Of four different usability tests, the Validation test is that which will interact with users to determine if 80% of the users can retrieve the correct lab results within 10 seconds of interacting with the system and if users can complete admission orders for a patient with no errors.
What is usability testing?Usability testing is described as a technique used in user-centered interaction design to evaluate a product by testing it on users.
The importance of the usability tests is that it enables you to evaluate your product or service with real users and enables you to create human-centric products. It also individuals or organizations to really explore and analyze your target audience's behavior when interacting with your product.
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a medical assistant is measuring the circumference of an infant's head. which of the following actions should the assistant take
The action that the medical assistant should follow is to place the zero mark of the measuring tape against the infant's forehead.
Who is a medical assistant?A medical assistant is defined as the individual that is professionally trained and is licensed to offer assistance to physicians with the purpose of rendering an effective care to patients.
The roles and responsibilities of a medical assistant Include the following:
Taking medical histories.Explaining treatment procedures to patients.Preparing patients for examinations.Assisting the physician during examinations.Collecting and preparing laboratory specimens.Performing basic laboratory tests.Instructing patients about medication and special diets.The circumference of an infant's head is one of the physical assessments that is be carried out in infants that are suspected to have nutritional deficiencies.
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a client is brought to the emergency department with a blood glucose level of 19 mg/dl. what drug should the nurse prepare to administer intravenously?
A patient with such a blood glucose of 19 mg/dl is taken to the emergency room, prompting the nurse to make Glucagon.
What is blood glucose?The level of glucose of humans or other animals is referred to as "glycaemia," sometimes known as "blood sugar," "glucose levels concentrations," and "blood glucose level." A 70 kg person's blood contains 4 grams or less of the simple sugar glucose at all times. Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar levels, may be a symptom of diabetes, a condition that can lead to serious, life-long health issues. Other diseases, such as issues with the pancreas or adrenal glands, that might impact insulin and blood glucose in your blood can also contribute to high blood sugar.
What is normal level of glucose in blood and how should it be controlled?Fasting blood glucose levels of 99 mg/dL and under are regarded as normal, levels of 100 mg/dL to 125 mg/dL as prediabetic levels, and levels of 126 mg/dL or more as diabetes levels.
A balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, keeping a healthy weight, or engaging in physical activity all can assist control the blood glucose level. Keep an eye on your blood glucose levels to determine what causes it to rise or fall.
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you are dispatched to the local elementary school for an injured student. upon arrival, you find that two 7-year-olds got into a fight and one of them jabbed a pencil in the other's cheek. the pencil is still sticking out of the child's cheek. when you examine the patient, you cannot see the end of the pencil that went through the cheek, as it appears to be stuck in the palate. there is not significant bleeding, and the child is not having any difficulty breathing. the child is very upset and wants you to pull the pencil out. what should you do?
Stabilize the object rather than attempting to remove it if the child is extremely upset and demands that you remove the pencil.
What does being angry mean?When you are upset, something negative has happened to you, making you unpleasant or dissatisfied. After she passed away, I was incredibly heartbroken. Marta seemed distressed. Similar words: upset, unsettled, disturbed, and concerned More words for upset
Does upset imply sobs?Many people cry when they're angry, frustrated, or ashamed. When you're angry, your body releases a barrage of hormones that cause a variety of intense physical reactions, such as short-term memory loss, sweaty hands, and a beating heart. You may cry in reaction to the increased stress.
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a client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor. when teaching the client about this medication, the nurse would explain that this class of medications are effective because they:
As they are mainly used to treat cardiac disease, ACE inhibitors are beneficial in persons with heart failure.
These medications treat heart attacks, strokes, and excessive blood pressure. reduces the chance of having a heart attack or stroke.
Utilized to treat renal disease and diabetes as well. This will stop the deterioration of your kidneys. If you have any issues, discuss taking these drugs with your doctor.
Angiotensin-modifying enzyme, or ACE for short, is an enzyme whose activity may be decreased by ACE inhibitors. Hormones that regulate blood pressure contain enzymes.
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the client who had a total hip replacement was discharged home and developed acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg. the nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication?
The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication is caused by hip dislocation.
What is the most effective therapy for a hip dislocation?
Your health professional will physically move your dislocated hip back into place to correct it. This is known as a reduction. If there are no supplementary injuries, the correction can be performed externally.
Hip dislocation is a painful condition wherein the ball joint of your hip pops out of its socket. It is usually caused by significant severe trauma. (Artificial hip replacement parts are a little easier to dislocate.) A dislocated hip is a medical emergency. It causes severe pain and disables your leg until it has been corrected.
Therefore, hip dislocation causes acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg.
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a client has been prescribed furosemide 80 mg twice daily. the asymptomatic client begins to have rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy with stable signs. what action will the nurse perform next?
Shortness of breath and exhaustion have been becoming worse for a patient. To ascertain the patient's kind of heart failure The doctor has prescribed a diagnostic test.
Furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg twice daily has been recommended for a patient. The patient. has been experiencing unusual premature ventricular contractions, which are followed by runs of bigeminy lasting two minutes, the heart monitor technician reports to the nurse.
The nurse finds that the client is asymptomatic and heart has stable vital signs during the evaluation. A patient is brought to the medical-surgical unit with right-sided heart failure. Information from the client that might point to the existence of edema.
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the nurse is reviewing lab results from a client's blood draw earlier in the shift. which result for the calcium level would the nurse expect when this client has irregular blood pressure readings, muscle spasms, and recent dental caries?
Hypocalcemia is a curable illness that occurs when the calcium levels in your blood are too low. By including calcium in your diet on a daily basis, you may avoid calcium deficiency disease.
Hypocalcemia can be caused by a variety of medical disorders, but it is frequently caused by low amounts of parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D in your body. Hypocalcemia can induce numbness and tingling (particularly around the lips, hands, and feet), as well as muscular cramps. Your blood calcium level will be evaluated at your first post-operative appointment, and you may be weaned off the supplementary calcium prescription following your surgery. Keep in mind that calcium rich meals, such as dairy products, might include a lot of saturated and trans fat.
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a patient's preliminary thyroid function test reveals a decrease in serum triiodothyronine (t 3) and tetraiodothyronine (t 4) hormone levels, which might indicate hypothyroidism. what other parameter should be assessed to determine the origin of hypothyroidism as primary or secondary?
High total T3 or high free T3 levels in your test findings could indicate hyperthyroidism.
You may have hypothyroidism, a condition in which your body doesn't produce enough thyroid hormone, if your T3 levels are low. To aid in the diagnosis of thyroid illness, T3 test results are frequently matched with T4 and TSH test findings.A tiny needle will be used by a medical practitioner to draw blood from a vein in your arm. A small amount of blood will be collected into a test tube or vial once the needle has been placed. The needle may sting slightly as it enters or exits your body. Usually, this only needs a few minutes.A T3 levels blood test does not require any special preparation on your part. If you need to stop taking any medications prior to your test, your doctor will let you know. Certain drugs can either increase or decrease T3 levels.
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BRAINLYIST 20 POINTSSS
you look at a nerve cell under a microscope and see something that looks like a tiny tree stretching outwards. What function does this part of the cell perform?
Question 12 options:
produces energy to transmit to other cells
protects the cell from bacteria or viruses
receives stimuli that is sent to the body and axon
moderates the speed of electrical impulses sent from the cell
Answer:
c
Explanation:
receives stimuli that is sent to the body and axon
the nurse is collecting data on a 6-year-old child admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. which vital sign would the nurse anticipate with this child's diagnosis? prepu
Data on a 6-year-old patient who was admitted with acute glomerulonephritis are being gathered by the nurse. The nurse would expect a tea-colored urine vital sign given the child's diagnosis.
Grossly bloody urine is the primary sign of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse may say that the urine is cola or tea colored. Hematuria may come on or be preceded by periorbital edema. Diarrhea is characterized by loose feces. One sign of Kawasaki disease in children is a tongue that is the color of strawberries. Hepatitis is associated with jaundiced skin. Glomerulonephritis is an infection of the tiny filters of the kidneys (gloe-MER-uh-nuh-FRY-tis). The body fluid known as urine is how glomeruli eliminate surplus fluid and waste from the bloodstream. Urine is the liquid waste product of metabolism in humans and many other animals. Through the urinary system, the ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
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an athlete wants to improve his diet and maximize his muscle size and definition. he is thinking about taking creatine monohydrate in addition to meeting his recommended daily protein intake. his friend mentioned that he found an interesting article on this topic from a popular website. is this article a credible source of information? why or why not? to answer this question, refer to:
To have more confidence in this article, it is important to check the scientific journal that was published, as a serious journal is reliable to believe in the information in the article.
What is creatine monohydrate?Creatine monohydrate is a specific form of creatine that is perfectly suited to be used as a dietary supplement. It is stable, effective, safe and easily absorbed by the body. Consuming creatine monohydrate daily helps replenish the body's creatine stores.
Until now, science has not been able to discover any other form of creatine more effective than creatine monohydrate. Creatine monohydrate is by far the best studied form of creatine. It is also the type best accepted by world food authorities. In its creatine safety assessment, the European Food Safety Authority also makes explicit reference to creatine monohydrate.
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the nurse is concerned that a client with a chronic illness is becoming more debilitated due to increasing body mass index. which health promotion education will the nurse provide to this client? select all that apply.
The nurse is concerned that a client with a chronic illness is becoming more debilitated due to increasing body mass index. Repeat back what the client states.
Continued chronic illness has a tendency to arise in older adults and may typically be controlled but not cured. The maximum common styles of persistent ailment are most cancers, coronary heart disorder, stroke, diabetes, and arthritis.
maximum persistent chronic illness resulting from key hazard behaviors: Tobacco use and exposure to secondhand smoke. negative vitamins, along with diets low in culmination and vegetables and high in sodium and saturated fats. the physical state of being inactive.
For a few human beings, their mental infection may also best be a couple of quick episodes. however, many human beings must control their mental health circumstance continually all through their whole existence. even though the severity of chronic illness conditions can fluctuate, they're frequently continual in nature which makes mental illness chronic.
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a 4-day-old newborn is receiving phototherapy at home for a bilirubin level of 14 mg/dl (238 mcmol/l). the nurse should plan to include which instruction in the teaching plan of care during the home visit to the mother of the newborn?
During the home visit with the newborn's mother, the teaching plan of care includes instruction on evaluating the newborn's skin integrity and fluid status.
Good skin integrity: what is it?Skin integrity is the state of your skin's health. The skin performs a variety of essential tasks when it is in good health. Your body's core temperature is maintained optimally, vitamin D from the sun is absorbed and processed, and electrolyte balance is supported, among many other things.
How do you keep a patient's skin healthy?Promote and preserve skin integrity by moisturizing dry skin to enhance lipid barriers, and do so at least twice each day. Avoid using hot water when bathing because it will cause more dry, cracked skin. Use a barrier or moisture lotion to protect skin as needed.
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an older adult client presents with raised yellow lesions on the face. what does this finding most likely suggest to the nurse?
When an older adult client presents with raised yellow lesions on the face. What this finding most likely suggests to the nurse is that the patient has Seborrheic Keratoses.
What is seborrheic keratoses?
Seborrheic keratoses are greasy, elevated yellowish sores. This is a harmless aging lesion. Solar lentigines are spots on the liver. Actinic keratoses are flattened papules that are covered with a dry scale. Cherry angiomas are facial reddening induced by superficial blood vessels.
It is also referred to as a non-cancerous skin ailment characterized by a waxy brown, black, or tan growth.
One of the most prevalent non-cancerous skin growths in elderly persons is seborrhoeic keratosis. While one growth might occur on its own, numerous growths are more usual.
Seborrheic keratosis is most commonly found on the face, chest, shoulders, and back. It seems waxy, scaly, and somewhat raised.
There is no need for therapy. A doctor can remove seborrhoeic keratosis if it causes irritation.
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an adult client has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has been prescribed an initial dose of po levothyroxine of 1.7 mcg/kg/day. the hospital nurse obtains a weight of 130 lb and would obtain levothyroxine in which available dose from the pharmacy?
Levothyroxine should be obtained in 1.47 mcg/kg/day available dose from the pharmacy
What is hypothyroidism ?A common condition known as hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid does not produce and release enough thyroid hormone into the bloodstream. Your metabolism is slowed by this. Hypothyroidism, also known as an underactive thyroid, can cause you to feel exhausted, put on weight, and have trouble handling cold weather.
Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune condition, is the most typical cause of hypothyroidism. When antibodies made by your immune system target your own tissues, autoimmune illnesses develop. Your thyroid gland is sometimes a part of this process.The simplest way to treat hypothyroidism is with medication that raises your thyroid hormone levels. It won't make your condition go away, but it can keep it under control for the rest of your life.Learn more about Hypothyroidism here:
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Is it true that if a patient is injured through no fault of yours, you could still be sued for negligence?
Answer:
No
Explanation:
you cannot be sued if the patient is injured for no fault of yours. The only person who has not followed standard procedure can be sued
a 57-year-old client is admitted to the medical unit with a 3-day history of sharp, nonradiating epigastric pain and vomiting. the client denies seeing blood in the stool. when assessing this client's abdomen, what assessment technique would the nurse perform last?
According to the given statement Palpation assessment technique would the nurse perform last.
What organ causes epigastric pain?Significant stomach expansion may impose pressure on the tissues around the gut and result in epigastric pain. Additionally, overeating can result in heartburn, acid reflux, and indigestion. These stomachaches typically pass after several minutes or hours and are bearable. But it could be necessary to seek emergency care if the pain lasts more than six hours, worsens, or is followed by vomiting or a high fever.
Is epigastric pain an emergency?On its own, gastrointestinal symptoms is not a significant symptom. However, if it coexists with other potentially fatal symptoms, it might be an indication of an illness that has to be treated by a doctor very away, like a heart attack.
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the parent asks the nurse whether a child with hemiparesis due to spastic cerebral palsy will be able to walk normally because he can pull himself to a standing position. which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder withdraws into their own world and struggles to communicate and interact with others.
Children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) struggle to form social relationships. Children with separation anxiety exhibit the inability to detach. Children with Attention Deficit Disorder are more prone to becoming inattentive (ADD). Primary Children delays in cerebral palsy children must be recognized in order to prevent subsequent and tertiary delays. The stopped development is concerning and needs more research. The lack of growth can be an indication of hearing loss or suggest autism. Because of cerebral palsy, there is no gradual brain damage. A young child's brain is very malleable, provided that growth has not yet peaked at that age.
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an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to note?
The assessment findings should the nurse expect to note is fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.
What are assessment findings?Assessment findings are the results produced by the application of an assessment procedure to a security control or control enhancement to achieve an assessment objective.
If an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to note fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.
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a client is admitted to the facility after experiencing uncontrolled diarrhea for the past several days. the client is exhibiting signs of a fluid volume deficit. when reviewing the client's laboratory test results, which electrolyte imbalance would the nurse likely to find?
Answer:
i think hypokalemia
Explanation:
when preparing a client for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. what is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?
Appendix obstruction reduces arterial flow, resulting in ischemia, inflammation, and appendix rupture.
What does the appendix do specifically?Unknown is the purpose of the appendix. One hypothesis holds that the appendix serves as a repository for beneficial bacteria that "reboots" the digestive system following diarrheal infections. The appendix, according to some specialists, is essentially a worthless holdover from our evolutionary history.
What occurs if the appendix is removed?There's a chance your belly will swell and hurt. Your shoulder may hurt for around 24 hours following laparoscopic surgery. A headache, diarrhea, constipation, gas, or an upset stomach may also be present. In a few days, this normally goes away.
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a nurse is analyzing a journal article that explains the changes at birth from fetal to newborn circulation. the nurse can point out the closure of the ductus arteriosus is related to which event after completing the article?
Lungs start to work when pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases in newborns body
While the newborns body undergoes change, early adjustments in the circulatory and respiratory systems are necessary to support life outside the womb. (PVR) drops with the first breath, and the heart rate rises initially but falls to 120 to 130 bpm after a few minutes. Within 48 hours, the ductal murmur will disappear in 80+% of newborns. Rhonchi brought on by amniotic fluid retention is an unusual and unanticipated occurrence (PVR). Through shivering and other methods, newborns have trouble keeping their body heat. (PVR)can hardly perspire and have a big body surface area in relation to their newborns body weight.
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after teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve the senses or motor ability as which type?
After teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when they identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve motor ability as a Partial seizure type.
Since focal seizures start in one specific area of the brain, they are also known as partial seizures. Any focused injury that causes scar tangles might be the reason for them. In around half of those who experience focal seizures, a cause (such as trauma, a stroke, or meningitis) may be determined by medical history or an MRI. When abnormal electrical activity affects a specific region of the brain, it causes a partial (focal) seizure.
Simple partial seizures are recognized when the seizure has no impact on consciousness. Straightforward examples of partial seizures include: body muscles are affected by motor disorders. A simple partial seizure has a small chance of developing problems. For example, during a seizure, it is less probable that a person will unintentionally breathe in food.
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after several weeks, the bladder training program is unsuccessful in stopping mr. ellis' incontinence. mr. ellis appears withdrawn and states that he is frustrated at the number of episodes that he is having.which nursing diagnoses are appropriate for mr. ellis?
The appropriate diagnosis for Mr. Ellis is the danger of reduced skin integrity due to incontinence and inadequate coping due to inability to regulate urine leaks.
The involuntary flow of urine is known as urinary incontinence. It denotes urinating when one does not like to. Due to impairment or lost of urinary sphincter's control. It can occur as a result of stress causes such as coughing, during and after pregnancy, and is more common in pathological conditions and older age group. The skin of the patient with urinary incontinence is regularly exposed to urine, which irritates the skin and puts the patient at risk for decreased skin integrity. The nurse understands that the Braden scale evaluation should be conducted on this patient and that every effort should be made to prevent the formation of pressure ulcers. Mr.Ellis's distant conduct and frustrated words suggest that he is having difficulty dealing with his incontinence.
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a resident of a nursing home has moderate-severe cognitive decline. the resident frequently wanders into the room of other residents and takes items from the closets and drawers. the facility staff has asked the cota for suggestions on how to reduce the occurrence of this behavior. which strategy would be most beneficial for the cota to recommend?
To reduce the occurrence of this behavior, the COTA to recommend strategy is identify the spaces within the facility that are appropriate for the resident of nursing home to rummage.
A nursing home is a facility for the residential care of senior or disabled folks. Nursing homes may additionally be mentioned as adept nursing facility, long care facilities, recent people's homes, aided living facilities care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes or convalescent care.
The Central Ohio Transit Authority (COTA) may be a transportation system agency serving the Columbus metropolitan space, headquartered in Columbus, Ohio. It operates fixed-route buses, bus mass rapid transit, microtransit, and paratransit services. COTA's headquarters are settled within the William J. Lhota Building in downtown Columbus.
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a patient is admitted to the hospital through the ed with chf. after assessment, it was determined that she met criteria for ip admission. the nurse is writing her care plan based on established protocol. this protocol is called: group of answer choices
False; the nurse is basing her care plan on accepted procedure. Care pathway is the name of this approach.
What is a care pathway?Care plans are a technique to lay out the best practice procedure to be followed when undergoing treatment or consumer with a specific disease or set of needs. They should be evidence-based as they are a condensed version of the best expert analysis on the care procedure currently available.
How long do individuals remain here on end-of-life pathway?End-of-life care should start as soon as you want it and may continue a few days, months, or even longer on occasion. End-of-life care can help people in a variety of circumstances. a small number of months.
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an emergency medical responder informs you that he was assisting ems with a cardiac arrest last week. he also states that the patient had been in cardiac arrest for eight minutes and questions why cpr was performed first, even though the aed was right there. you should reply:
Early defibrillation is important due to the fact ventricular fibrillation is the maximum common preliminary dysrhythmia of sudden cardiac arrest, defibrillation is the best treatment, and survival from ventricular traumatic inflammation is determined by way of time.
If a person is having a cardiac arrest, call 999, start CPR and use a defibrillator if there may be one nearby. observe instructions from the 999 operators till emergency services take over.
Epinephrine, 1 mg, is used as a blunt tool in the course of CPR to grow the rate of ROSC and survival to discharge. Epinephrine has an extra-mentioned treatment impact whilst given early inside the resuscitation try, particularly for a non-shockable cardiac arrest.
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a nurse is teaching a client about the importance of checking the skin for changes that might suggest skin cancer. after describing the typical lesions associated with melanoma, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client identifies which characteristic? select all that apply.
Edges with irregularities larger than a quarter-inch diameter
The molecular structure has shifted are the characteristics that show melanoma.
Melanoma, the worst form of skin cancer, grows in the cells (melanocytes) that create melanin, the pigment that gives your skin its color. Melanoma can also develop in the eyes and, in rare cases, within the body, such as the nose or throat.
Although the specific etiology of all melanomas is unknown, exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunshine or tanning lights and beds raises your chance of acquiring melanoma. Limiting your exposure to UV light may help lower your chance of developing melanoma.
Melanoma risk appears to be rising in those under the age of 40, particularly among women.
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you respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious with slow, shallow breathing and a weak pulse. the family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. they further state that there is a dnr order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. you should:
Answer: Begin life-saving measures.
Explanation: Though the family says he does not want to be saved, there is no proof of any DNR. If there is no DNR and no life-saving measures are taken, the result can be the termination of your licenses.
when caring for a client on extended bedrest, which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the risk of contractures?
To avoid risk of contractures, the nurse should reposition the client every 2 hours.
What happens with contractures?A contracture occurs when there is a fixed tightening in the muscles, tendons, ligaments and or skin. It hinders specific body parts from normal movement. This can also be described as the body tissues loosing elasticity and becoming fiber-like.
When the body is immobile for a while it can cause contracture. Patients under admittance in hospitals can experience this condition and the nurses in charge will have to reposition them every two hours to avoid tightening of the muscles and also encourage bed stretches to loosen the joints.
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