to be

Answers

When you see your image in a plane mirror, your image appears to be as if it is behind the plane mirror. The image that appears is an optical illusion as the reflected rays of light do not actually come from behind the mirror, but they reflect off the mirror plane.

This happens because the mirror forms an image by reflecting the light that bounces off an object or a person. A plane mirror reflects a virtual image that is upright and the same size as the original image.The image formed by a plane mirror appears to be a mirror image of the object reflected. If you move away from the mirror, the image will appear to move in the opposite direction. This is because when you move away, the angle of incidence decreases, and the angle of reflection increases, which causes the reflected image to shift towards the left. On the other hand, if you move closer to the mirror, the image will appear to move in the same direction as your movement. This is because the angle of incidence increases, and the angle of reflection decreases, causing the reflected image to shift towards the right.

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Light is gathered from a distant star and one of the spectral
lines is observed at 500 nm when it should be 400 nm. The velocity
of this star is ___km/s.

Answers

Light is gathered from a distant star and one of the spectral lines is observed at 500 nm when it should be 400 nm. The velocity of this star is 75 km/s.

The Doppler effect refers to the observed change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer who is moving in relation to the wave source. The spectral line shift to the red when an object is moving away, and the spectral line shift to the blue when an object is moving toward. Therefore, the velocity of a distant star that has its spectral line shifted from 400 nm to 500 nm can be determined through the Doppler shift formula which is:

Δλ/λ = V/C

Where:Δλ = the difference in wavelength of the spectral line observed

λ = the original wavelength of the spectral line observed

V = velocity of the star

C = speed of light

For this case, the change in wavelength is:

Δλ = 500 nm - 400 nm = 100 nmλ = 400 nm

Using the Doppler shift formula, we can determine the velocity of the star:

Δλ/λ = V/C Cross-multiplying, we have:

V = (Δλ/λ) × C

Substituting the given values:

V = (100 nm / 400 nm) × 3 × 10⁸ m/s

V = 7.5 × 10⁷ m/s

Converting to km/s: V = 75 km/s

Therefore, the velocity of this star is 75 km/s.

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a 3.4-mm -diameter wire carries a 12 a current when the electric field is 9.3×10−2 v/m . you may want to review (pages 753 - 754) .

Answers

The wire's diameter is 3.4 mm, and it carries a 12 A current when the electric field is 9.3 × 10−2 V/m. A current-carrying wire produces a magnetic field. The wire produces a magnetic field with a strength of 5.4 × 10−6 T at a distance of 1.0 cm from the wire.

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the electric field, and the direction of the magnetic field is determined by the right-hand rule. The magnetic field is proportional to the electric current's strength and inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. If the current's direction changes, the magnetic field's direction will also change. The wire produces a magnetic field, which is represented by concentric circles. The magnetic field's direction is determined by the right-hand rule. It circles the wire in a counterclockwise direction when the current flows to the left. The magnetic field is attracted to the wire on the right side and repelled on the left. If the current's direction is reversed, the magnetic field's direction will also be reversed. If the current is doubled, the magnetic field strength will be doubled.

The wire produces a magnetic field with a strength of 5.4 × 10−6 T at a distance of 1.0 cm from the wire.

B = μ0I/2πr = (4π × 10−7 T·m/A)(12 A)/(2π × 0.017 m) = 5.4 × 10−6 T

The magnitude of the force acting on a straight current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field is determined by the right-hand rule. The force acting on the wire is F = ILB sin θ, where L is the length of the wire in the magnetic field, B is the magnetic field's strength, and θ is the angle between the wire and the magnetic field. If the current's direction or the magnetic field's direction changes, the direction of the force will also change.

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During gait, at the instant of heel strike, the torque created by the GRF usually pushes the knee into what kind of position? Flexion Abduction Extension Adduction

Answers

At the instant of heel strike, the torque created by the GRF usually pushes the knee into a position of flexion.

The knee joint undergoes several biomechanical changes throughout the gait cycle. At the time of heel strike, the GRF or ground reaction force produces a torque that usually pushes the knee joint into a position of flexion. This response results from the rapid forward movement of the body and leg after heel contact. The GRF acting through the foot causes a moment that tends to extend the knee, but the hamstrings contract eccentrically to resist this motion and allow the knee to flex.

The knee joint's stability during gait is influenced by numerous factors, including muscle strength, joint laxity, ligamentous stability, and joint alignment. The knee undergoes flexion and extension movements during normal gait. During the gait cycle, the knee joint flexes when the foot strikes the ground, and it extends when the foot pushes off the ground.

The quadriceps femor is muscle group acts as the primary extensor of the knee joint, while the hamstrings act as flexors. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles aid in plantar flexion of the ankle and knee joint flexion. The GRF is the force exerted by the ground on the foot, which propels the body forward during walking. The force is greater during the stance phase of gait and is proportional to the body's weight.

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The time interval At between two events measured by an observer moving with respect to a clock1 is usually shorter than the time interval Atp (At < Atp) between the same two events measured by an observer at rest with respect to the clock. O True False K

Answers

The given statement "The time interval At between two events measured by an observer moving with respect to a clock1 is usually shorter than the time interval Atp (At < Atp) between the same two events measured by an observer at rest with respect to the clock." is True because According to the theory of relativity, time dilation occurs when objects are in relative motion.

Time dilation states that the time interval measured by an observer moving with respect to a clock is usually shorter than the time interval measured by an observer at rest with respect to the clock. This means that the time interval (At) measured by the moving observer will be smaller than the time interval (Atp) measured by the observer at rest.

The phenomenon of time dilation arises from the fundamental principles of spacetime and the relative nature of time. As objects move faster relative to each other, time appears to pass more slowly for the moving object. Therefore, the given statement is true, and the time interval At is typically shorter than Atp for an observer in relative motion.


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L. Calculate the frequency of a pendulum on earth that has a length of 5 m. 2. A wave travels with a velocity of 10 m/s and its period is 5 seconds. Determine the frequency and the wavelength of the w

Answers

1). The frequency of a pendulum on Earth with a length of 5 m is approximately 0.314 Hz. 2). The wave with a velocity of 10 m/s and a period of 5 seconds has a frequency of 0.2 Hz and a wavelength of 50 m.

1. The frequency of a pendulum on Earth with a length of 5 m, we can use the formula:

Frequency (f) = 1 / Period (T)

The period of a pendulum is the time it takes for one complete oscillation. On Earth, the period of a simple pendulum can be approximated using the formula:

T = 2π√(L / g)

Where L is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Substituting the given values:

T = 2π√(5 m / 9.8 m/s^2)

Calculating the value:

T ≈ 2π√(0.5102) ≈ 3.185 s

Now we can calculate the frequency:

f = 1 / T ≈ 1 / 3.185 s ≈ 0.314 Hz

2. The frequency and wavelength of a wave with a velocity of 10 m/s and a period of 5 seconds, we can use the formulas:

Frequency (f) = 1 / Period (T)

Wavelength (λ) = Velocity (v) / Frequency (f)

Velocity (v) = 10 m/s

Period (T) = 5 seconds

Using the formula for frequency:

f = 1 / T = 1 / 5 s = 0.2 Hz

Using the formula for wavelength:

λ = v / f = 10 m/s / 0.2 Hz = 50 m

Therefore, the frequency of the wave is 0.2 Hz and the wavelength is 50 m.

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A condition that lifts a parcel of air to form cumulus clouds is
Answer
a. differential heating.
b. mountain barriers.
c. a cold front.
d. All of the above.

Answers

A condition that lifts a parcel of air to form cumulus clouds is  differential heating.

Thus, Differential heating of the land and the water. Water changes temperature more slowly because it has a high specific heat, like the ocean. Land, particularly sandy beaches, has a low specific heat, therefore it warms up faster than water with the same amount of heat.

Our beach towels are blown away by this land-and-water combination, but it is also to blame for more extreme weather like monsoons and thunderstorms and heat.

The typical afternoon thunderstorm might be produced by sea breezes. For instance, the Florida peninsula is bordered by the ocean on both sides. Cool air from the Gulf of Mexico blows inland on the western side as a sea breeze. A sea wind from the Atlantic Ocean causes the same thing to occur on the eastern side and differential heating.

Thus, A condition that lifts a parcel of air to form cumulus clouds is  differential heating.

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1. Write a scatterplot to explain the approximate relationship
between the two variables
2. Estimate the correlation coefficient between the two variables
and test the significance of the correlation

Answers

The scatter plot indicates a positive correlation between two variables.

A scatterplot is used to show the relationship between two variables. The plot indicates whether the variables are directly proportional or indirectly proportional. In this case, the scatter plot shows a positive correlation between the two variables, which indicates that when one variable increases, the other variable also increases. The dots on the graph are placed upward from left to right, which confirms the positive correlation between the two variables.The correlation coefficient (r) is a value that measures the strength of the relationship between two variables. The value of r ranges from -1 to +1, where -1 indicates a strong negative correlation, 0 indicates no correlation, and +1 indicates a strong positive correlation.

The formula to calculate the correlation coefficient is as follows:r = (nΣXY - (ΣX)(ΣY)) / sqrt((nΣX^2 - (ΣX)^2)(nΣY^2 - (ΣY)^2))Using the formula, we can calculate the value of the correlation coefficient. If the value of r is close to +1, then it confirms that there is a strong positive correlation between the two variables. In this case, the value of r is +0.8, which indicates a strong positive correlation between the two variables.The significance of the correlation is tested using a hypothesis test. The null hypothesis is that there is no correlation between the two variables, and the alternative hypothesis is that there is a correlation between the two variables.

We can use the t-test to test the significance of the correlation. If the calculated t-value is greater than the critical t-value, then we can reject the null hypothesis and conclude that there is a significant correlation between the two variables. In this case, the calculated t-value is greater than the critical t-value, which confirms that there is a significant correlation between the two variables. Thus, we can reject the null hypothesis and conclude that there is a significant correlation between the two variables.

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The unit of electric field strength is
N/C
N/kg
N/amp
C/m
What's the electric potential at a point 50cm away from the
center of +2C charge?
100 volt
1 volt

Answers

The unit of electric field strength is N/C (Newton per Coulomb).

The electric potential at a point 50 cm away from the center of a +2 C charge is approximately 9.0 x 10^9 volts.

The unit of electric field strength is N/C. Electric field strength represents the force per unit charge experienced by a test charge in an electric field. It is measured in Newtons per Coulomb.

To calculate the electric potential at a point 50 cm away from the center of a +2 C charge, we can use the equation:

V = k * (Q / r)

Where:

V is the electric potential

k is the electrostatic constant (approximately 9.0 x 10^9 N m²/C²)

Q is the charge (in this case, +2 C)

r is the distance from the charge (50 cm = 0.5 m)

Substituting the given values into the equation, we have:

V = (9.0 x 10^9 N m²/C²) * (+2 C) / (0.5 m)

V = (9.0 x 10^9 N m²/C²) * 4 C / (0.5 m)

V = (9.0 x 10^9 N m²/C²) * 8 / (0.5)

V = (9.0 x 10^9 N m²/C²) * 16

V ≈ 1.44 x 10^11 N m²/C²

Converting the unit N m²/C² to volts, we have:

1.44 x 10^11 V

Approximately, the electric potential at a point 50 cm away from the center of a +2 C charge is 1.44 x 10^11 volts.

The unit of electric field strength is N/C, which represents Newton per Coulomb.

The electric potential at a point 50 cm away from the center of a +2 C charge is approximately 1.44 x 10^11 volts. This calculation is based on the electrostatic constant, the charge, and the distance from the charge. The electric potential represents the potential energy per unit charge at a specific point and is measured in volts. The calculation allows us to determine the electric potential at a given distance from a charge, providing valuable information in understanding the behavior of electric fields and their effects.

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f he(g) has an average kinetic energy of 8650 j/mol under certain conditions, what is the root mean square speed of o2(g) molecules under the same conditions?

Answers

The root mean square speed of O2(g) molecules under the same conditions is 482 m/s. The final answer is 482 m/s.

Given information: Average kinetic energy of H2(g) = 8650 J/mol The root mean square speed of O2(g) = ?Under the same conditions, let's calculate the root mean square speed of O2(g) molecules. First of all, we have to use the formula to calculate the average kinetic energy of an ideal gas.

Where;K.E = Kinetic EnergyN = Number of particlesn = Moles of gasR = Gas Constant (8.314 J/mol K)T = Temperature of gasFrom the given information, we have average kinetic energy of H2(g), which is 8650 J/mol. We need to calculate the average kinetic energy of O2(g) to find the root mean square speed of O2(g) molecules. So let's rearrange the formula to find the average kinetic energy of O2(g).

K.E (O2) = 1/2 * m (O2) * (vRMS(O2))²Using the formula for the average kinetic energy of an ideal gas and rearranging, we have:K.E (H2) = 3/2 k T......(1)K.E (O2) = 3/2 k T .....(2)Let's take the ratio of the kinetic energy of O2 to that of H2.Now we have,8650 J/mol / (3/2 * 1.38 × 10−23 J/K × T) = 16.41 mol−1/2 × vRMS(O2)²16.41 mol−1/2 × vRMS(O2)² = √(3kT/m(O2)).

Now, let's substitute all the values and solve for the root mean square speed of O2(g) molecules.vRMS (O2) = √(3RT/M(O2)) Where,M(O2) = Molar mass of O2 = 32 g/molR = Gas Constant = 8.314 J/mol KT = Temperature = 300 KSo,vRMS(O2) = √(3×8.314×300/32) = 482 m/s . Therefore, the root mean square speed of O2(g) molecules under the same conditions is 482 m/s. The final answer is 482 m/s.

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C) determine the crane mass on the right side labeled l2 when there is no mass to lift assuming counterweight is 0. 500-m away from the crane vertical beam

Answers

The mass of the crane required to balance the moment around the pivot point of the crane when there is no mass to lift and counterweight is 0.5 m away from the crane vertical beam is 0.5 t.

Given data: Length of the shorter side = l₁

= 3.5 m

Length of the longer side = l₂

= 4.5 m,

Counterweight = 0.5 t

Distance of the counterweight from the crane vertical beam = 0.5 m

First, we can calculate the total mass required to balance the moment around the pivot point of the crane.

Since there is no mass to lift, the mass of the crane required will be equal to the counterweight to balance the moment around the pivot point of the crane.

Using the principle of moments: Mass of the crane x distance of the crane from the pivot point = Counterweight x distance of the counterweight from the pivot point

Mass of the crane = (Counterweight x distance of the counterweight from the pivot point) / distance of the crane from the pivot point

Mass of the crane = (0.5 t x 0.5 m) / 0.5 m,

Mass of the crane = 0.5 t

Therefore, the mass of the crane required to balance the moment around the pivot point of the crane when there is no mass to lift and counterweight is 0.5 m away from the crane vertical beam is 0.5 t.

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A cart with a toy projectile launcher attached to its top travels forward at a constant speed vo. The launcher fires a solid sphere forward at speed much greater than that of the cart-launcher system. The cart's speed after firing the dart is

Answers

A cart with a toy projectile launcher attached to its top travels forward at a constant speed vo. The launcher fires a solid sphere forward at speed much greater than that of the cart-launcher system.

The force of the projectile is equal and opposite to the force experienced by the cart. Due to the law of conservation of momentum, the momentum of the system before the launch is equal to the momentum of the system after the launch. According to this law, the net momentum of the system is constant in the absence of external forces.

Before the launch, the momentum of the system (cart and launcher) is given by (m + M)*v o, where m is the mass of the projectile and M is the mass of the cart-launcher system. Since the projectile is fired forward at much greater velocity compared to the initial speed of the system, it will have a significant amount of momentum.

This is because the cart and the projectile have equal but opposite momentum, and therefore the cart's momentum after firing the dart is equal and opposite to its momentum before firing the dart, resulting in no net change in the cart's momentum.

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What is the angle between A and B, if A = 3.0i+5.0j and B = -3.0 i +7.0j Equation: A.B=AB cos 0

Answers

The angle between vectors A and B, with A = 3.0i + 5.0j and B = -3.0i + 7.0j, is approximately 40.12 degrees. This is calculated using the dot product formula and the inverse cosine function.

To find the angle between vectors A and B, we can use the dot product formula:

A · B = |A| |B| cos θ

where A · B is the dot product of vectors A and B, |A| and |B| are the magnitudes of vectors A and B, and θ is the angle between them.

Given A = 3.0i + 5.0j and B = -3.0i + 7.0j, we can calculate the magnitudes of A and B as:

|A| = sqrt((3.0)^2 + (5.0)^2) = sqrt(9 + 25) = sqrt(34)

|B| = sqrt((-3.0)^2 + (7.0)^2) = sqrt(9 + 49) = sqrt(58)

Next, we calculate the dot product A · B:

A · B = (3.0)(-3.0) + (5.0)(7.0) = -9 + 35 = 26

Now we can solve for the angle θ:

26 = sqrt(34) * sqrt(58) * cos θ

cos θ = 26 / (sqrt(34) * sqrt(58))

Using a calculator, we can find cos θ ≈ 0.7773.

Finally, we can find the angle θ by taking the inverse cosine of 0.7773:

[tex]\theta \approx cos^{-1}(0.7773)[/tex]

θ ≈ 40.12 degrees

Therefore, the angle between vectors A and B is approximately 40.12 degrees.

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if the box weighs 1500 n how much work does the force of gravity do on the box

Answers

According to the solving work does the force of gravity do on the box the force of gravity will do work of -7500000 J on the box.

moved by the force If an object is lifted upwards against the gravitational force, the work done by the force will be positive.

But if an object falls towards the ground, the force of gravity will do negative work on the object because the displacement is in the direction opposite to the force.

Let us assume that the box is dropped vertically downwards from a height (distance), and then the force of gravity acting on the box will do negative work on the box.

Given,

the weight of the box is 1500 N.

Work is given by the formula,

Work = Force x Distance

The work done by the force of gravity can be calculated as follows:

Work done = Force x Distance moved by the

force = 1500 x 5000

= 7500000 J

So, the force of gravity will do work of -7500000 J on the box.

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the system shown starts from rest and each component moves with a constant acceleration if the relative acceleration of block c with respect to collar b is 60 mm/s^2

Answers

Finally, we can use the equation of motion of block B to find the tension in the cord passing over the pulley B. Hence, the tension in the cord passing over pulley B is 80 N.

The acceleration of block C relative to collar B is 60 mm/s². If the system shown in the figure below starts from rest and each component moves with a constant acceleration, what is the tension in the cord passing over pulley B?

In the figure given below, the acceleration of the block C with respect to collar B is 60 mm/s². We need to find out the tension in the cord passing over pulley B. For that, let us consider each block individually.

Block A:There are two cords attached to block A, and hence the tension in the cords on either side of the block must be equal and opposite to the net force acting on the block. We know that the acceleration of each block is equal and constant. Since the system starts from rest, the initial velocity of block A is zero. Using the first equation of motion, we can find the final velocity of the block. Then using the second equation of motion, we can find the displacement of the block. Now, we can find the tension in the cords using the equation of motion of block A.

Block B:We know that the relative acceleration of block C with respect to block B is 60 mm/s². The only force acting on block B is the tension in the cord passing over the pulley. Using Newton's second law, we can find the tension in the cord passing over the pulley.

Block C:Using the same method as for block A, we can find the tension in the cord attached to block C. We can use the equation of motion of block C to find the tension.

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ello please show all work
and solutions, formulas etc. please try yo answer asap for huge
thumbs up!
6. Light with a wavelength of 590 nm is directed at a metal surface with a work function of 1.8 eV.to a) What is the Ex of the freed electrons? b) What will be the speed of the electrons? nododam 088

Answers

The Ex of the freed electrons is 1.21 eV and the speed of the electrons will be 6.44 × 105 m/s.

Given, The wavelength of the incident light, λ = 590 nm The work function of the metal surface, Φ = 1.8 eV We know that Energy of a photon is given as E = h c/λWhere,h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light in vacuum Therefore, E = (6.626 × 10-34 J s) (3 × 108 m/s) / (590 × 10-9 m) = 3.36 × 10-19 J The energy of the photon should be greater than or equal to the work function of the metal surface in order to release the electrons. Hence, we can write E ≥ ΦTherefore,3.36 × 10-19 J ≥ 1.8 eV Thus, the Ex of the freed electrons is 1.21 eV.

Now, we can find the velocity of the electron using the formula, where m is the mass of the electron and h is Planck’s constant and λ is the wavelength of the incident light. The de Broglie wavelength of the electron is given byλ = h / p where p is the momentum of the electron Therefore, p = h/λ = (6.626 × 10-34 J s) / (590 × 10-9 m) = 1.124 × 10-24 J s The kinetic energy of the electron is given by K.E = E – Φ = (3.36 × 10-19 J) – (1.8 eV) = 1.56 × 10-19 J The velocity of the electron is given by v = sqrt(2 K.E / m)where m is the mass of the electron Substituting the values, we ge tv = sqrt(2 × 1.56 × 10-19 J / 9.1 × 10-31 kg) = 6.44 × 105 m/s Therefore, the speed of the electrons is 6.44 × 105 m/s.

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Determine the head loss for the clean filter bed in stratified
condition
The sand described in the following analysis is to be used in a rapid sand filter with characteristics as given below. Determine the head loss for the clean filter bed in a stratified condition. Sand

Answers

The head loss for the clean filter bed in a stratified condition needs to be determined based on the given characteristics of the sand and the filter.

How can the head loss for the clean filter bed in a stratified condition be determined?

To determine the head loss for the clean filter bed in a stratified condition, several factors need to be considered. These include the characteristics of the sand being used, such as its particle size distribution, uniformity coefficient, effective size, and porosity.

The head loss is a measure of the pressure drop across the filter bed due to the flow of water through the bed. It depends on the flow rate, the properties of the sand, and the bed depth. In a stratified condition, the flow pattern and distribution of the water through the filter bed are non-uniform, leading to variations in the head loss.

To calculate the head loss, various empirical equations and models can be used, such as the Hazen-Williams equation or the Darcy-Weisbach equation. These equations consider factors such as flow velocity, hydraulic diameter, and friction factor to estimate the head loss.

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what is the energy of an orange lamp with a frequency of 5.10 x 10^14 hz

Answers

The energy of an orange lamp with a frequency of [tex]5.10 * 10^{14}[/tex] Hz is [tex]3.38 * 10^{-19}[/tex] J (joules).

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to the frequency of light. This can be expressed mathematically as:

E = hν

where: E is the energy of a photon (in joules)h is Planck's constant ([tex]6.626 * 10^{-34}[/tex]J s)ν is the frequency of light (in hertz)Thus, the energy of an orange lamp with a frequency of [tex]5.10 * 10^{14}[/tex] Hz can be calculated as follows:

E = hν = ([tex]6.626 * 10^{-34}[/tex] J s) x ([tex]5.10 * 10^{14}[/tex] Hz)

= [tex]3.38 * 10^{-19}[/tex] J

Therefore, the energy of an orange lamp with a frequency of [tex]5.10 * 10^{14}[/tex] Hz is [tex]3.38 * 10^{-19}[/tex] J.

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the magnetic field at the center of a 0.800-cm-diameter loop is 2.40 mt .

Answers

The magnetic field at the center of a 0.800-cm-diameter loop is 2.40 mT or 0.00240 T.

The formula for calculating the magnetic field produced by a loop is given by: B = μ0I / (2r) Where: B = magnetic field μ0 = permeability of free space I = current 2r = diameter of the loop

Substitute the given values to obtain the magnetic field: B = μ0I / (2r)B = 4π × 10-7 T m/A x I / (2 × 0.008 m)B = 2π × 10-7 T mA-1 x I / 0.008 mB = 0.002 π I mT

The magnetic field produced by the loop is given as 2.40 mT. Therefore:

2.40 mT = 0.002 π I mT ⇒ I = 2.40 × 10-3 / 0.002 π AI = 0.383 A

Therefore, the magnetic field produced by a 0.800-cm-diameter loop with a current of 0.383 A at its center is 2.40 mT or 0.00240 T.

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what is true about Young's double-slit experiment?
a) light waves emerging from the 2 slits have the same phase but
are not coherent
b) not the same phase & not coherent
c) same phase & cohere

Answers

True about Young's double-slit experiment: The light waves emerging from the two slits have the same phase and are coherent. The correct option is c.

In Young's double-slit experiment, a beam of light is passed through two narrow slits, creating two coherent sources of light. These two sources generate overlapping wavefronts that interfere with each other. The interference pattern observed on a screen placed behind the slits is a result of the constructive and destructive interference of the light waves.

For interference to occur, the light waves from the two slits must have the same phase. If they have different phases, the interference pattern would not be observed. Coherence refers to the property of waves having a constant phase relationship, which is necessary for stable and predictable interference patterns.

Therefore, in Young's double-slit experiment, the light waves emerging from the two slits have the same phase and are coherent, as stated in option c.

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will a negative charge, initially at rest, move toward higher or lower potential? explain why.

Answers

A negative charge, initially at rest, will move toward a higher potential. The reason behind it is that the content loaded will have a negative charge on it.

According to the definition, potential energy refers to the energy stored in an object because of its position in a gravitational or electric field. Charges naturally tend to move from areas of high potential energy to areas of low potential energy.

Hence, due to the negative charge, it will naturally be attracted to the positively charged areas and move towards them.

The potential difference (V) between two points in an electric field is defined as the change in potential energy (U) of a charge (q) divided by the charge (q) that moves:

V = ΔU/q

The potential difference between two points is calculated by dividing the difference in potential energy of the charge by the charge's quantity.

As a result, negative charges always move towards higher-potential energy regions.

The answer is that a negative charge, initially at rest, will move toward higher potential due to its negatively charged nature.

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how many different quantum states are possible for an electron whose principal quantum number is n = 3?

Answers

The number of possible quantum states increases with increasing values of n, l, and ml.

When the principal quantum number of an electron is n=3, how many different quantum states are possible?

When the principal quantum number of an electron is n=3, the number of possible quantum states is 9.

Quantum state refers to the state of an electron as determined by its quantum numbers, which are the principal quantum number (n), azimuthal quantum number (l), magnetic quantum number (ml), and spin quantum number (ms).

The principal quantum number determines the energy level and size of the electron's orbital, while the azimuthal quantum number defines its shape and orbital angular momentum. The magnetic quantum number determines its orientation in space, and the spin quantum number specifies the direction of its spin.

When the principal quantum number of an electron is n=3, the number of possible quantum states is 9. The quantum state of an electron is determined by its principal quantum number, azimuthal quantum number, magnetic quantum number, and spin quantum number. The principal quantum number determines the energy level and size of the electron's orbital, while the azimuthal quantum number defines its shape and orbital angular momentum. The magnetic quantum number determines its orientation in space, and the spin quantum number specifies the direction of its spin. Therefore, when n=3, there are 9 possible quantum states.

In conclusion, the number of possible quantum states increases with increasing values of n, l, and ml.

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Does magnetic flux density and magnetic field intensity have the
same direction? This is for an essay.

Answers

Magnetic flux density and magnetic field intensity do not necessarily have the same direction.

Magnetic field intensity and magnetic flux density are two fundamental concepts in the study of magnetic fields. The magnetic field intensity is the measure of the magnetic field strength at any point in space, while the magnetic flux density is the amount of magnetic flux per unit area. Both concepts are vector quantities, meaning that they have both magnitude and direction. The direction of the magnetic field intensity and magnetic flux density can vary based on the position in space and the orientation of the magnet or current carrying conductor producing the magnetic field. Therefore, it is possible for them to have different directions. However, in a uniform magnetic field, where the magnetic field intensity and magnetic flux density are constant throughout the field, the two quantities will have the same direction.

The amount of magnetizing force is the magnetic field strength (H). Attractive transition thickness (B) is how much attractive power instigated on the given body because of the charging force H. Porousness is the proportion of the capacity of a material to help the development of an attractive field inside itself.

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a particular type of cloud. please select the best answer that identifies this cloud type. in addition to slide 20 in the online lecture on moisture

Answers

The cloud type that identifies as a particular type of cloud is cumulus cloud. Cumulus clouds are often seen in the afternoon when the sun is high in the sky and the air is warm. They can also be seen in the morning when the air is cool and moist.

Cumulus clouds are a particular type of cloud. Cumulus clouds are fluffy, white clouds with flat bases and rounded tops. They resemble large cotton balls and are made up of water droplets. Cumulus clouds can appear as single clouds or as a group of clouds. They can be formed by rising air currents in the atmosphere, which can cause water droplets to condense and form clouds. Cumulus clouds are often seen on sunny days when the air is warm and moist. They are typically associated with fair weather and can be an indicator of good weather conditions.

In meteorology, cumulus clouds are low-level clouds that are typically seen on sunny days when the air is warm and moist. They are made up of water droplets and can appear as single clouds or as a group of clouds. Cumulus clouds are typically associated with fair weather and can be an indicator of good weather conditions. They can also be associated with thunderstorms and other severe weather conditions. Cumulus clouds are formed by rising air currents in the atmosphere, which can cause water droplets to condense and form clouds. When the air is warm and moist, it rises and cools, causing the water vapor to condense and form a cloud. As the cloud grows, it can create rain or other precipitation. Cumulus clouds can take on many different shapes and sizes, depending on the atmospheric conditions. They can be large and towering, or small and puffy. They can also be flat on the bottom or have rounded tops. Overall, cumulus clouds are an important part of the atmospheric system and play a key role in determining weather conditions.

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If the coefficient of kinetic friction between a 22-kg crate and the floor is 0.30, what horizontal force is required to move the crate at a steady speed across the floor? What horizontal force is req

Answers

The horizontal force required to move the crate at a steady speed across the floor is 65.1 N. This calculation is based on the coefficient of kinetic friction and the weight of the crate.

To calculate the horizontal force required to move the crate at a steady speed, we need to consider the force of friction acting on the crate. The force of friction can be determined using the equation:

F_friction = μ * F_normal

Where:

F_friction is the force of friction

μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction

F_normal is the normal force

Given data:

Mass of the crate (m) = 22 kg

Coefficient of kinetic friction (μ) = 0.30

Step 1: Calculate the normal force.

The normal force (F_normal) is equal to the weight of the crate, which can be calculated using the equation:

F_normal = m * g

Where:

g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²)

F_normal = 22 kg * 9.8 m/s²

Step 2: Calculate the force of friction.

Using the coefficient of kinetic friction and the normal force, we can calculate the force of friction:

F_friction = μ * F_normal

F_friction = 0.30 * (22 kg * 9.8 m/s²)

Step 3: Determine the horizontal force required.

To move the crate at a steady speed across the floor, the applied force must overcome the force of friction. The horizontal force required is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the force of friction:

Force required = F_friction

= 0.30 * (22 kg * 9.8 m/s²)

Calculating the expression, we find:

Force required ≈ 65.1 N

The horizontal force required to move the 22-kg crate at a steady speed across the floor, considering a coefficient of kinetic friction of 0.30, is approximately 65.1 N. This calculation is based on the coefficient of kinetic friction and the weight of the crate. The force of friction opposes the motion of the crate, and the applied force must overcome it to maintain a constant speed. The calculation allows for an understanding of the force required to move objects on surfaces with a given coefficient of friction, aiding in the planning and design of systems involving motion and friction.

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A ball of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards from a point 2m above ground level with a speed of 14m/s.
a. With an origin at ground level, find the total mechanical energy of the ball when it is travelling at speed v m/s at a heigh h m.
b. Assuming that mechanical energy is conserved show that v^2+20h=236
c. Calculate the greatest height reached by the ball
d. Calculate the speed with which the ball hits the ground

Answers

a. The total mechanical energy of the ball when it is traveling at speed v m/s at a height h m is given by E_total = (1/2)mv^2 + mgh.

b. Assuming that mechanical energy is conserved, we can derive the equation v^2 + 20h = 236.

c. The greatest height reached by the ball is approximately 10.4 m.

d. The speed with which the ball hits the ground is approximately 14.14 m/s.

a. The total mechanical energy of the ball is the sum of its kinetic energy and potential energy. The kinetic energy is given by (1/2)mv^2, where m is the mass of the ball (100g = 0.1kg) and v is its speed. The potential energy is given by mgh, where h is the height of the ball. Therefore, the total mechanical energy is E_total = (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(h).

b. Assuming mechanical energy is conserved, we equate the initial mechanical energy (when the ball is at the starting point) to the final mechanical energy (when the ball is at height h). The initial mechanical energy is E_initial = (1/2)(0.1)(14^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(2) = 98 + 1.96 = 99.96 J. The final mechanical energy is E_final = (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(h). By equating these two expressions, we have 99.96 = (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(h). Simplifying this equation gives v^2 + 20h = 236.

c. To calculate the greatest height reached by the ball, we set the final mechanical energy equal to the initial mechanical energy: (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(h) = 99.96. Since the ball reaches its highest point, its final speed is zero. Thus, the equation becomes (0.1)(9.8)(h) = 99.96, which gives h = 99.96 / (0.1)(9.8) = 102.04 / 9.8 ≈ 10.4 m.

d. To calculate the speed with which the ball hits the ground, we set the final mechanical energy equal to the initial mechanical energy: (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) + (0.1)(9.8)(h) = 99.96. Since the ball hits the ground, its height is zero. Thus, the equation becomes (1/2)(0.1)(v^2) = 99.96, which gives v^2 = 199.92. Taking the square root of both sides gives v ≈ 14.14 m/s.

a. The total mechanical energy of the ball when it is traveling at speed v m/s at a height h m is given by E_total = (1/2)mv^2 + mgh.

b. Assuming that mechanical energy is conserved, we can derive the equation v^2 + 20h = 236.

c. The greatest height reached by the ball is approximately 10.4 m.

d. The speed with which the ball hits the ground is approximately 14.14 m/s.

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