Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are similar in neuroticism, extraversion, and temperament
Are identical twins actually fraternal twins?
Fraternal twins are not identical twins since they were created when two different eggs were fertilized by two different sperm cells at the same time. Identical twins are produced when a fertilized egg divides in two; one egg, one sperm, and two offspring.
Why are fraternal twins special?
Identical or monozygotic twins share 100% of their DNA, whereas fraternal twins only share about 50%. They are therefore genetically identical to non-twin siblings.
How rare is it to have a fraternal twin?
The likelihood of having identical twins is about 3 in 1,000 worldwide, while the prevalence of fraternal twins varies by region and might be anywhere from 6 and 20 per 1,000 deliveries.
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What is the meaning of the idiom yellow journalism?.
Using sensationalism and grotesque exaggeration to draw readers and make news eye catching in is known as "yellow journalism."
Yellow journalism, often known as yellow press, refers to journalism and related newspapers that show little to no real, in-depth news in favour of employing eye catchy headlines to boost readership. Techniques could involve sensationalising, exaggerating newsworthy occurrences, or some combination of these. When it was at its height in the late 19th century, it was one of several elements that influenced the United States and Spain to go to war.
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What type of mutation occurs in DNA sequence?.
A gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. Mutations range in size; they can affect anywhere from a single DNA.
A genetic mutation is a change in a sequence of your DNA. Your DNA sequence gives your cells the information they need to perform their functions. If part of your DNA sequence is in the wrong place, isn’t complete or is damaged, you might experience symptoms of a genetic condition.
Gene mutations are changes in single DNA bases, or small intragenic deletions and rearrangements. The classification of gene mutations is often used interchangeably with point mutations although, genetically, they may comprise different events. Point mutations refer to single base changes, or insertions or deletions of one or a few bases, whereas gene mutations refer to base change or intragenic additions, deletions, or rearrangements that disrupt normal gene function.
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Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
a. pollen
b. gametophyte
c. alternation of generations
d. ovules
e. integumentsc. alternation of generations
Gametophyte is not a trait that sets gymnosperms and angiosperms apart from other plants.
Explain about the Gametophyte?The sexual phase (or a person representing the phase) in the alternation of generations a phenomenon in which two separate phases occur in the life history of the organism, one creating the other—is known as a gametophyte in plants and some algae. The sporophyte is the non-sexual stage.
A gametophyte is the fern that comes to mind when you think of Jurassic Park or a forest floor. The beautiful, fringed leaves are haploid, which means they have just one pair of chromosomes and, like all gametophyte plants, produce sex cells during mitosis.
Gametophyte refers to the sexual stage of a plant or alga's life cycle. It develops haploid sex cells called gametes, sexual organs that release them, and haploid zygotes, which have two sets of chromosomes and participate in fertilization, are produced.
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why does it make sense that our host defenses are primed to respond to lipopolysaccharide and peptidoglycan?
Our host defenses are primed to respond to lipopolysaccharide and peptidoglycan as they are unique to Bacterial cells( Pathogens).
What are Pathogens?
A pathogen is an organism that causes disease in its host, and the severity of the disease symptoms is referred to as virulence. Pathogens are taxonomically diverse, including viruses, bacteria, and unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes.
Pathogens, including bacteria, affect every living organism and are targeted by specialized viruses known as phages.
Pathogens are classified into two types: facultative pathogens and obligate pathogens, based on how closely their life cycle is linked to their host.
Facultative pathogens are organisms that can reproduce in a variety of environments, including the host. Facultative pathogens are primarily environmental bacteria and fungi that can cause infection on rare occasions.
Obligate pathogens need a host to complete their life cycle. All viruses are obligate pathogens because their reproduction is dependent on the cellular machinery of their host. Obligate pathogens include bacteria, which cause tuberculosis and syphilis, as well as protozoans (which cause malaria) and macro-parasites.
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Help- Which option identifies what the families are monitoring in the following scenario?
A dry summer caused some families to worry about how much water they had in their wells. Some carefully monitored
to make sure the wells did not dry up.
O fossil aquifer
O surface water
O water table
O ground water
Answer:
Ground water
Explanation:
A broad definition of ______ is changes in traits from generation to generation.
Evolution is the process by which a population of organisms changes as new generations replace ancestors. Individual species do not evolve; rather, communities of organisms do.
Evolution is the gradual change in the inherited traits of biological populations over many generations. These traits are the expressions of genes that are transmitted from parent to offspring during reproduction, as seen in . Genetic recombination and mutation frequently result in variation within a population. Evolution occurs when this variety is subjected to evolutionary processes like natural selection (including sexual selection) and genetic drift, which cause some traits to become more prevalent or less prevalent within a population. Heritable traits evolve over successive generations as a result of shifting evolutionary pressures that determine whether a trait is prevalent or rare within a population. At every level of biological organization, biodiversity is a result of this process of evolution.
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How do citizens participate in a direct democracy and representative democracy?.
The citizens can participate in a direct democracy and representative democracy by the act of voting.
Direct democracy is the form of democracy that allows citizens to vote directly on constitutional amendments, laws, treaties, or policies. It is said to be the pure form of democracy. All the laws, bills, and even court decisions are voted on by all citizens.
Voting is the process by which a group of people express an opinion, make a collective decision, and express their views in the form of a decision or representative or leader. Voting by citizens of a country is very important because it makes them aware of the importance and power of citizenship.
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What is Phoebus Levene known for?.
He isolated the nucleotides, the basic building blocks of the nucleic acid molecule, and in 1909 he isolated the five-carbon sugar d-ribose from the ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecule.
If the water molecule concentration outside the cell is higher than the inside of the cell, the solution outside of the cell is _______.
Answer: hypertonic.
Explanation: If the water molecule concentration outside the cell is higher than the inside of the cell, the solution outside of the cell is hypertonic.
What processes during the cell cycle ensures appropriate cell growth and rates of division? Malfunction of these processes can lead to uncontrolled growth and cancer.
(A) centrioles
(B) checkpoints
(C) interphases
(D) crossing over events
What are the 4 types of mutations?.
Four types of Mutations:
Gene Variations
Four types of Mutations
Somatic mutagenesis
Germinal Variation
A mutations is a long-lasting alteration to the DNA's nucleotide sequence that can occur during replication and/or recombination. Damaged DNA can change by base pair replacement, deletion, or insertion. The majority of the time, mutations are benign, unless they result in tumor growth or cell death. Cells have developed systems for repairing damaged DNA due to the deadly potential of DNA mutations.
Different Mutations
Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.
1. Base Replacements
Point mutations are single nucleotide replacements; you may recall the point mutation Glu ——-> Val is the culprit of sickle cell anemia. There are two types of point mutations, the most prevalent .
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how many chromosomes are present in a normal human somatic cell after the s phase of interphase is complete? explain your response.
In a human, 46 chromosomes will be present after the S phase.
What are chromosomes?A chromosome is a long DNA molecule that contains some or all of an organism's genetic material. The very long thin DNA fibres in most chromosomes are coated with packaging proteins; the most important of these proteins in eukaryotic cells are the histones. These proteins, with the help of chaperone proteins, bind to and condense the DNA molecule in order to keep it intact. These chromosomes have a complex three-dimensional structure that is important in transcriptional regulation.
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thyroid-stimulating hormone (tsh) is a long-distance signaling molecule released by the anterior pituitary gland. once released, tsh travels through the bloodstream to the thyroid gland, where it binds to g protein-coupled receptors called tsh receptors. this binding initiates signal transduction pathways that produce two thyroid hormones, t3 and t4. in individuals with hypothyroidism, tsh is released by the pituitary gland normally, but these individuals have consistently low levels of t3 and t4. which of the following best explains why individuals with hypothyroidism have low levels of t3 and t4?
Individuals with hypothyroidism have low levels of t3 and t4 because a mutation in their TSH receptors decreases TSH recognition, resulting in decreased signal transduction.
T4 and T3 secretion from the thyroid is reduced in primary hypothyroidism. Low serum T4 and T3 concentrations are accompanied by elevated TSH levels. Autoimmune disease is the most frequent cause in the US. Usually, Hashimoto thyroiditis is the cause.
You may have hypothyroidism, a condition in which your body doesn't produce enough thyroid hormone if your T3 levels are low. To assist in the diagnosis of thyroid illness, T3 test results are frequently matched with T4 and TSH test findings.
Your doctor will order a thyroid function panel to see if you have hypothyroidism. T4 and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone levels are gauged by this blood test for the thyroid (TSH).
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What is the use of spray bottle in cleaning?.
Spray bottles are excellent for applying cleaning agents to soils that are challenging for brushes, pads, cloths, and sponges to reach.
Where do spray bottles get their use?A bottle that can squirt, spray, or mist liquids is called a spray bottle. Spray bottles are frequently used to dispense cold cleansers, cosmetics, and chemical-specific products. Spray bottles are frequently used to dilute concentrations with water, such as pine oil.
How is a spray bottle nozzle cleaned?Remove the nozzle, run it under hot water to soften the resins, and clean it to unclog it.
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which of the following pairs is mismatched? question 17 options: non-pathogenic enterobacteriaceae; salmonella, shigella coliform enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters non-coliform enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters coliform enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic patho
The mismatched pair among the following group of pairs is non-pathogenic Enterobacteriaceae matched with salmonella, shigella.
Enterobacteriaceae is a group of bacteria which are mostly Gram negative stain bacteria and majority of them are pathogenic in nature. Both Salmonella and Shigella are pathogenic and hence they cannot be matched with non-pathogenic Enterobacteriaceae. These are facultative anaerobes and are able to ferment glucose into acid and hence they are oxidase negative. The pathogenic bacteria cause Urinary Tract Infections. The differences in bacteria is based on their reactivity with other chemical compounds and antigenic structures. These class of bacteria is antibiotic resistant. Most of them are motile, non capsulated except Shigella and Klebsiella respectively.
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the layers of tissue in the kidney vary in their osmolality of solute in the tissue. arrange the three layers from low to high osmolality below:
The arrangement of the layers from low to high osmolality: Cortex < Outer Medulla < Inner Medulla
The kidney is a pea-shaped organ about the size of a fist. The kidneys are located behind the stomach or abdomen. Kidneys as excretory organs have the following functions Filtering and Disposing of Waste, Controlling Water Balance, Raising Blood Pressure and Salt Levels
The kidney consists of three layers namely cortex, outer medulla and inner medulla. Renal cortex. The cortex or kidney of the renal cortex is the outermost part of the kidney. Medulla consists of two parts, the outer medulla and the inner medulla. Medulla is the delicate tissue that is inside the kidney. The medullary structure consists of the kidney wall which includes the nephrons and tubules, as well as the medullary canal.
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which of the following would pgd not be performed on? which of the following would pgd not be performed on? an 8 celled embryo in vitro a skin cell from a baby a 9 week fetus in utero a sperm cell
A sperm cell, a 9-week-old fetus in utero, and a baby skin cell would not be subjected to PGD.
What dangers do PGDs pose?Most of the dangers of PGD therapy are comparable to those of traditional IVF: Fertility drug reaction: mild reactions may cause hot flushes, a down or irritable feeling, headaches, and restlessness; symptoms typically go away quickly.
What conditions is PGD capable of detecting?Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, Tay-Sachs, and Huntington's disease are just a few of the more than 400 single-gene diseases that can be tested for using preimplantation genetic diagnosis. PGD can diagnose conditions that could be fatal to an unborn child or infant as well as conditions that might not manifest in children until they are older.
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How does a salad bar or refrigerator have to be to keep food safe?.
You may utilize a mechanically refrigerated unit to keep the temperature of your salad bar at 41°F or below.
Don't leave food out at room temperature because this encourages the growth of bacteria. Foods should be preserved using one of the following methods: on ice, in a refrigerator, or refrigerator display case.
Hold chilled foods at 41°F or lower at all times. If you can keep them at or below 40°F, fish, shellfish, poultry, milk, and red meat will stay safe for longer. Check the temperature of the food in coolers and salad bars using the metal stem thermometer. A probe thermometer should be used to check the temperature at least once every four hours. Ensure that the lighting in the holding unit is placed enough away from the food to prevent heating.
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if a recessive disease is found in 50 out of 100,000 individuals, what is the frequency of the heterozygote carriers for this disease?
2pq is equivalent to the frequency of heterozygous people. This time, 2pq is equal to 0.32.
A heterozygous carrier's frequency can be determined in several ways.the proportion of people who are heterozygous. The frequency of heterozygous people is 2pq, to be precise. In this instance, 2pq = 0.32, which indicates that the percentage of people who are heterozygous for this gene is equal to 32% (2 (0.8)(0.2) = 0.32).
From allele frequency, how do you determine heterozygosity?Expected heterozygosity for a 2-allele system (Hexp = 2pq) as a function of allele frequency, p. It should be noted that when the allele frequencies are equal (p=q), the heterozygosity peaks at a value of 0.5.
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Wolves are natural predators of deer, but wolf populations are not found in any of the three forests in the diagram. Identify the forest in which the diversity of plants would be most affected by the reintroduction of wolves and explain how reintroducing wolves would cause that effect.The response identifies the forest in which the diversity of plants would be most affected by the reintroduction of wolves as forest A and explains how reintroducing wolves would control/decrease the deer population and prevent the deer from overgrazing, which will allow the plant diversity/amount of vegetation in Forest A to increase/recover.
The response identifies Forest A as the forest where the reintroduction of wolves would have the greatest impact on plant diversity. Also explains the effect of wolves in controlling deer population.
It then goes on to explain how the reintroduction of wolves would reduce/control the deer population and stop the deer from overgrazing, allowing Forest A's plant diversity/amount of vegetation to grow/recover. Wolves devote a lot of time and effort on raising their comparatively small number of young. Wolves are K-selected species/K-strategists, according to the answer, which describes their reproductive strategy. In order to maintain a healthy ecology, wolves are essential. They aid in regulating elk and deer populations, which is advantageous to numerous other plant and animal species. The carcasses of their victims also aid in redistributing nutrients and provide as food for scavengers and other animal species, including grizzly bears.
The complete question is:
The diagram below illustrates three ecological communities that are isolated but in close proximity to one another. The density of the deer population in each community differs, as indicated in the diagram. (C) Wolves are natural predators of deer, but wolf populations are not found in any of the three forests in the diagram. Identify the forest in which the diversity of plants would be most affected by the reintroduction of wolves and explain how reintroducing wolves would cause that effect.
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both these light micrographs (a and b) show chromosomes in metaphase of meiosis state in what way they are different
Determine which cell is in interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase in the light micrograph below of dividing cells close to the onion root's tip.
When do the chromosomes start to show up under a light microscope during mitosis?prophase
Prophase is the time when chromosomes are visible. During the interphase stage, chromatin is at its least compacted state. It starts to condense during prophase and is evident all the way through cell division.
When do chromosomes wind up enough to be visible under a light microscope during mitosis?Each replicated chromosome appears as two identical sister chromatids connected at their centromeres, the mitotic spindle starts to form, and the chromatin fibers condense into chromosomes that are visible under a light microscope.
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explain the exchange of fluid at the two ends of a capillary. include these terms in your discussion: interstitial fluid, osmotic pressure, and blood pressure.
This diagram shows a hypothetical capillary where the blood pressure exceeds the osmotic pressure over the length of the capillary. In other capillaries, the blood pressure may be lower than the osmotic pressure along all or part of the capillary.
What is capillary exchange?Capillary exchange describes the transfer of substances from the blood into the capillary's tissues. The passage of chemicals from the blood into the capillary's tissues is referred to as capillary exchange. Diffusion, transcytosis, and bulk flow are the three mechanisms that promote capillary exchange. Three mechanisms—diffusion, transcytosis, and bulk flow—encourage capillary exchange. Exchange Mechanisms in Capillaries the most common process, diffusion, permits tiny molecules to pass through capillaries, including glucose, oxygen, and carbon dioxide from the blood into the tissues, as well as from the tissues into the blood. Because the interstitium and blood have different gradients, molecules move from highly concentrated regions to low-concentrated ones throughout this process. Large, lipid-insoluble molecules pass capillary membranes via a process called transcytosis. The osmotic pressure imposed by the plasma or the proteins in interstitial fluid is known as oncotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure, also referred to as fluid pressure, is the result of fluid, such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid, pressing against the capillary walls. The net flow of fluid across the capillary membrane is controlled by the net filtration pressure, which is the equilibrium of the four Starling forces. Because of the pressure of the blood in the capillaries, which promotes a net flow of fluid from the blood vessels into the interstitium, blood hydrostatic pressure is higher than the hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid.
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Which are examples of prokaryotic cells? Select all that apply.
E-coli cells
streptococcus cells
maple leaf cell
human skin cell
Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most probably mean?.
The sentence 'proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms' means D) cells with proton pumps were maintained in each Kingdom by natural selection.
In the field of science, natural selection is the process by which those traits that are favorable are passed to the offspring.
Proton pumps proved to be a favorable source for members of each kingdom. Each group of organisms belonging to each kingdom used proton pumps for carrying of materials into and out of a cell.
Hence, due to natural selection, proton pumps was a feature that was passed from parents to offspring and was maintained by natural selection.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most probably mean?
Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most
probably mean?
A) Proton pumps must have evolved before any living organisms were present on the earth.
B) Proton pumps are fundamental to all cell types.
C) The high concentration of protons in the ancient atmosphere must have necessitated a pump mechanism.
D) Cells with proton pumps were maintained in each Kingdom by natural selection.
E) Proton pumps are necessary to all cell membranes.
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which sequence of events is most correct for the initiation and elongation steps of translation in eukaryotes?
The steps of translation in eukaryotes protein synthesis consists of three stages, namely initiation (beginning), elongation and termination of the mRNA chain. The question was incomplete, this is a general answer.
Translation process in eukaryotesUpon initiation, the small ribosomal subunit binds to the start of the mRNA sequence. Then, a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule carrying the amino acid methionine binds to the start codon of the mRNA sequence.
During the elongation stage, the ribosome will continuously translate each codon in turn. The appropriate amino acids are added to the elongated chain and linked by peptide bonds. Elongation continues until all codons are read.
After the ribosome reaches the last codon or stop codon which functions as a stop signal (UAA, UAG, and UGA), termination occurs. This is because no tRNA molecule can recognize this codon, and the ribosome will stop the translation process.
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A spider has several eyes. what is the main function of these organs?
A spider has several eyes. the main function of the eye organ in spiders is to focus vision on prey and gather details about their surroundings.
Explanation of the spider's eye organThe spider's main eye, which is located at the front, is useful for focusing vision on prey and gathering details about its surroundings. In addition, the spider's main eye also has muscles that can move the retina to detect or track images.
Meanwhile, the secondary eyes which are located around the head serve to support the primary eyes so that the spider has a greater viewing angle.
For most species of spiders, additional eyes serve as a tool for analyzing and detecting the movement of spider prey and predators around them.
However, the spider's extra eyes can also serve to measure distances. Because the secondary eyes of spiders have a layer of retroreflector tissue called the tapetum lucidum.
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a ph versus rate curve with an inflection point at ph~4 suggests the involvement of a(n) in the catalytic step.
An inflection point in the pH versus rate curve at pH-10 indicates that a step—metal ion-dependent catalytic proton abstraction—is involved.
What are the four catalytic methods that many enzymes employ?Covalent catalysis, catalysis by proximity and orientation, acid-base catalysis, and metal ion catalysis are some of these methods. In covalent catalysis, a transient covalent link is created by the catalytic residue within the active site.
What is the chymotrypsin catalytic triad?The catalytic triad, a group of three amino acids, is present in chymotrypsin. Serine 195, histidine 57, and aspartate 102 make up this trio. Together, these amino acids perform the catalytic task of rupturing peptide bonds.
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In selecting recombinant bacteria, cells are chosen that are resistant to a specific antibiotic. How are the bacteria made resistant?.
The antibiotic resistance gene is encoded on donor insert. They are pre-selected for experiment on this basis.
Antimicrobial resistance is accelerated when presence of antibiotics and antifungals pressure bacteria and fungi to adapt.Antibiotics and antifungals kill some germs that cause infections, but they also kill helpful germs that protect our body from the infection.The resistance genes are located on plasmids which have ability to transfer in vitro, and the plasmids in E. coli play an important role in multiple antibiotic resistance linked transfer.Adding an antibiotic resistance gene to plasmid solves both problems at once – it allows a scientist to easily detect plasmid-containing bacteria when cells are grown on selective media, and provides those bacteria with a pressure to keep your plasmid.learn more about recombinant bacteria at https://brainly.com/question/13543389
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How do pigs control their body temperature?.
Pigs then increase their respiratory rate to maintain a stable body temperature, relying primarily on evaporative heat loss.
How do pigs control their body temperatures?A pig controls its body temperature by cooling its skin and panting. Panting increases airflow and causes the water in the lungs to evaporate, which generates heat.
Can pigs control their body temperature?Pigs are homeothermic animals because they can maintain their deep body temperature within specific bounds despite a wide range of climate variations. The physiological process known as thermoregulation enables a balance between heat generation and heat loss systems.
What keeps a pig warm?Pigs are completely hairless, with only minimal fat serving as insulation.
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If a replication error is detected in g2, which strand of dna should be used as a template for repair by dna polymerase and why should that strand be used?.
Answer: fnfnenfnefneff
Explanation:efeffefeffefe